Sports Medicine MCQs With Answers

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1.  Which of the following are important concerns when designing an effective rehabilitation program?

Explanation

An effective rehabilitation program should address multiple concerns to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient. Providing correct and immediate first aid is crucial to prevent further injury and promote healing. Reducing pain is important to improve the patient's comfort and compliance with the program. Restoring full range of motion is essential to regain normal function and prevent complications. Therefore, all of the above options are important concerns when designing an effective rehabilitation program.

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Sports Medicine MCQs With Answers - Quiz

Try out this short and interesting sports medicine MCQs quiz with answers and learn about sports medicine. Sports are all fun and exciting until some serious injury happens.... see moreAnd in times of major sports injuries, it is necessary to know related to sports medicine. In this quiz below, we will be asking you questions based on the sports medicine topic, and if you give all the correct answers, you'll score 100% marks. So, get ready to take this quiz. Good luck! see less

2. What does the acronym PRICE stand for?

Explanation

The acronym PRICE stands for protection, rest, ice, compression, and elevation. This acronym is commonly used in sports medicine and first aid to outline the recommended steps for treating acute injuries such as sprains or strains. Protection involves preventing further injury to the affected area, rest allows for the healing process to begin, ice helps reduce pain and swelling, compression helps control swelling and provide support, and elevation helps reduce swelling by allowing fluid to drain away from the injury site.

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3. The primary purpose of a preseason health exam is to:

Explanation

The primary purpose of a preseason health exam is to identify whether an athlete is at risk before they participate. This is important because it allows medical professionals to assess the athlete's overall health and identify any underlying conditions or injuries that may put them at risk during physical activity. By identifying these risks beforehand, appropriate precautions can be taken to ensure the athlete's safety and well-being while participating in sports or other physical activities.

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4. What is sciatica?

Explanation

Sciatica refers to an inflammatory condition that affects the sciatic nerve. The sciatic nerve is the longest nerve in the body, running from the lower back down to the legs. When this nerve becomes inflamed, it can cause pain, numbness, and tingling sensations, typically in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. This condition is often caused by a herniated disc, spinal stenosis, or other underlying issues that put pressure on the nerve. Treatment for sciatica usually involves pain management techniques, physical therapy, and in some cases, surgery.

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5.  Which of the following is not a symptom of a concussion?

Explanation

All of the given options are symptoms of concussions. A concussion can cause a person to be conscious but with impaired memory, unconscious, or have difficulty concentrating. Therefore, none of the options listed are not symptoms of a concussion.

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6. Which of the following is not a bone of the shoulder?

Explanation

The coccyx is not a bone of the shoulder. The coccyx, also known as the tailbone, is a small triangular bone located at the base of the spine. It consists of fused vertebrae and is responsible for supporting the weight of the body when sitting. On the other hand, the humerus, scapula, and clavicle are all bones that are part of the shoulder girdle. The humerus is the bone of the upper arm, the scapula is the shoulder blade, and the clavicle is the collarbone.

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7. When an elbow is dislocated, it is important to consider the possibility of what secondary injury?

Explanation

When an elbow is dislocated, there is a high likelihood of experiencing multiple injuries. The forceful dislocation can cause not only a fracture in the bones of the elbow but also tearing or pinching of the nerves that pass through the joint. Additionally, the dislocation can disrupt the normal blood supply to the area. Therefore, considering the possibility of all the mentioned secondary injuries is crucial when dealing with a dislocated elbow.

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8. Which of options below is not a method of social support for an injured athlete?

Explanation

Avoiding answering any questions the athlete has about the injury is not a method of social support for an injured athlete. Social support involves providing emotional and informational assistance to the athlete, and actively addressing their concerns and questions about their injury. Avoiding their questions can lead to increased anxiety and feelings of isolation for the athlete.

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9. Athletic training is:

Explanation

Athletic training encompasses a specialization in sports medicine, acting as a major link between sports programs and the medical community. It is primarily focused on the prevention and treatment of athletic injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as it includes all the given options.

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10. What is not a segment of the spine?

Explanation

The pelvic is not a segment of the spine. The spine is divided into several segments, including the cervical, lumbar, and thoracic segments. The pelvic region, on the other hand, is part of the lower body and consists of the bones that make up the pelvis. While the pelvis is connected to the spine, it is not considered a segment of the spine itself.

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11. Which of the following is not a performance-enhancing drug?

Explanation

Alcohol is not considered a performance-enhancing drug because it actually impairs physical and cognitive abilities. While substances like beta blockers, anabolic steroids, and human growth hormone are known to enhance performance in certain ways, alcohol has the opposite effect. It can negatively affect coordination, reaction time, and decision-making skills, making it detrimental to athletic performance. Therefore, alcohol is not classified as a performance-enhancing drug.

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12. Which of the following definitions best describes the field of "sports medicine"?

Explanation

Sports medicine is a field that encompasses different specialized areas related to both performance and injury. It involves the study and treatment of sports-related injuries, as well as the enhancement of athletic performance through various medical interventions. This definition highlights the broad scope of sports medicine, which includes not only the care provided by doctors to athletes but also other professionals such as physical therapists, nutritionists, and sports psychologists. Additionally, it acknowledges the focus on both injury prevention and performance optimization, making it a comprehensive field that addresses various aspects of sports and athletic activities.

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13. What is the general term applied to a variety of overuse leg conditions that seasonally plague many athletes?

Explanation

Medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints) is the correct answer because it is the general term used to describe a variety of overuse leg conditions that commonly affect athletes. It refers to pain and inflammation along the shin bone (tibia) caused by repetitive stress or overuse of the muscles, tendons, and bone tissue in the lower leg. This condition often occurs seasonally and can be experienced by athletes who engage in activities such as running, jumping, or dancing.

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14. Which of the following is the body's most efficient energy source?

Explanation

Carbohydrates are the body's most efficient energy source because they are easily broken down into glucose, which is the primary fuel for the body's cells. When carbohydrates are consumed, they are quickly converted into glucose and released into the bloodstream, providing immediate energy. Additionally, carbohydrates can be stored in the muscles and liver as glycogen, which can be readily accessed during physical activity. Fat and protein can also be used for energy, but they require more steps to be converted into usable fuel compared to carbohydrates. Water and minerals do not provide energy to the body.

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15. Of the terms below, which is not a movement of the foot?

Explanation

Aversion is not a movement of the foot. Inversion refers to the movement of the foot turning inward, plantar flexion is the movement of pointing the foot downward, and dorsiflexion is the movement of pulling the foot upward. Aversion, on the other hand, is not a recognized movement of the foot.

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16. When a sprinter runs the 100 meter dash, what structure within the muscles is primarily being used?

Explanation

Fast twitch fibers are primarily being used when a sprinter runs the 100 meter dash. These muscle fibers are responsible for generating quick and powerful contractions, making them well-suited for explosive movements like sprinting. They have a high capacity for ATP (adenosine triphosphate) production, allowing them to contract rapidly and generate a large amount of force. Slow twitch fibers, on the other hand, are better suited for endurance activities as they have a higher capacity for aerobic energy production.

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17. If a uniform becomes saturated with blood, what is the proper action that should be taken for the athlete to continue participation?

Explanation

When a uniform becomes saturated with blood, it is important to change it immediately. This is because blood can carry pathogens and pose a risk of infection to the athlete. Continuation of participation without changing the uniform can lead to further contamination and potential health hazards. Therefore, changing the uniform immediately is the proper action to ensure the athlete's safety and well-being.

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18. What is another name for 'flat feet'?

Explanation

Pes planus is another name for "flat feet".

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19. What is a characteristic of anemia?

Explanation

Anemia is characterized by a low ferritin concentration and decreased hemoglobin levels. Ferritin is a protein that helps store iron in the body, and low levels indicate a deficiency in iron. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is a protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood, and decreased levels can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, both low ferritin concentration and decreased hemoglobin are characteristic features of anemia.

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20. Which of the following muscles is located on the posterior surface of the arm?

Explanation

The triceps muscle is located on the posterior surface of the arm. It is a large muscle that extends the forearm at the elbow joint. The biceps muscle is located on the anterior surface of the arm and is responsible for flexing the forearm. The brachialis muscle is also located on the anterior surface of the arm and assists in flexing the forearm. The brachioradialis muscle is located on the lateral side of the forearm and helps to flex the forearm as well. Therefore, the correct answer is triceps.

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21. Which of the following muscles is not part of the rotator cuff?

Explanation

The deltoid muscle is not part of the rotator cuff. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. The muscles that make up the rotator cuff are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor. The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is a large muscle that covers the shoulder joint and is responsible for arm abduction and flexion. While it plays a role in shoulder movement, it is not part of the rotator cuff.

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22. What are recreational drugs?

Explanation

Recreational drugs are substances that are used for non-medical purposes with the intention of altering one's mood or behavior. These drugs are not prescribed by a doctor and are often used recreationally for their psychoactive effects. They are taken to achieve a desired high or euphoric state, rather than for any therapeutic or medical reasons. Recreational drugs can include substances such as cannabis, cocaine, MDMA, and hallucinogens, among others.

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23. Factors that must be considered in order to prevent foot injuries include:

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the factors mentioned in the options, including proper footwear, adapting to training surfaces, and correcting biomechanical deficiencies, must be considered in order to prevent foot injuries.

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24. What degree classification of a ligament sprain involves a complete tear of the tissue?

Explanation

A third-degree ligament sprain involves a complete tear of the tissue. This means that the ligament has been completely severed, resulting in significant instability and loss of function in the affected joint. This is the most severe classification of a ligament sprain and typically requires medical intervention, such as surgery, to repair the torn ligament.

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25. The Lachman’s Test is used to evaluate stability of which of the following?

Explanation

The Lachman's Test is a physical examination technique used to assess the stability of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee. It involves applying a gentle forward force to the tibia while stabilizing the femur, and any excessive forward movement indicates a possible ACL tear or instability. This test is commonly used in diagnosing ACL injuries and is an important tool in determining the need for further imaging or treatment.

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26.  Which of the following conditions is common to runners and cyclists and is characterized by pain and irritation over the lateral femoral condyle?

Explanation

Iliotibial (IT) band syndrome is a condition that is common to both runners and cyclists. It is characterized by pain and irritation over the lateral femoral condyle. The iliotibial band is a thick band of tissue that runs down the outside of the thigh, and when it becomes tight or inflamed, it can cause pain and discomfort in the knee. This condition is often caused by repetitive motion, such as running or cycling, and can be treated with rest, stretching, and strengthening exercises.

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27. 1.          An orbital hematoma is more commonly referred to as:

Explanation

A black eye is the correct answer because an orbital hematoma refers to the accumulation of blood in the tissue around the eye, causing discoloration and swelling. This condition is commonly known as a black eye. A loss of an eye, eyelid laceration, and pink eye are unrelated conditions and do not involve the accumulation of blood around the eye.

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28. The female athlete triad includes all of the conditions except?

Explanation

The female athlete triad is a condition that commonly affects female athletes and consists of three interrelated conditions: disordered eating, amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods), and osteoporosis (weakening of the bones). These conditions often occur together and can have serious health consequences. Social isolation, on the other hand, is not a part of the female athlete triad. It refers to a lack of social interaction or being socially disconnected, and is not directly related to the physical health issues associated with the triad.

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29. Of the tests below, which is used to check the integrity of the Achilles tendon?

Explanation

The Thompson test is used to check the integrity of the Achilles tendon. This test involves squeezing the calf muscles while the patient lies face down on the examination table. If the Achilles tendon is intact, the foot should flex downward in response to the squeezing. However, if the Achilles tendon is ruptured, there will be no movement in the foot. Therefore, the Thompson test is a reliable method to assess the integrity of the Achilles tendon.

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30. What are the components of ABCs (CAB) in CPR?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Airway, breathing, circulation". In CPR, the first step is to ensure an open airway, followed by providing breaths to the person in need, and then performing chest compressions to circulate blood throughout the body. This sequence of actions is crucial in order to maintain oxygen supply to the brain and vital organs during cardiac arrest.

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31. The closed basket weave taping techniques is used to support which of the following

Explanation

The closed basket weave taping technique is used to support the ankle. This technique involves applying strips of tape in a crisscross pattern around the ankle, providing stability and compression to the joint. It can help prevent excessive movement, reduce pain, and support the ligaments and tendons in the ankle. This taping technique is commonly used in sports and rehabilitation settings to aid in the recovery and prevention of ankle injuries.

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32.  What postural alignment of the spine can describe the condition of scoliosis?

Explanation

The correct answer is lateral curvature. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine. This lateral curvature can be seen when viewing the spine from the front or back. The other options, cervical curvature, lumbar curvature, and hip curvature, do not specifically describe the abnormal sideways curvature seen in scoliosis.

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33. What is an electrolyte disorder that a marathon runner may experience, caused by ingesting large quantities of water and sweating over several hours?

Explanation

Hyponatremia is an electrolyte disorder that can occur in marathon runners who ingest large quantities of water and sweat excessively over several hours. This condition is characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood, which can lead to symptoms such as nausea, headache, confusion, seizures, and even coma in severe cases. It occurs when the intake of water exceeds the body's ability to excrete it, resulting in a dilution of sodium levels. This can be dangerous and potentially life-threatening if not promptly treated.

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34. Which spinal condition is characterized by a “forward head” and thoracic spine over-curvature?

Explanation

Kyphosis is a spinal condition that is characterized by a "forward head" and thoracic spine over-curvature. In kyphosis, the upper back becomes excessively rounded, leading to a hunched or stooped posture. This condition can be caused by various factors, including poor posture, osteoporosis, spinal fractures, or certain medical conditions. Treatment options for kyphosis may include physical therapy, medication, bracing, or in severe cases, surgery.

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35. What may be a secondary effect that occurs in 50% of individuals diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis?

Explanation

Infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. One of the secondary effects that can occur in individuals diagnosed with this condition is an enlarged spleen. The spleen plays a crucial role in filtering and removing old or damaged red blood cells from the body. In infectious mononucleosis, the virus can cause the spleen to become enlarged and swollen, leading to discomfort and tenderness in the upper left side of the abdomen. This enlargement is observed in approximately 50% of individuals with infectious mononucleosis.

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36. Of the professionals listed below, who has the ultimate responsibility for the total health care of the student athlete?

Explanation

The physician has the ultimate responsibility for the total health care of the student athlete because they are trained and qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions. They have a comprehensive understanding of the student athlete's health and can provide appropriate medical advice and treatment plans. The school nurse, athletic trainer, and coach may play important roles in the student athlete's health care, but the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for overseeing their overall well-being.

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37. What condition is it when there is an apophysitis at the insertion of the patellar tendon on the tibial tubercle?

Explanation

Osgood Schlatter's disease is a condition characterized by inflammation and pain at the insertion of the patellar tendon on the tibial tubercle. It commonly occurs in active adolescents during periods of rapid growth and physical activity. Patellar tendonitis refers to inflammation of the patellar tendon itself, while Sever's disease is inflammation of the growth plate in the heel. Housemaid's knee, also known as prepatellar bursitis, is inflammation of the bursa located in front of the kneecap. Therefore, Osgood Schlatter's disease is the correct answer for this question.

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38. Which of the following organizations is responsible for helmet certification standards?

Explanation

The National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Standards is responsible for helmet certification standards.

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39. What condition is it when there is an apophysitis at the insertion of the Achilles tendon on the calcaneous?

Explanation

Sever's disease is a condition characterized by inflammation and pain at the insertion of the Achilles tendon on the calcaneus. It commonly affects children and adolescents during periods of rapid growth. The condition is caused by repetitive stress or tension on the growth plate of the heel bone, leading to inflammation and pain. It is not related to Osgood Schlatter's disease, which affects the knee, or March fracture, which is a stress fracture of the metatarsal bones. Calf strain refers to a muscle injury in the calf, which is different from Sever's disease.

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40. Which of the following structures is not a tarsal bone?

Explanation

The metatarsal is not a tarsal bone. Tarsal bones are located in the foot and include the navicular, talus, and cuboid. The metatarsal bones are long bones that make up the midfoot and connect to the toes. They are not considered tarsal bones.

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41. A positive Thomas Test indicates tightness in which muscle group?

Explanation

A positive Thomas Test indicates tightness in the hip flexors. The Thomas Test is a physical examination technique used to assess hip flexor tightness. During the test, the patient lies on their back and pulls one knee to their chest while keeping the other leg flat on the table. If the opposite leg lifts off the table, it suggests tightness in the hip flexors. These muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint, and tightness can lead to decreased range of motion and potentially contribute to hip and lower back pain.

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42. A bicep curl using a dumbbell is an example of a/an:

Explanation

A bicep curl using a dumbbell is an example of an isotonic exercise because it involves the contraction and relaxation of the bicep muscle while the joint angle changes. In an isotonic exercise, the muscle length changes as it contracts and moves against a constant resistance, such as the weight of the dumbbell. This type of exercise helps to build muscle strength, improve joint flexibility, and increase overall muscle tone.

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43. Which of the following describes an inability of an athlete to remember events after a head injury has occurred?

Explanation

Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories after a head injury. This means that the athlete would have difficulty remembering events that occurred after the injury. Retrograde amnesia, on the other hand, refers to the inability to remember events that occurred before the injury. Forgetfulness is a general term for being unable to remember things, while tinnitus is a condition characterized by ringing in the ears and is not related to memory loss.

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44. Which of the answers below is true regarding dietary supplements?

Explanation

The correct answer is "FDA does not strictly regulate dietary supplements." This means that the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) does not have strict regulations in place for dietary supplements. Unlike prescription drugs, which undergo rigorous testing and approval processes, dietary supplements do not require FDA approval before they can be sold to the public. This lack of regulation means that the safety and effectiveness of dietary supplements may not be guaranteed, and consumers should exercise caution when using them.

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45. The empty can test is used to determine injury to what muscle?

Explanation

The empty can test is used to determine injury to the supraspinatus muscle. This test involves the patient holding their arm in a 90-degree abduction and 30-degree horizontal adduction position, with the thumb pointing downwards. The examiner then applies downward pressure on the arm while the patient resists. Pain or weakness during this test can indicate a supraspinatus muscle injury.

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 Which of the following are important concerns when designing an...
What does the acronym PRICE stand for?
The primary purpose of a preseason health exam is to:
What is sciatica?
 Which of the following is not a symptom of a concussion?
Which of the following is not a bone of the shoulder?
When an elbow is dislocated, it is important to consider the...
Which of options below is not a method of social support for an...
Athletic training is:
What is not a segment of the spine?
Which of the following is not a performance-enhancing drug?
Which of the following definitions best describes the field of...
What is the general term applied to a variety of overuse leg...
Which of the following is the body's most efficient energy source?
Of the terms below, which is not a movement of the foot?
When a sprinter runs the 100 meter dash, what structure within the...
If a uniform becomes saturated with blood, what is the proper action...
What is another name for 'flat feet'?
What is a characteristic of anemia?
Which of the following muscles is located on the posterior surface of...
Which of the following muscles is not part of the rotator cuff?
What are recreational drugs?
Factors that must be considered in order to prevent foot injuries...
What degree classification of a ligament sprain involves a complete...
The Lachman’s Test is used to evaluate stability of which of the...
 Which of the following conditions is common to runners and...
1.          An orbital...
The female athlete triad includes all of the conditions except?
Of the tests below, which is used to check the integrity of the...
What are the components of ABCs (CAB) in CPR?
The closed basket weave taping techniques is used to support which of...
 What postural alignment of the spine can describe the condition...
What is an electrolyte disorder that a marathon runner may experience,...
Which spinal condition is characterized by a “forward head” and...
What may be a secondary effect that occurs in 50% of individuals...
Of the professionals listed below, who has the ultimate responsibility...
What condition is it when there is an apophysitis at the insertion of...
Which of the following organizations is responsible for helmet...
What condition is it when there is an apophysitis at the insertion of...
Which of the following structures is not a tarsal bone?
A positive Thomas Test indicates tightness in which muscle group?
A bicep curl using a dumbbell is an example of a/an:
Which of the following describes an inability of an athlete to...
Which of the answers below is true regarding dietary supplements?
The empty can test is used to determine injury to what muscle?
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