Health care Law Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 5 | Total Attempts: 17,744
Questions: 28 | Attempts: 150

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Health Care Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which court deals with lesser criminal offences, young offenders, family law issues, civil law matters and small claims?

    • A.

      Federal Courts

    • B.

      Appellate Courts

    • C.

      Provincial/Territorial Courts

    • D.

      Provincial & Territorial Superior Courts

    Correct Answer
    C. Provincial/Territorial Courts
    Explanation
    Provincial/Territorial Courts deal with lesser criminal offences, young offenders, family law issues, civil law matters, and small claims. These courts have jurisdiction over cases that fall within the provincial or territorial boundaries and handle a wide range of legal matters at a local level. They are responsible for resolving disputes and enforcing laws within their respective jurisdictions, providing accessible and efficient justice for the community.

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  • 2. 

    Judge made law or case law 

    • A.

      Legislation

    • B.

      Regulation

    • C.

      Guidelines

    • D.

      Common Law

    Correct Answer
    D. Common Law
    Explanation
    Common law refers to the body of law derived from judicial decisions and precedents, rather than from statutes or regulations. It is based on the principle of stare decisis, which means that courts are bound to follow the rulings of higher courts in similar cases. Common law is developed and refined over time by judges, who interpret and apply legal principles to specific cases. This contrasts with legislation, which is created by the legislative branch of government, and regulations and guidelines, which are issued by administrative agencies. Therefore, common law is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 3. 

    Which statutory law does not have the force of law?

    • A.

      Guidelines

    • B.

      Legislation

    • C.

      Regulation

    • D.

      Civil law

    Correct Answer
    A. Guidelines
    Explanation
    Guidelines do not have the force of law as they are not legally binding. They are simply recommendations or suggestions provided by an authoritative body to assist in decision-making or to provide a framework for specific actions. While guidelines may be influential and widely followed, they do not carry the same legal weight as legislation, regulations, or civil laws, which are enforceable and have legal consequences for non-compliance.

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  • 4. 

    Which is not one of the five principles of the Canada health Act?

    • A.

      Public Administration

    • B.

      Comprehensiveness

    • C.

      Accuracy

    • D.

      Universality

    Correct Answer
    C. Accuracy
  • 5. 

    This term describes physician services rendered by medical practitioners.

    • A.

      Medically required

    • B.

      Medically necessary

    • C.

      Reimbursements

    • D.

      Supplemental Benefits

    Correct Answer
    A. Medically required
    Explanation
    The term "medically required" refers to physician services that are necessary for the treatment and care of a patient's medical condition. These services are determined by medical practitioners based on their professional judgment and expertise. They are essential for the patient's well-being and are typically covered by insurance or reimbursed by healthcare providers.

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  • 6. 

    This principle requires provinces to fund 100% of the cost of “all insured health services” provided by hospitals, medical practitioners and dentists.

    • A.

      Accessibility

    • B.

      Universality

    • C.

      Comprehensiveness

    • D.

      Public Administration

    Correct Answer
    C. Comprehensiveness
    Explanation
    This principle of comprehensiveness requires provinces to fund 100% of the cost of all insured health services provided by hospitals, medical practitioners, and dentists. This means that the healthcare system should cover a wide range of services and treatments, ensuring that individuals have access to necessary medical care without financial barriers. It emphasizes the importance of providing comprehensive healthcare coverage to all citizens, regardless of their income or health status.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is correct about the Regulated Health Professional Act.

    • A.

      Ensure that a review system is in place - where the incident is analyzed and a plan is developed to avoid or reduce this type of risk for the future

    • B.

      A unique number assigned to each patient an identification number for all personal health information & other health information relating to that patient

    • C.

      Act states that administrator must ensure that a record keeping system is set up and that a health record must be maintained for every patient

    • D.

      Set out registration requirements, identify the scope of practice and permitted/restricted activities

    Correct Answer
    D. Set out registration requirements, identify the scope of practice and permitted/restricted activities
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set out registration requirements, identify the scope of practice and permitted/restricted activities." This answer accurately describes one of the main purposes of the Regulated Health Professional Act. The act outlines the requirements for registering as a health professional, defines the scope of practice for each profession, and specifies the activities that are either permitted or restricted for these professionals. This ensures that only qualified individuals are allowed to practice, and it helps protect the public by setting clear guidelines and standards for healthcare professionals.

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  • 8. 

    Fiduciary relationship requires a health care professional to act with utmost good from faith and loyalty and to hold information received from or about a client in confidence.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because a fiduciary relationship in healthcare requires the professional to act in the best interest of the client, maintaining trust, confidentiality, and loyalty. This means that the healthcare professional must prioritize the client's well-being, respect their privacy, and keep any information shared during the course of the relationship confidential.

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  • 9. 

    A privacy legislation which guides the collection, use or disclosure of personal information in the course of commercial activities.

    • A.

      PHIPA

    • B.

      PIPEDA

    • C.

      FIPPA

    • D.

      MFIPPA

    Correct Answer
    B. PIPEDA
    Explanation
    PIPEDA, which stands for the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act, is a privacy legislation that governs the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information in the course of commercial activities. This law applies to private-sector organizations that operate across provincial or national borders, ensuring that individuals' personal information is protected and used responsibly. PIPEDA establishes rules and principles for organizations to follow when handling personal information, including obtaining consent, safeguarding data, and providing individuals with access to their information. It aims to balance the need for organizations to collect and use personal information with individuals' right to privacy.

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  • 10. 

    A person or organization described in PHIPA who has custody or control of personal health information as a result of or in connection with performing the person's or organization's powers or duties.

    • A.

      Agents

    • B.

      Patients

    • C.

      Physicians

    • D.

      Custodians

    Correct Answer
    D. Custodians
    Explanation
    According to PHIPA, custodians are individuals or organizations who have custody or control over personal health information. They acquire this responsibility through their powers or duties. Custodians are entrusted with the protection and management of personal health information, ensuring its confidentiality and privacy. This term refers to entities that have a legal obligation to handle and safeguard personal health information in accordance with PHIPA guidelines.

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  • 11. 

    Which is true about correcting documentation errors?

    • A.

      Failure to document the chart at all during a critical time is a breach of standard of care and documentation standards

    • B.

      Correction must be completed by the care provider within 60 days of the request

    • C.

      Both original and revised documentation must be retained as part of the record

    • D.

      Incorrect information should be deleted and replaced with the correct information.

    Correct Answer
    C. Both original and revised documentation must be retained as part of the record
    Explanation
    Both original and revised documentation must be retained as part of the record. This means that when correcting documentation errors, it is important to keep both the original version with the error and the revised version with the correction. This is necessary to maintain a complete and accurate record of the patient's care. Deleting incorrect information and replacing it with the correct information may not provide a clear picture of what actually happened, so it is important to retain both versions.

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  • 12. 

    According to The College of Nurses of Ontario and the Public Hospital Act and The Medicine Act, what is the minimum recommended retention period for health records?

    • A.

      10 years from the last visit/entry in the health record

    • B.

      Minors: 10 years commence after they turn 19

    • C.

      3 years from the last visit/entry in the health record

    • D.

      5 years from the last visit/entry in the health record

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 years from the last visit/entry in the health record
    Explanation
    According to The College of Nurses of Ontario and the Public Hospital Act and The Medicine Act, the minimum recommended retention period for health records is 10 years from the last visit/entry in the health record. This means that healthcare providers should keep the health records of patients for a minimum of 10 years after their last visit or entry in the record. It is important to maintain these records for a sufficient period of time for legal and medical purposes.

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  • 13. 

    All are elements of valid consent except:

    • A.

      Must be within the circle of care

    • B.

      Must not be obtained through deception or coercion

    • C.

      Must be knowledgeable; must know details of collection, use, disclosure must know consent can be withdrawn

    • D.

      Must be a consent of the individual

    Correct Answer
    A. Must be within the circle of care
    Explanation
    Valid consent must meet certain criteria in order to be considered valid. These include: not being obtained through deception or coercion, the individual must be knowledgeable about the details of the collection, use, and disclosure of their information and must know that consent can be withdrawn. However, being within the circle of care is not a requirement for valid consent. The circle of care refers to the group of healthcare providers involved in a patient's care, and while they may need access to the patient's information, valid consent extends beyond this specific group.

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  • 14. 

    IPC Ontario Order states that it was incumbent upon agents to ensure the security of all health information in their possession throughout the entire life cycle of the records.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The given statement is false. The IPC Ontario Order does not state that it is the responsibility of agents to ensure the security of all health information throughout the entire life cycle of the records. The IPC Ontario Order does outline the obligations of agents in terms of protecting personal health information, but it does not specify that this responsibility extends throughout the entire life cycle of the records.

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  • 15. 

    Who is the highest rank for substitute decision maker? 

    • A.

      Guardian

    • B.

      Spouse or partner

    • C.

      Parent with right of access

    • D.

      Attorney for personal care with authority for Health Decisions

    Correct Answer
    A. Guardian
    Explanation
    The highest rank for a substitute decision maker is a Guardian. A Guardian is a person who is appointed by a court to make decisions on behalf of someone who is unable to make decisions for themselves. They have the legal authority to make important decisions regarding the person's welfare, finances, and overall well-being.

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  • 16. 

    All are mandatory reporting obligations except: 

    • A.

      Reporting of suspected child abuse or neglect to child protection agencies

    • B.

      Loss or theft of narcotics or targeted substance

    • C.

      Gunshot wounds

    • D.

      Stabbing wounds

    Correct Answer
    D. Stabbing wounds
    Explanation
    Stabbing wounds are not a mandatory reporting obligation because they do not involve a specific legal requirement to report them to authorities. However, reporting suspected child abuse or neglect to child protection agencies, loss or theft of narcotics or targeted substances, and gunshot wounds are all mandatory reporting obligations, meaning that individuals are legally required to report these incidents to the appropriate authorities.

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  • 17. 

    All of the following should be considered prior to releasing health information except:

    • A.

      Access whether further consultation is necessary and whether further legal processes may apply if the disclosure is required by law

    • B.

      Verify the identity of the requesting party

    • C.

      Ensure that the written consent form (if any) is filed on the individual’s health record, or that documentation is included providing the date of consent, the information provided and the date of disclosure

    • D.

      Verify that the consent form was dated less than 90 days ago

    Correct Answer
    D. Verify that the consent form was dated less than 90 days ago
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Verify that the consent form was dated less than 90 days ago." This statement is incorrect because the time frame of 90 days is not a relevant factor in determining whether to release health information. The other statements are all important considerations prior to releasing health information, such as determining if further consultation or legal processes are necessary, verifying the identity of the requesting party, and ensuring proper documentation of consent.

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  • 18. 

    This term describes an organization's control over information in the organization's custody.

    • A.

      Privacy

    • B.

      Security

    • C.

      Protection

    • D.

      Confidentiality

    Correct Answer
    B. Security
    Explanation
    Security is the correct answer because it refers to an organization's control over information in its custody. Security measures are put in place to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data within an organization. It encompasses various practices and technologies used to safeguard information from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction.

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  • 19. 

    Which term describes to make the information available or to release it to another health information custodian or to another person. 

    • A.

      Use

    • B.

      Collect

    • C.

      Disclose

    • D.

      Retain

    Correct Answer
    C. Disclose
    Explanation
    The term "disclose" means to make information available or release it to another health information custodian or another person. This involves sharing or providing access to the information with the intention of allowing others to view or use it.

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  • 20. 

    What type of information is the following?James Smith, DOB: August 1, 2011, 1234 Whatever Street, North Pole, H0H 0H0

    • A.

      Personal Information

    • B.

      Quasi-identifiers

    • C.

      De-Identifiable

    • D.

      Personal Health Information

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal Information
    Explanation
    The information provided includes a person's name, date of birth, address, and postal code. This type of information is considered personal because it directly identifies an individual.

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  • 21. 

    The following variables gender, marital status, postal code or other location information, a significant date, diagnosis information, profession, ethnic origin, visible minority status, and income would be what kind of identifier?

    • A.

      Direct identifiers

    • B.

      De-Identifiers

    • C.

      Quasi-identifiers

    • D.

      Personal Health Information

    Correct Answer
    C. Quasi-identifiers
    Explanation
    The variables mentioned in the question, such as gender, marital status, postal code, diagnosis information, etc., can potentially identify an individual when combined with other information. However, they do not directly reveal the individual's identity. Therefore, these variables are considered quasi-identifiers, as they can be used to re-identify individuals indirectly.

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  • 22. 

    Provides services to two or more health information custodians, where the services are provided primarily to enable the custodians to use electronic means to disclose personal health information to one another.

    • A.

      Entity

    • B.

      Electronic Service Provider

    • C.

      Pseudonymization

    • D.

      Health Information Network Provider

    Correct Answer
    D. Health Information Network Provider
    Explanation
    A Health Information Network Provider is the correct answer because it provides services to multiple health information custodians, specifically to enable them to use electronic means to disclose personal health information to one another. This suggests that the provider facilitates the secure exchange of health information between different custodians, ensuring that the information remains confidential and protected.

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  • 23. 

    Health Information Exchange and data-Sharing Agreements deals with the protection of all the following except:  

    • A.

      Intellectual property rights

    • B.

      Accountability

    • C.

      Software licensing

    • D.

      Dispute resolution

    Correct Answer
    B. Accountability
    Explanation
    Health Information Exchange and data-Sharing Agreements primarily focus on ensuring the accountability of individuals and organizations involved in the exchange and sharing of health information. This includes holding them responsible for the appropriate use, security, and privacy of the data. It does not directly deal with intellectual property rights, software licensing, or dispute resolution, although these may be indirectly related to accountability in certain cases.

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  • 24. 

    Check all that applies to logging ROI requests:

    • A.

      Status of request

    • B.

      Funds requested and collected

    • C.

      Name of the facility releasing the information

    • D.

      Information sent

    • E.

      Date of the request

    • F.

      Date and time information sent

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Status of request
    B. Funds requested and collected
    D. Information sent
    E. Date of the request
    F. Date and time information sent
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the status of the request, funds requested and collected, information sent, date of the request, and date and time information sent. These are all important details that need to be logged when handling ROI requests.

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  • 25. 

    Which is included in a Threat and Risk Assessment.

    • A.

      Includes data mapping through the systems and analyzing the results

    • B.

      Process helps departments and agencies determine whether new technologies, information systems, initiatives or proposed programs and policies meet the established privacy requirements.

    • C.

      Concerned with safeguarding information assets and avoiding potential breaches

    • D.

      Identifying threats and risks to a system and corrective or mitigating actions are developed

    Correct Answer
    B. Process helps departments and agencies determine whether new technologies, information systems, initiatives or proposed programs and policies meet the established privacy requirements.
    Explanation
    A Threat and Risk Assessment is a process that helps departments and agencies evaluate whether new technologies, information systems, initiatives, or proposed programs and policies meet established privacy requirements. This assessment involves data mapping through the systems and analyzing the results to identify potential threats and risks to the system. It is concerned with safeguarding information assets and avoiding potential breaches. Based on the identified threats and risks, corrective or mitigating actions are developed to address them. This process ensures that privacy requirements are met and helps protect sensitive information from unauthorized access or disclosure.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of privacy breach would inadvertent collection, sharing, alteration, accesses or destroys data be?

    • A.

      Accidental

    • B.

      Intentional

    • C.

      Malicious

    • D.

      Catastrophic

    Correct Answer
    A. Accidental
    Explanation
    Inadvertent collection, sharing, alteration, access, or destruction of data refers to actions that occur unintentionally or by mistake. This type of privacy breach is considered accidental because it is not done with any malicious intent.

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