Sports Medicine MCQs With Answers

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  • 1/45 Questions

    Which of the following definitions best describes the field of "sports medicine"?

    • Doctors who provide care to athletes
    • Different specialized areas related to performance and injury
    • Involves only the team physician and the athletic trainer
    • An association with a few professional organizations
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About This Quiz

Try out this short and interesting sports medicine MCQs quiz with answers and learn about sports medicine. Sports are all fun and exciting until some serious injury happens. And in times of major sports injuries, it is necessary to know related to sports medicine. In this quiz below, we will be asking you questions based on the sports medicine topic, See moreand if you give all the correct answers, you'll score 100% marks. So, get ready to take this quiz. Good luck!

Sports Medicine MCQs With Answers - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The primary purpose of a preseason health exam is to:

    • Identify whether an athlete is at risk before they participate

    • Determine body fat percentages for coaches

    • Reveal qualifying conditions

    • Satisfy insurance and liability issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify whether an athlete is at risk before they participate
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of a preseason health exam is to identify whether an athlete is at risk before they participate. This is important because it allows medical professionals to assess the athlete's overall health and identify any underlying conditions or injuries that may put them at risk during physical activity. By identifying these risks beforehand, appropriate precautions can be taken to ensure the athlete's safety and well-being while participating in sports or other physical activities.

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  • 3. 

    What is an electrolyte disorder that a marathon runner may experience, caused by ingesting large quantities of water and sweating over several hours?

    • Heat exhaustion

    • Hyperthermia

    • Heat cramps

    • Hyponatremia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyponatremia
    Explanation
    Hyponatremia is an electrolyte disorder that can occur in marathon runners who ingest large quantities of water and sweat excessively over several hours. This condition is characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood, which can lead to symptoms such as nausea, headache, confusion, seizures, and even coma in severe cases. It occurs when the intake of water exceeds the body's ability to excrete it, resulting in a dilution of sodium levels. This can be dangerous and potentially life-threatening if not promptly treated.

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  • 4. 

    What condition is it when there is an apophysitis at the insertion of the patellar tendon on the tibial tubercle?

    • Osgood Schlatter's disease

    • Patellar tendonitis

    • Sever's disease

    • Housemaid's knee

    Correct Answer
    A. Osgood Schlatter's disease
    Explanation
    Osgood Schlatter's disease is a condition characterized by inflammation and pain at the insertion of the patellar tendon on the tibial tubercle. It commonly occurs in active adolescents during periods of rapid growth and physical activity. Patellar tendonitis refers to inflammation of the patellar tendon itself, while Sever's disease is inflammation of the growth plate in the heel. Housemaid's knee, also known as prepatellar bursitis, is inflammation of the bursa located in front of the kneecap. Therefore, Osgood Schlatter's disease is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 5. 

    When a sprinter runs the 100 meter dash, what structure within the muscles is primarily being used?

    • Muscle spindles

    • Golgi Tendon organs

    • Fast Twitch fibers

    • Slow Twitch fibers

    Correct Answer
    A. Fast Twitch fibers
    Explanation
    Fast twitch fibers are primarily being used when a sprinter runs the 100 meter dash. These muscle fibers are responsible for generating quick and powerful contractions, making them well-suited for explosive movements like sprinting. They have a high capacity for ATP (adenosine triphosphate) production, allowing them to contract rapidly and generate a large amount of force. Slow twitch fibers, on the other hand, are better suited for endurance activities as they have a higher capacity for aerobic energy production.

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  • 6. 

    A bicep curl using a dumbbell is an example of a/an:

    • Isometric exercises

    • PNF exercise

    • Isokinetic exercise

    • Isotonic exercise

    Correct Answer
    A. Isotonic exercise
    Explanation
    A bicep curl using a dumbbell is an example of an isotonic exercise because it involves the contraction and relaxation of the bicep muscle while the joint angle changes. In an isotonic exercise, the muscle length changes as it contracts and moves against a constant resistance, such as the weight of the dumbbell. This type of exercise helps to build muscle strength, improve joint flexibility, and increase overall muscle tone.

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  • 7. 

    If a uniform becomes saturated with blood, what is the proper action that should be taken for the athlete to continue participation?

    • No action should be taken and the athlete should continue without interruption

    • The blood should be rinsed off with water

    • The uniform should be changed at halftime

    • The uniform should be changed immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. The uniform should be changed immediately
    Explanation
    When a uniform becomes saturated with blood, it is important to change it immediately. This is because blood can carry pathogens and pose a risk of infection to the athlete. Continuation of participation without changing the uniform can lead to further contamination and potential health hazards. Therefore, changing the uniform immediately is the proper action to ensure the athlete's safety and well-being.

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  • 8. 

    Of the professionals listed below, who has the ultimate responsibility for the total health care of the student athlete?

    • School nurse

    • Physician

    • Athletic trainer

    • Coach

    Correct Answer
    A. Physician
    Explanation
    The physician has the ultimate responsibility for the total health care of the student athlete because they are trained and qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions. They have a comprehensive understanding of the student athlete's health and can provide appropriate medical advice and treatment plans. The school nurse, athletic trainer, and coach may play important roles in the student athlete's health care, but the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for overseeing their overall well-being.

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  • 9. 

    What are the components of ABCs (CAB) in CPR?

    • Airway, beating, compression

    • Airway, breathing, compression

    • Asystole, beating, compression

    • Airway, breathing, circulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Airway, breathing, circulation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Airway, breathing, circulation". In CPR, the first step is to ensure an open airway, followed by providing breaths to the person in need, and then performing chest compressions to circulate blood throughout the body. This sequence of actions is crucial in order to maintain oxygen supply to the brain and vital organs during cardiac arrest.

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  • 10. 

    Athletic training is:

    • A specialization in sports medicine

    • A major link between sports programs and the medical community

    • Concerned with the prevention and treatment of athletic injuries

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Athletic training encompasses a specialization in sports medicine, acting as a major link between sports programs and the medical community. It is primarily focused on the prevention and treatment of athletic injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as it includes all the given options.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following organizations is responsible for helmet certification standards?

    • Athletic Equipment Manager Association

    • National Collegiate Athletic Association

    • American National Standards Institution

    • National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Standards

    Correct Answer
    A. National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Standards
    Explanation
    The National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Standards is responsible for helmet certification standards.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following structures is not a tarsal bone?

    • Navicular

    • Metatarsal

    • Talus

    • Cuboid

    Correct Answer
    A. Metatarsal
    Explanation
    The metatarsal is not a tarsal bone. Tarsal bones are located in the foot and include the navicular, talus, and cuboid. The metatarsal bones are long bones that make up the midfoot and connect to the toes. They are not considered tarsal bones.

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  • 13. 

    What condition is it when there is an apophysitis at the insertion of the Achilles tendon on the calcaneous?

    • Osgood Schlatter's disease

    • March fracture

    • Sever's disease

    • Calf strain

    Correct Answer
    A. Sever's disease
    Explanation
    Sever's disease is a condition characterized by inflammation and pain at the insertion of the Achilles tendon on the calcaneus. It commonly affects children and adolescents during periods of rapid growth. The condition is caused by repetitive stress or tension on the growth plate of the heel bone, leading to inflammation and pain. It is not related to Osgood Schlatter's disease, which affects the knee, or March fracture, which is a stress fracture of the metatarsal bones. Calf strain refers to a muscle injury in the calf, which is different from Sever's disease.

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  • 14. 

    What is another name for ‘flat feet’?

    • Pes planus

    • Pes cavus

    • Pes equine

    • Hallux rigidus

    Correct Answer
    A. Pes planus
    Explanation
    Pes planus is another name for "flat feet".

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  • 15. 

    What degree classification of a ligament sprain involves a complete tear of the tissue?

    • First degree

    • Second degree

    • Third degree

    • Fourth degree

    Correct Answer
    A. Third degree
    Explanation
    A third-degree ligament sprain involves a complete tear of the tissue. This means that the ligament has been completely severed, resulting in significant instability and loss of function in the affected joint. This is the most severe classification of a ligament sprain and typically requires medical intervention, such as surgery, to repair the torn ligament.

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  • 16. 

     Which of the following are important concerns when designing an effective rehabilitation program?

    • Providing correct and immediate first aid

    • Reducing pain

    • Restoring full range of motion

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    An effective rehabilitation program should address multiple concerns to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient. Providing correct and immediate first aid is crucial to prevent further injury and promote healing. Reducing pain is important to improve the patient's comfort and compliance with the program. Restoring full range of motion is essential to regain normal function and prevent complications. Therefore, all of the above options are important concerns when designing an effective rehabilitation program.

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  • 17. 

    The closed basket weave taping techniques is used to support which of the following

    • Arch

    • Ankle

    • Shin

    • Knee

    Correct Answer
    A. Ankle
    Explanation
    The closed basket weave taping technique is used to support the ankle. This technique involves applying strips of tape in a crisscross pattern around the ankle, providing stability and compression to the joint. It can help prevent excessive movement, reduce pain, and support the ligaments and tendons in the ankle. This taping technique is commonly used in sports and rehabilitation settings to aid in the recovery and prevention of ankle injuries.

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  • 18. 

    Of the terms below, which is not a movement of the foot?

    • Inversion

    • Plantar flexion

    • Dorsiflexion

    • Aversion

    Correct Answer
    A. Aversion
    Explanation
    Aversion is not a movement of the foot. Inversion refers to the movement of the foot turning inward, plantar flexion is the movement of pointing the foot downward, and dorsiflexion is the movement of pulling the foot upward. Aversion, on the other hand, is not a recognized movement of the foot.

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  • 19. 

    Factors that must be considered in order to prevent foot injuries include:

    • Proper footwear

    • Adapting to training surfaces

    • Correcting biomechanical deficiencies

    • A & B

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the factors mentioned in the options, including proper footwear, adapting to training surfaces, and correcting biomechanical deficiencies, must be considered in order to prevent foot injuries.

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  • 20. 

    What does the acronym PRICE stand for?

    • Protection, rest, ice, compression, elevation

    • Protection, rest, ice, concentration, effusion

    • Protection, rest, ice, concentration, elevation

    • Protection, rest, ice, compression, effusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Protection, rest, ice, compression, elevation
    Explanation
    The acronym PRICE stands for protection, rest, ice, compression, and elevation. This acronym is commonly used in sports medicine and first aid to outline the recommended steps for treating acute injuries such as sprains or strains. Protection involves preventing further injury to the affected area, rest allows for the healing process to begin, ice helps reduce pain and swelling, compression helps control swelling and provide support, and elevation helps reduce swelling by allowing fluid to drain away from the injury site.

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  • 21. 

    A positive Thomas Test indicates tightness in which muscle group?

    • Hip adductors

    • Hip extensors

    • Hip internal rotators

    • Hip flexors

    Correct Answer
    A. Hip flexors
    Explanation
    A positive Thomas Test indicates tightness in the hip flexors. The Thomas Test is a physical examination technique used to assess hip flexor tightness. During the test, the patient lies on their back and pulls one knee to their chest while keeping the other leg flat on the table. If the opposite leg lifts off the table, it suggests tightness in the hip flexors. These muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint, and tightness can lead to decreased range of motion and potentially contribute to hip and lower back pain.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following muscles is located on the posterior surface of the arm?

    • Biceps

    • Brachialis

    • Triceps

    • Brachioradialis

    Correct Answer
    A. Triceps
    Explanation
    The triceps muscle is located on the posterior surface of the arm. It is a large muscle that extends the forearm at the elbow joint. The biceps muscle is located on the anterior surface of the arm and is responsible for flexing the forearm. The brachialis muscle is also located on the anterior surface of the arm and assists in flexing the forearm. The brachioradialis muscle is located on the lateral side of the forearm and helps to flex the forearm as well. Therefore, the correct answer is triceps.

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  • 23. 

    The empty can test is used to determine injury to what muscle?

    • Supraspinatus

    • Deltoid

    • Infraspinatus

    • Long head of biceps brachii

    Correct Answer
    A. Supraspinatus
    Explanation
    The empty can test is used to determine injury to the supraspinatus muscle. This test involves the patient holding their arm in a 90-degree abduction and 30-degree horizontal adduction position, with the thumb pointing downwards. The examiner then applies downward pressure on the arm while the patient resists. Pain or weakness during this test can indicate a supraspinatus muscle injury.

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  • 24. 

    When an elbow is dislocated, it is important to consider the possibility of what secondary injury?

    • Fracture

    • Tearing/pinching of the nerves

    • Disruption of normal blood supply

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    When an elbow is dislocated, there is a high likelihood of experiencing multiple injuries. The forceful dislocation can cause not only a fracture in the bones of the elbow but also tearing or pinching of the nerves that pass through the joint. Additionally, the dislocation can disrupt the normal blood supply to the area. Therefore, considering the possibility of all the mentioned secondary injuries is crucial when dealing with a dislocated elbow.

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  • 25. 

    The Lachman’s Test is used to evaluate stability of which of the following?

    • Medial collateral ligament

    • Anterior cruciate ligament

    • Medial meniscus

    • Patellar femoral joint

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior cruciate ligament
    Explanation
    The Lachman's Test is a physical examination technique used to assess the stability of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee. It involves applying a gentle forward force to the tibia while stabilizing the femur, and any excessive forward movement indicates a possible ACL tear or instability. This test is commonly used in diagnosing ACL injuries and is an important tool in determining the need for further imaging or treatment.

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  • 26. 

    What is the general term applied to a variety of overuse leg conditions that seasonally plague many athletes?

    • Tibial periostitis

    • Compartment syndrome

    • Medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints)

    • Exertional syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints)
    Explanation
    Medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints) is the correct answer because it is the general term used to describe a variety of overuse leg conditions that commonly affect athletes. It refers to pain and inflammation along the shin bone (tibia) caused by repetitive stress or overuse of the muscles, tendons, and bone tissue in the lower leg. This condition often occurs seasonally and can be experienced by athletes who engage in activities such as running, jumping, or dancing.

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  • 27. 

    Of the tests below, which is used to check the integrity of the Achilles tendon?

    • Thompson test

    • Compression test

    • Baker's test

    • Greenstick test

    Correct Answer
    A. Thompson test
    Explanation
    The Thompson test is used to check the integrity of the Achilles tendon. This test involves squeezing the calf muscles while the patient lies face down on the examination table. If the Achilles tendon is intact, the foot should flex downward in response to the squeezing. However, if the Achilles tendon is ruptured, there will be no movement in the foot. Therefore, the Thompson test is a reliable method to assess the integrity of the Achilles tendon.

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  • 28. 

     Which of the following conditions is common to runners and cyclists and is characterized by pain and irritation over the lateral femoral condyle?

    • Pes anserine tendonitis

    • Iliotibial (IT) band syndrome

    • Jumper's knee

    • Biceps femoris tendonitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Iliotibial (IT) band syndrome
    Explanation
    Iliotibial (IT) band syndrome is a condition that is common to both runners and cyclists. It is characterized by pain and irritation over the lateral femoral condyle. The iliotibial band is a thick band of tissue that runs down the outside of the thigh, and when it becomes tight or inflamed, it can cause pain and discomfort in the knee. This condition is often caused by repetitive motion, such as running or cycling, and can be treated with rest, stretching, and strengthening exercises.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following muscles is not part of the rotator cuff?

    • Infraspinatus

    • Supraspinatus

    • Deltoid

    • Subscapularis

    Correct Answer
    A. Deltoid
    Explanation
    The deltoid muscle is not part of the rotator cuff. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. The muscles that make up the rotator cuff are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor. The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is a large muscle that covers the shoulder joint and is responsible for arm abduction and flexion. While it plays a role in shoulder movement, it is not part of the rotator cuff.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is not a bone of the shoulder?

    • Coccyx

    • Humerus

    • Scapula

    • Clavicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Coccyx
    Explanation
    The coccyx is not a bone of the shoulder. The coccyx, also known as the tailbone, is a small triangular bone located at the base of the spine. It consists of fused vertebrae and is responsible for supporting the weight of the body when sitting. On the other hand, the humerus, scapula, and clavicle are all bones that are part of the shoulder girdle. The humerus is the bone of the upper arm, the scapula is the shoulder blade, and the clavicle is the collarbone.

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  • 31. 

    What is sciatica?

    • Loss of speech

    • Loss of limb

    • Inflammatory condition of the sciatic nerve

    • Irritation of the brain stem

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammatory condition of the sciatic nerve
    Explanation
    Sciatica refers to an inflammatory condition that affects the sciatic nerve. The sciatic nerve is the longest nerve in the body, running from the lower back down to the legs. When this nerve becomes inflamed, it can cause pain, numbness, and tingling sensations, typically in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. This condition is often caused by a herniated disc, spinal stenosis, or other underlying issues that put pressure on the nerve. Treatment for sciatica usually involves pain management techniques, physical therapy, and in some cases, surgery.

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  • 32. 

     Which of the following is not a symptom of a concussion?

    • Conscious but with impaired memory

    • Unconscious

    • Difficulty concentrating

    • All are symptoms of concussions

    Correct Answer
    A. All are symptoms of concussions
    Explanation
    All of the given options are symptoms of concussions. A concussion can cause a person to be conscious but with impaired memory, unconscious, or have difficulty concentrating. Therefore, none of the options listed are not symptoms of a concussion.

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  • 33. 

    What is a characteristic of anemia?

    • Low ferritin concentration

    • Decreased hemoglobin

    • A & B

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A & B
    Explanation
    Anemia is characterized by a low ferritin concentration and decreased hemoglobin levels. Ferritin is a protein that helps store iron in the body, and low levels indicate a deficiency in iron. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is a protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood, and decreased levels can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, both low ferritin concentration and decreased hemoglobin are characteristic features of anemia.

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  • 34. 

    What may be a secondary effect that occurs in 50% of individuals diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis?

    • Kidney disease

    • Collapsed lung

    • Enlarged spleen

    • Loss of hair

    Correct Answer
    A. Enlarged spleen
    Explanation
    Infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. One of the secondary effects that can occur in individuals diagnosed with this condition is an enlarged spleen. The spleen plays a crucial role in filtering and removing old or damaged red blood cells from the body. In infectious mononucleosis, the virus can cause the spleen to become enlarged and swollen, leading to discomfort and tenderness in the upper left side of the abdomen. This enlargement is observed in approximately 50% of individuals with infectious mononucleosis.

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  • 35. 

    Which spinal condition is characterized by a “forward head” and thoracic spine over-curvature?

    • Lordosis

    • Scoliosis

    • SI joint injury

    • Kyphosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Kyphosis
    Explanation
    Kyphosis is a spinal condition that is characterized by a "forward head" and thoracic spine over-curvature. In kyphosis, the upper back becomes excessively rounded, leading to a hunched or stooped posture. This condition can be caused by various factors, including poor posture, osteoporosis, spinal fractures, or certain medical conditions. Treatment options for kyphosis may include physical therapy, medication, bracing, or in severe cases, surgery.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following describes an inability of an athlete to remember events after a head injury has occurred?

    • Retrograde amnesia

    • Anterograde amnesia

    • Forgetfulness

    • Tinnitus

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterograde amnesia
    Explanation
    Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories after a head injury. This means that the athlete would have difficulty remembering events that occurred after the injury. Retrograde amnesia, on the other hand, refers to the inability to remember events that occurred before the injury. Forgetfulness is a general term for being unable to remember things, while tinnitus is a condition characterized by ringing in the ears and is not related to memory loss.

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  • 37. 

     What postural alignment of the spine can describe the condition of scoliosis?

    • Cervical curvature

    • Lateral curvature

    • Lumbar curvature

    • Hip curvature

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral curvature
    Explanation
    The correct answer is lateral curvature. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine. This lateral curvature can be seen when viewing the spine from the front or back. The other options, cervical curvature, lumbar curvature, and hip curvature, do not specifically describe the abnormal sideways curvature seen in scoliosis.

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  • 38. 

    1.          An orbital hematoma is more commonly referred to as:

    • Loss of an eye

    • Eyelid laceration

    • Black eye

    • Pink eye

    Correct Answer
    A. Black eye
    Explanation
    A black eye is the correct answer because an orbital hematoma refers to the accumulation of blood in the tissue around the eye, causing discoloration and swelling. This condition is commonly known as a black eye. A loss of an eye, eyelid laceration, and pink eye are unrelated conditions and do not involve the accumulation of blood around the eye.

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  • 39. 

    The female athlete triad includes all of the conditions except?

    • Amenorrhea

    • Osteoporosis

    • Disordered eating

    • Social isolation

    Correct Answer
    A. Social isolation
    Explanation
    The female athlete triad is a condition that commonly affects female athletes and consists of three interrelated conditions: disordered eating, amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods), and osteoporosis (weakening of the bones). These conditions often occur together and can have serious health consequences. Social isolation, on the other hand, is not a part of the female athlete triad. It refers to a lack of social interaction or being socially disconnected, and is not directly related to the physical health issues associated with the triad.

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  • 40. 

    What is not a segment of the spine?

    • Pelvic

    • Cervical

    • Lumbar

    • Thoracis

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic
    Explanation
    The pelvic is not a segment of the spine. The spine is divided into several segments, including the cervical, lumbar, and thoracic segments. The pelvic region, on the other hand, is part of the lower body and consists of the bones that make up the pelvis. While the pelvis is connected to the spine, it is not considered a segment of the spine itself.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is not a performance-enhancing drug?

    • Beta blocker

    • Alcohol

    • Anabolic steroids

    • Human growth hormone (HGH)

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol
    Explanation
    Alcohol is not considered a performance-enhancing drug because it actually impairs physical and cognitive abilities. While substances like beta blockers, anabolic steroids, and human growth hormone are known to enhance performance in certain ways, alcohol has the opposite effect. It can negatively affect coordination, reaction time, and decision-making skills, making it detrimental to athletic performance. Therefore, alcohol is not classified as a performance-enhancing drug.

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  • 42. 

    Which of options below is not a method of social support for an injured athlete?

    • Avoid answering any questions the athlete has about the injury

    • Be aware of body language

    • Be a good listener

    • Keep the athlete involved with the team

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid answering any questions the athlete has about the injury
    Explanation
    Avoiding answering any questions the athlete has about the injury is not a method of social support for an injured athlete. Social support involves providing emotional and informational assistance to the athlete, and actively addressing their concerns and questions about their injury. Avoiding their questions can lead to increased anxiety and feelings of isolation for the athlete.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the answers below is true regarding dietary supplements?

    • FDA does not strictly regulate dietary supplements

    • NCAA endorses use of dietary supplements

    • Dietary supplements are necessary in maintaining health

    • The listed ingredients in dietary supplements are 100% accurate

    Correct Answer
    A. FDA does not strictly regulate dietary supplements
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "FDA does not strictly regulate dietary supplements." This means that the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) does not have strict regulations in place for dietary supplements. Unlike prescription drugs, which undergo rigorous testing and approval processes, dietary supplements do not require FDA approval before they can be sold to the public. This lack of regulation means that the safety and effectiveness of dietary supplements may not be guaranteed, and consumers should exercise caution when using them.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is the body’s most efficient energy source?

    • Water

    • Fat

    • Carbohydrates

    • Minerals

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbohydrates
    Explanation
    Carbohydrates are the body's most efficient energy source because they are easily broken down into glucose, which is the primary fuel for the body's cells. When carbohydrates are consumed, they are quickly converted into glucose and released into the bloodstream, providing immediate energy. Additionally, carbohydrates can be stored in the muscles and liver as glycogen, which can be readily accessed during physical activity. Fat and protein can also be used for energy, but they require more steps to be converted into usable fuel compared to carbohydrates. Water and minerals do not provide energy to the body.

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  • 45. 

    What are recreational drugs?

    • Drugs used to increase athletic performance

    • Drugs used for non-medical reasons with the intent of altering mood or behavior

    • Over-the-counter medications

    • Prescription medications

    Correct Answer
    A. Drugs used for non-medical reasons with the intent of altering mood or behavior
    Explanation
    Recreational drugs are substances that are used for non-medical purposes with the intention of altering one's mood or behavior. These drugs are not prescribed by a doctor and are often used recreationally for their psychoactive effects. They are taken to achieve a desired high or euphoric state, rather than for any therapeutic or medical reasons. Recreational drugs can include substances such as cannabis, cocaine, MDMA, and hallucinogens, among others.

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  • Current Version
  • Jan 15, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 13, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    MattMills

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