Fire Inspector I Study Guide V

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Fire Inspector Quizzes & Trivia

Basic fire inspector 1 study questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Section classes on an MSDS - Reactivity data

    Explanation
    The correct answer is Section V because Section V of an MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) typically contains information about the reactivity of a substance. This section provides details on any potential hazards or reactions that may occur when the substance comes into contact with other substances, such as water or air. It also includes information on stability and conditions to avoid to prevent any dangerous reactions. Therefore, Section V is the appropriate section to find reactivity data on an MSDS.

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  • 2. 

    Section classes on an MSDS - Hazardous ingredients

    Explanation
    The correct answer is Section II because Section II of an MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) typically provides information about the hazardous ingredients present in a product. This section lists the specific chemicals or substances that may pose a health or safety risk, including their concentration levels and potential hazards. It is an important section for individuals to review in order to understand the potential risks associated with using or handling the product.

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  • 3. 

    Section classes on an MSDS - Control measures

  • 4. 

    Section classes on an MSDS - Fire & explosion hazard data

    Explanation
    The given correct answer for this question is "Section IV". In an MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet), Section IV typically contains information related to fire and explosion hazard data. This section provides details about the potential risks and hazards associated with the material, such as its flammability, ignition sources, and explosive properties. It may also include information on fire fighting measures and recommended safety precautions to be taken in case of a fire or explosion.

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  • 5. 

    Section classes on an MSDS - Health hazard data

  • 6. 

    Section classes on an MSDS - Precautions for safe handling and use

  • 7. 

    Section classes on an MSDS - Physical and chemical characteristics

    Explanation
    The given correct answer, "Section III," suggests that the physical and chemical characteristics of a substance are typically covered in this section of an MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet). This section provides important information about the substance's appearance, odor, boiling point, melting point, solubility, and other relevant properties. It helps users understand the substance's behavior and potential hazards, allowing them to handle it safely.

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  • 8. 

    Liquids having a flash point below 100 degrees F - and a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psi.

    • A.

      Boiling point

    • B.

      Specific gravity

    • C.

      Flammable & explosive limits

    • D.

      Flammable liquids

    Correct Answer
    D. Flammable liquids
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "flammable liquids". This is because liquids with a flash point below 100 degrees F and a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psi are considered flammable. The flash point is the temperature at which a liquid can produce enough vapor to ignite, and a vapor pressure below 40 psi indicates that the liquid does not easily evaporate. Therefore, liquids meeting these criteria are classified as flammable liquids.

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  • 9. 

    Liquids having a flash point at or above 100 degrees F

    • A.

      Flash point

    • B.

      Boiling point

    • C.

      Combustible liquids

    • D.

      Flammable liquids

    Correct Answer
    C. Combustible liquids
    Explanation
    Combustible liquids are substances that have a flash point above 100 degrees F. Flash point refers to the lowest temperature at which a liquid can produce enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source. Liquids with a flash point at or above 100 degrees F are considered combustible, meaning they have a lower risk of catching fire compared to flammable liquids, which have a lower flash point. Therefore, the correct answer is combustible liquids.

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  • 10. 

    Minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixutre with the air near the surface

    • A.

      Flash point

    • B.

      Specific gravity

    • C.

      Flammable & explosive limits

    • D.

      Fire point

    Correct Answer
    A. Flash point
    Explanation
    The flash point is the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel releases enough vapors to create a flammable mixture with the air near its surface. This temperature is crucial because it determines the potential for ignition and combustion. If the temperature is below the flash point, the fuel will not produce enough vapors to ignite. However, if the temperature exceeds the flash point, the fuel will release sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture, increasing the risk of fire or explosion. Therefore, understanding the flash point is essential for handling and storing flammable liquids safely.

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  • 11. 

    Temperature at which a liquid fuel, once ignited, will continue to burn

    • A.

      Fire point

    • B.

      Autoignition temperature

    • C.

      Flammable liquids

    • D.

      Boiling point

    Correct Answer
    A. Fire point
    Explanation
    The fire point is the temperature at which a liquid fuel, once ignited, will continue to burn. This means that even if the ignition source is removed, the fuel will sustain the fire. It is an important parameter to consider for safety purposes, as it indicates the temperature at which a fire can be sustained without an external ignition source. Unlike the autoignition temperature, which is the temperature at which a fuel can ignite spontaneously without an external ignition source, the fire point requires an initial ignition source but can sustain the fire afterwards.

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  • 12. 

    Temperature at which a fuel will ignite independent of another ignition source

    • A.

      Flash point

    • B.

      Specific gravity

    • C.

      Autoignition temperature

    • D.

      Piloted ignition

    Correct Answer
    C. Autoignition temperature
    Explanation
    The autoignition temperature refers to the minimum temperature at which a fuel can ignite spontaneously without the need for an external ignition source, such as a spark or flame. It is a crucial parameter in determining the safety and handling of fuels, as it indicates the potential for self-ignition.

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  • 13. 

    Temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to the external pressure applied to it

    • A.

      Flash point

    • B.

      Specific gravity

    • C.

      Flammable & explosive limits

    • D.

      Boiling point

    Correct Answer
    D. Boiling point
    Explanation
    The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure becomes equal to the external pressure applied to it. At this temperature, the liquid starts to rapidly vaporize and turn into a gas. Therefore, the correct answer is boiling point.

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  • 14. 

    Ratio of a liquid's weight to the weight of an equal volume of water.

    • A.

      Flash point

    • B.

      Specific gravity

    • C.

      Boiling point

    • D.

      Fire point

    Correct Answer
    B. Specific gravity
    Explanation
    Specific gravity is the ratio of a liquid's weight to the weight of an equal volume of water. It is a measure of the density of a substance relative to the density of water. Specific gravity is commonly used in various industries to determine the purity or concentration of a substance, as well as to compare the densities of different liquids. It is a useful parameter for understanding the behavior and characteristics of liquids, especially in fields such as chemistry, physics, and engineering.

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  • 15. 

    The best source for information on a specific hazardous material is the MSDS.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is a comprehensive document that provides detailed information about hazardous materials, including their physical and chemical properties, potential hazards, safe handling procedures, and emergency response measures. It is considered the best source of information because it is required by law for manufacturers and distributors to provide accurate and up-to-date information about hazardous materials. The MSDS helps individuals and organizations understand the risks associated with a specific hazardous material and take appropriate precautions to ensure safety. Therefore, the statement that the MSDS is the best source for information on a specific hazardous material is true.

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  • 16. 

    An MSDS must follow a set form specified by federal regulations.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) is a document that provides information about the potential hazards and safe handling procedures for a specific substance. While federal regulations require that MSDSs be provided for hazardous chemicals, there is no specific set form that must be followed. The format and content of an MSDS can vary as long as it includes the required information outlined by the regulations. Therefore, the statement that an MSDS must follow a set form specified by federal regulations is false.

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  • 17. 

    An MSDS from the United States is acceptable for use in Canada.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    An MSDS from the United States is not acceptable for use in Canada. This is because Canada has its own regulations and requirements for Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) which may differ from those in the United States. Therefore, it is necessary to have a separate MSDS that complies with Canadian standards in order to use it in Canada.

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  • 18. 

    Flash points determined by the open-cup method are approximately 10 degree F to 15 degrees F higher than those determined by the closed-cup method.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Flash points are determined to measure the temperature at which a liquid can produce enough vapor to ignite when exposed to an open flame. The open-cup method involves heating the liquid in an open container, while the closed-cup method involves heating the liquid in a closed container with a small opening. The closed cup restricts the release of vapor, resulting in a lower flash point compared to the open cup. Therefore, it is true that flash points determined by the open-cup method are approximately 10-15 degrees F higher than those determined by the closed-cup method.

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  • 19. 

    Explosions of flammable vapor-air mixtures usually occur in a confined space such as a building, room or container.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Explosions of flammable vapor-air mixtures typically happen in enclosed spaces where the concentration of the vapor is high and there is a sufficient source of ignition. This is because the confined space allows for the accumulation of the vapor, increasing the likelihood of combustion. In open areas, the vapor disperses quickly, making it less likely to reach explosive levels. Therefore, the statement "Explosions of flammable vapor-air mixtures usually occur in a confined space such as a building, room or container" is true.

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  • 20. 

    Distances from storage tanks to property lines and public ways are determined by federal statute.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The distances from storage tanks to property lines and public ways are not determined by federal statute. The correct answer is False.

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  • 21. 

    Fusible vents on portable tanks must be designed to operate at a temperature not exceeding 212 degrees F.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Fusible vents on portable tanks do not need to be designed to operate at a temperature not exceeding 212 degrees F.

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  • 22. 

    Loading and unlocading stations for Class I liquids should be no closer than 25 feet from property lines or adjacent buildings.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because according to safety regulations, loading and unloading stations for Class I liquids must be at least 25 feet away from property lines or adjacent buildings. This distance helps to minimize the risk of fire or explosion in case of any accidents or leaks during the loading or unloading process. By keeping a safe distance, potential hazards can be contained and the safety of nearby properties and buildings can be ensured.

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  • 23. 

    What resource lists the four-digit identification  numbers assigned to hazardous material?

    • A.

      United Nations Codebook

    • B.

      IGGRN

    • C.

      NATO Haz Mat Treaty

    • D.

      NAERG

    Correct Answer
    D. NAERG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NAERG because NAERG stands for North American Emergency Response Guidebook, which is a resource that lists the four-digit identification numbers assigned to hazardous materials. It provides guidance on how to respond to incidents involving hazardous materials and helps emergency responders quickly identify the proper procedures and precautions to take.

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  • 24. 

    The NFPA 704 system is designed to be used for ______

    • A.

      Manufacturing

    • B.

      Transportation

    • C.

      Chronic exposures

    • D.

      Nonemergency occupational exposures

    Correct Answer
    A. Manufacturing
    Explanation
    The NFPA 704 system is designed to be used for manufacturing. This system is a standard for the identification of hazardous materials and their associated hazards. It provides a simple and recognizable diamond-shaped label that indicates the level of health, flammability, instability, and special hazards associated with a specific substance. This information is crucial in manufacturing environments where workers need to be aware of the potential risks and take appropriate safety measures. The NFPA 704 system helps ensure the safe handling, storage, and use of hazardous materials in manufacturing processes.

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  • 25. 

    What does the number 4 signify in the NFPA 704 system?

    • A.

      No hazard

    • B.

      Low hazard

    • C.

      Moderate hazard

    • D.

      Severe hazard

    Correct Answer
    D. Severe hazard
    Explanation
    The number 4 in the NFPA 704 system signifies a severe hazard. This means that the substance or material associated with this number poses a high level of danger, potentially causing serious harm or damage. It is important to handle and manage substances with this classification with extreme caution to minimize risks and ensure safety.

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  • 26. 

    What color indicates health hazard ratings in the NFPA 704 system?

    • A.

      Red

    • B.

      Blue

    • C.

      Yellow

    • D.

      White

    Correct Answer
    B. Blue
    Explanation
    In the NFPA 704 system, the color blue is used to indicate health hazard ratings. This system is a standard for labeling hazardous materials and is used to quickly convey information about the hazards associated with a particular substance. The blue color specifically represents the health hazard rating, which assesses the potential health effects that the material may have on individuals who come into contact with it.

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  • 27. 

    What position indicates flammability ratings in the NFPA 704 system?

    • A.

      12 o'clock

    • B.

      3 o'clock

    • C.

      6 o'clock

    • D.

      9 o'clock

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 o'clock
    Explanation
    The position that indicates flammability ratings in the NFPA 704 system is 12 o'clock. In the NFPA 704 system, a diamond-shaped label is used to communicate the hazards of a particular substance. The diamond is divided into four quadrants, with each quadrant representing a different hazard. The top quadrant, which is positioned at 12 o'clock, is used to indicate the flammability rating of the substance. This rating ranges from 0 (non-flammable) to 4 (extremely flammable), allowing individuals to quickly assess the level of flammability and take appropriate precautions.

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  • 28. 

    What color indicates reactivity hazard rating in the NFPA 704 system?

    • A.

      Red

    • B.

      Blue

    • C.

      Yellow

    • D.

      White

    Correct Answer
    C. Yellow
    Explanation
    In the NFPA 704 system, the color yellow is used to indicate the reactivity hazard rating. This means that materials with this rating have the potential to react violently with water, air, or other chemicals. The yellow color serves as a warning to handle these materials with caution to prevent accidents or dangerous reactions.

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  • 29. 

    What position indicates special hazards in the NFPA 704 system?

    • A.

      12 o'clock

    • B.

      3 o'clock

    • C.

      6 o'clock

    • D.

      9 o'clock

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 o'clock
    Explanation
    The position that indicates special hazards in the NFPA 704 system is 6 o'clock. In this system, a diamond-shaped label is used to identify hazardous materials and their level of danger. The diamond is divided into four quadrants, with each quadrant representing a different aspect of the hazard. The bottom quadrant, which is positioned at 6 o'clock, is used to indicate any special hazards associated with the material, such as water reactivity or oxidizing properties.

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  • 30. 

    What section of an MSDS includes hazardous decomposition or by-products?

    • A.

      Physical and chemical characteristics

    • B.

      Hazardous ingredients

    • C.

      Reactivity data

    • D.

      Health hazard data

    Correct Answer
    C. Reactivity data
    Explanation
    The section of an MSDS that includes hazardous decomposition or by-products is the reactivity data section. This section provides information about the potential reactions of a substance with other materials, including the possibility of producing hazardous decomposition products or by-products. It helps users understand the potential risks and precautions needed when handling or storing the substance.

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  • 31. 

    Which section of an MSDS includes emergency and first aid procedures?

    • A.

      Precautions for safe handling and use

    • B.

      Hazardous ingredients

    • C.

      Health hazard data

    • D.

      Physical and chemical characteristics

    Correct Answer
    C. Health hazard data
    Explanation
    The section of an MSDS that includes emergency and first aid procedures is the health hazard data section. This section provides information on the potential health hazards associated with the product and outlines the necessary steps to be taken in case of an emergency or injury. It may include information on symptoms, treatment, and recommended first aid measures.

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  • 32. 

    Which section of an MSDS lists a product's evaporation rate?

    • A.

      Fire & explosion hazard data

    • B.

      Hazardous ingredients

    • C.

      Reactivity data

    • D.

      Physical and chemical characteristics

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical and chemical characteristics
    Explanation
    The section of an MSDS that lists a product's evaporation rate is the physical and chemical characteristics section. This section provides information about the product's physical properties, such as its boiling point, vapor pressure, and evaporation rate. The evaporation rate is an important characteristic to know as it determines how quickly a substance will transition from a liquid to a vapor state.

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  • 33. 

    Which class of flammable or combustible liquids has a flash point below 73 degrees F and a boiling point at or above 100 degrees F.

    • A.

      IB

    • B.

      IC

    • C.

      II

    • D.

      IIIA

    Correct Answer
    A. IB
    Explanation
    Class IB includes flammable liquids with a flash point below 73 degrees F and a boiling point at or above 100 degrees F. This class represents liquids that have a lower flash point and a higher boiling point compared to the other options.

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  • 34. 

    Which class of flammable or combustible liquids has a flash pont at or above 140 degrees F and below 200 degrees F?

    • A.

      IB

    • B.

      IC

    • C.

      II

    • D.

      IIIA

    Correct Answer
    D. IIIA
    Explanation
    Class IIIA flammable or combustible liquids have a flash point at or above 140 degrees F and below 200 degrees F. This class includes liquids such as certain oils, paints, and solvents that have a moderate fire hazard. These liquids have a higher flash point compared to Class IB, IC, and II liquids, which means they are less likely to ignite at lower temperatures.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following has a storage capacity of 60 gallons or less?

    • A.

      Fixed vessel

    • B.

      Container

    • C.

      Portable tank

    • D.

      Storage tank

    Correct Answer
    B. Container
    Explanation
    A container is the correct answer because it is a general term that can refer to various types of storage units, including those with a storage capacity of 60 gallons or less. The other options, such as fixed vessel, portable tank, and storage tank, do not specify a maximum storage capacity and can potentially hold more than 60 gallons. Therefore, a container is the most appropriate choice for a storage capacity of 60 gallons or less.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following has a storage capacity of more than 60 gallons and remains in a fixed location?

    • A.

      Fixed vessel

    • B.

      Container

    • C.

      Portable tank

    • D.

      Storage tank

    Correct Answer
    D. Storage tank
    Explanation
    A storage tank is the correct answer because it has a storage capacity of more than 60 gallons and remains in a fixed location. Unlike a fixed vessel, which may refer to any type of stationary container, a storage tank specifically implies a large capacity for storing liquids or gases. A container can refer to any type of receptacle, including small or portable ones. A portable tank, as the name suggests, can be moved from one location to another. Therefore, a storage tank is the only option that fits the given criteria.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following storage tank types is designed for pressures 0.5 to 15 psi?

    • A.

      High pressure

    • B.

      Low pressure

    • C.

      Medium pressure

    • D.

      Atmosphere

    Correct Answer
    B. Low pressure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "low pressure" because this type of storage tank is specifically designed to hold substances under pressures ranging from 0.5 to 15 psi. It is built to withstand lower levels of pressure compared to high pressure or medium pressure tanks. The low pressure tank is suitable for storing materials that do not require high levels of pressure containment, making it a safer and more cost-effective option for certain applications.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following materials is suitable for aboveground storage tanks?

    • A.

      Steel

    • B.

      PVC

    • C.

      Aluminum

    • D.

      Ceramic

    Correct Answer
    A. Steel
    Explanation
    Steel is a suitable material for aboveground storage tanks because it is strong, durable, and resistant to corrosion. It can withstand harsh environmental conditions and is capable of holding large volumes of liquids or gases. Steel tanks are also relatively cost-effective and can be easily maintained and repaired. Additionally, steel is a widely used material in the construction industry, making it readily available and easily customizable for tank designs.

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  • 39. 

    How far apart should tanks be if they contain unstable flammable or combustible liquids?

    • A.

      At least 3 feet

    • B.

      Approximately 10 feet

    • C.

      Approximately one-sixth the sum of their diameters

    • D.

      At least one half the sum of their diameters

    Correct Answer
    A. At least 3 feet
    Explanation
    Tanks containing unstable flammable or combustible liquids should be at least 3 feet apart. This distance is necessary to prevent the spread of fire or explosion in case of a leak or rupture in one of the tanks. By keeping the tanks at a minimum distance of 3 feet, the risk of ignition or heat transfer between the tanks is reduced, ensuring safety in the storage of these hazardous substances.

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  • 40. 

    How far away should LPG containers be from flammable liquid storage tanks?

    • A.

      3 feet

    • B.

      6 feet

    • C.

      10 feet

    • D.

      20 feet

    Correct Answer
    D. 20 feet
    Explanation
    LPG containers should be kept at a distance of 20 feet from flammable liquid storage tanks to ensure safety. This distance helps to minimize the risk of fire or explosion, as LPG is highly flammable and can ignite easily. By maintaining a sufficient distance, any potential leaks or accidents involving the LPG containers will not pose a direct threat to the flammable liquid storage tanks, reducing the likelihood of a catastrophic event.

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  • 41. 

    From a fire protection standpoint, which of the following storage tanks is the safest form of storage for flammable and combustible liquids?

    • A.

      Above ground

    • B.

      Elevated

    • C.

      Underground

    • D.

      Inside a building

    Correct Answer
    C. Underground
    Explanation
    Underground storage tanks are considered the safest form of storage for flammable and combustible liquids from a fire protection standpoint. This is because they are located below the ground, which provides natural insulation and protection against external fires. Underground tanks also minimize the risk of spills and leaks, as they are less exposed to accidental damage. Additionally, being underground reduces the chances of ignition and explosion due to heat exposure. Therefore, underground storage tanks are the preferred choice for storing flammable and combustible liquids to ensure maximum safety.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following materials is NOT suitable for underground storage tanks?

    • A.

      Metal

    • B.

      Fiberglass

    • C.

      Unlined concrete

    • D.

      Vitreous clay

    Correct Answer
    D. Vitreous clay
    Explanation
    Vitreous clay is not suitable for underground storage tanks because it is not a durable material and is prone to cracking and leakage over time. It is also not resistant to chemicals and can be easily corroded. Therefore, using vitreous clay for underground storage tanks would not be a reliable or safe option.

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  • 43. 

    If vehicles are likely to pass over underground tanks, the tanks must be protected by _____

    • A.

      2 feet of earth

    • B.

      1 foot of earth plus 4 inches of reinforced concrete

    • C.

      1.5 feet of well-tamped earth plus 6 inches of reinforced concrete

    • D.

      3 feet of earch plus 8 inches of asphaltic concrete

    Correct Answer
    C. 1.5 feet of well-tamped earth plus 6 inches of reinforced concrete
    Explanation
    To protect underground tanks from vehicles passing over them, they need to be covered with a layer of well-tamped earth measuring 1.5 feet thick. This layer provides a cushioning effect and helps distribute the weight of the vehicles. Additionally, a layer of reinforced concrete measuring 6 inches thick is added on top of the earth layer to provide further strength and protection to the tanks. This combination of well-tamped earth and reinforced concrete ensures that the tanks are adequately protected from any potential damage caused by vehicles passing over them.

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  • 44. 

    How high above the adjacent ground level must vents be for underground tanks containing Class I liquids?

    • A.

      3 feet

    • B.

      6 feet

    • C.

      9 feet

    • D.

      12 feet

    Correct Answer
    D. 12 feet
    Explanation
    Vents for underground tanks containing Class I liquids must be located 12 feet above the adjacent ground level. This is because Class I liquids are highly flammable and can easily ignite if exposed to an ignition source. By placing the vents at a higher elevation, it helps to prevent any potential ignition sources, such as sparks or flames, from reaching the liquid inside the tank. This reduces the risk of fire and ensures the safety of the surrounding area.

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  • 45. 

    Where should fill pipes for Class IB & IC liquids terminate?

    • A.

      Within 6 inches of the tank bottom

    • B.

      At least 12 inches from the tank bottom

    • C.

      Within 6 inches of the top of the tank

    • D.

      At least 6 inches from the top of the tank

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 6 inches of the tank bottom
    Explanation
    The fill pipes for Class IB & IC liquids should terminate within 6 inches of the tank bottom. This is because these liquids are highly flammable and can produce vapors that can ignite easily. Placing the fill pipes closer to the tank bottom helps to minimize the distance that the liquid falls during filling, reducing the potential for static electricity generation and ignition of vapors.

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  • 46. 

    What causes electrolytic corrosion of underground storage tanks?

    • A.

      Static electricity

    • B.

      Using two different metals for tanks and piping

    • C.

      Corrosive soils

    • D.

      Leaking Class III liquids

    Correct Answer
    B. Using two different metals for tanks and piping
    Explanation
    Using two different metals for tanks and piping can cause electrolytic corrosion of underground storage tanks. When two dissimilar metals are in contact with each other in the presence of an electrolyte (such as soil moisture), an electrochemical reaction occurs. This reaction leads to the transfer of electrons from one metal to another, causing the metal to corrode. This phenomenon is known as galvanic corrosion. Therefore, if different metals are used for tanks and piping, it can create a galvanic cell, accelerating the corrosion process and leading to damage in the underground storage tanks.

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  • 47. 

    What is the maximum amount of Class II liquids that may be stored in a dwelling occupancy containing three or fewer dwelling  units?

    • A.

      60 gallons

    • B.

      25 gallons

    • C.

      10 gallons

    • D.

      20 gallons

    Correct Answer
    B. 25 gallons
    Explanation
    The maximum amount of Class II liquids that may be stored in a dwelling occupancy containing three or fewer dwelling units is 25 gallons. This limit is set to ensure the safety of the occupants in case of a fire or other emergencies. Storing a larger quantity of Class II liquids could increase the risk of a hazardous situation and make it more difficult to control or extinguish a fire.

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  • 48. 

    What is the basic principle of a VRS?

    • A.

      Chemical reaction between gasoline vapor and inert gas

    • B.

      Closed-loop exchange of gasoline and vapor

    • C.

      Decompression of gasoline vapor

    • D.

      Secondary chamber containment of vapors

    Correct Answer
    B. Closed-loop exchange of gasoline and vapor
    Explanation
    The basic principle of a VRS is the closed-loop exchange of gasoline and vapor. This means that the system allows for the continuous circulation and exchange of gasoline and its vapors, preventing any release into the environment. This closed-loop system helps to reduce emissions and ensure the safe handling of gasoline, making it an important principle in vapor recovery systems.

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  • 49. 

    Permanent, portable, or mobile magazine constructed of masonry that will not mass detonate when initiated by a No. 8 test blasting cap

    Correct Answer
    Type 4 magazine
    Explanation
    A Type 4 magazine is a permanent, portable, or mobile magazine that is constructed of masonry. It is designed in such a way that it will not mass detonate when initiated by a No. 8 test blasting cap. This means that it is built to withstand the detonation of a blasting cap without causing a chain reaction or explosion of the entire magazine. The Type 4 magazine is specifically designed for storing and transporting explosives safely.

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  • 50. 

    Portable facility for temporary storage of explosive materials under the constant attendance of a qualified employee

    Correct Answer
    Type 3 magazine
    Explanation
    A Type 3 magazine refers to a portable facility that is specifically designed for the temporary storage of explosive materials. It is required to be under the constant attendance of a qualified employee, ensuring that the materials are safely stored and monitored at all times. This type of magazine provides a secure and regulated environment for the storage of explosives, minimizing the risk of accidents or unauthorized access.

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