NBRC Respiratory Care Review Quiz by Beth, Huy, Julieanne & Louie

The correct answer is A. IS, which stands for Incentive Spirometry. It is a lung expansion technique that encourages deep breathing and helps prevent atelectasis in older and cooperative children. IPPB (B), PEP (C), and CPAP (D) are also respiratory therapies but are not primarily used for preventing atelectasis through lung expansion.

In a situation where breath sounds are absent and hyperresonance is noted, it indicates the presence of a pneumothorax. Inserting a chest tube on the affected side is the appropriate intervention to release the trapped air and re-expand the lung.

The correct pressure range for a patient on nasal CPAP is 6 - 9 cm H2O to provide effective therapy.

During HFOV, when unable to control PaCO2 with amplitude, the suggested increments to decrease hertz settings is by 1 Hz every 30 minutes until reaching 3 HZ. This gradual reduction allows for effective management of PaCO2 levels while ensuring patient safety.

During circuit disconnection, the alarms that are expected to go off are related to low volume and low pressure, as indicated in option A. This combination of alarms helps alert healthcare providers to the issue and take appropriate actions to ensure patient safety.

The correct parameter for suggesting weaning based off the ventilator criteria is the vital capacity of 12 mL/kg, as it indicates the patient's ability to breathe effectively without the ventilator support.

The likely source for the hospital-acquired infection of the trachea in this scenario is hand washing technique failures due to personnel. Proper hand hygiene is crucial in preventing the spread of infections in healthcare settings.

The correct answer is bronchospasm, as bronchospasm can lead to sudden dyspnea after receiving treatment through a nebulizer. Pneumothorax, hypervolemia, and hypovolemia are not typically associated with aerosol treatments containing these medications.

The correct parameters to review for Mr. Smith's ability to cough productively prior to tracheal extubation are maximum inspiratory pressure and vital capacity, as these are indicators of respiratory muscle strength and lung function which are essential for effective coughing.

Morphine sulfate is the preferred choice in this scenario for pain management and to help decrease the ventilatory rate.

In this scenario, the patient is experiencing severe distress with a high respiratory rate and perturbed behavior. Midazolam, a sedative and anxiolytic, can help alleviate the patient's distress and improve ventilation. Beclomethasone is a steroid inhaler used for long-term asthma management; N-acetylcysteine is a mucolytic agent used to help break down mucus in conditions like COPD; and Intal is a mast cell stabilizer used to prevent asthma attacks but not suitable for acute episodes.

On an ECG grid paper, each small square on the horizontal axis represents 0.04 seconds. The correct answer is 0.04 as indicated by the marking I. A.14.

In Indochinese culture, maintaining good eye contact, touching, pointing fingers, and legs crossed can be seen as impolite or aggressive. Each of the incorrect answers does not align with this cultural context.

The correct answer is C (ADENOSINE) as it is commonly used to treat supraventricular tachycardia. Racemic Epi (A) may be used for anaphylaxis or bronchospasm; Atropine (B) is used for symptomatic bradycardia; Morphine (D) is used for pain relief and acute coronary syndrome.

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition characterized by the buildup of fluid in the air sacs within the lungs, leading to a presentation of Ground glass appearance in imaging studies.

When evaluating a Pulmonary Function Test (PFT), respiratory therapists are primarily looking for signs of obstructive conditions like COPD, restrictive conditions like asthma, and other respiratory disorders. Hence, option A (Obstructive), C (Asthma), and D (COPD) are the correct choices. Option B and the incorrect options E and F do not cover the key aspects that a respiratory therapist would be evaluating in a PFT.

The correct recommendation should be to increase the Tidal Volume since it is currently at 500 mL and the patient is not oxygenating adequately. A higher Tidal Volume of 600 mL may help improve oxygenation in this patient.

The main reason for immediate cleaning and sterilization of non-disposable respiratory care equipment is to prevent infection and cross-infection of patients. This helps maintain a safe and sterile environment for patients receiving respiratory care.

In the case of a 33-year-old patient with bronchiectasis and substantial secretions, the therapist should recommend Vibratory PEP to help the patient achieve their goals. This technique can assist in airway clearance and secretion mobilization, which is crucial for managing bronchiectasis effectively.

In this scenario, the correct course of action is to increase the humidifier settings in order to provide more moisture to help thin out the thick, mucoid secretions. This will improve the patient's ability to effectively clear the secretions and breathe more easily. Decreasing the humidifier settings, flushing the tubing with saline, or removing the humidifier altogether would not directly address the issue of thick, mucoid secretions.

In this scenario, the correct course of action would be to order a stat Chest X-Ray to assess the post-operative patient's lung condition and further investigate the cause of diminished breath sounds over the right lung. This can help identify potential issues such as pneumothorax which may require immediate intervention.

In normal conditions, an SpO2 of 80% corresponds to a PaO2 of approximately 50 torr (II. C. 1).

The correct location to analyze mixed venous oxygen saturation is the Pulmonary Artery because it provides a more accurate reflection of oxygen content in the blood passing through the lungs.

In this scenario, the correct answer is A. No changes required. The tube is correctly placed. It is important to carefully assess the chest radiograph to determine if any adjustments are necessary when managing an endotracheal tube. Pulling or advancing the tube without indication can lead to potential complications, and reintubation should only be considered if there are clear signs of incorrect placement or difficulties with ventilation.

The correct course of action in this scenario is to administer nasal cannula with 0.40 FiO2 to help improve the patient's oxygen levels and ensure adequate oxygenation. This option provides the most direct solution to the low SpO2 reading and addresses the patient's respiratory needs.

Methemoglobinemia is a known side effect associated with the use of inhaled nitric oxide, as noted in II. A. 18.

In medical settings, the relationship between SpO2 (oxygen saturation) and PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood) is important. A SpO2 of 80% should be associated with a PaO2 of approximately half full. This indicates a certain level of oxygen saturation in the blood.

When percussing the patient's chest, the middle finger is used because it allows for better control and precision during the examination process.