Extra Study Quiz HM1
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Common Bacteria results for Postive Cocci
- A.
Pneumona
- B.
Gonorrhea
- C.
Botulism
- D.
Bubonic plague
Correct Answer
A. PneumonaExplanation
The correct answer is Pneumona because it is a common bacterial infection that can cause inflammation in the lungs, leading to symptoms such as cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. Pneumonia is often caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can appear as cocci (round-shaped) bacteria under a microscope. On the other hand, Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Botulism is caused by the toxin produced by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum, and Bubonic plague is caused by the bacteria Yersinia pestis.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Common Bacteria for Postive Bacilli
- A.
Strep Throat
- B.
Meningitis
- C.
Tetanus
- D.
Bubonic plague
Correct Answer
C. TetanusExplanation
Tetanus is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani, which is a common bacteria for positive bacilli. It is a serious infection that affects the nervous system and can lead to muscle stiffness and spasms. Strep throat is caused by Streptococcus bacteria and is not related to positive bacilli. Meningitis can be caused by various bacteria, viruses, and fungi, but tetanus is not commonly associated with it. Bubonic plague is caused by the bacteria Yersinia pestis, which is not a positive bacilli. Therefore, the correct answer is tetanus.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Common Bacteria Negative Cocci
- A.
Boils
- B.
Gonorrhea
- C.
Gas Gangrene
- D.
Whooping cough
Correct Answer
B. GonorrheaExplanation
Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which is a common bacteria that appears as negative cocci (spherical shape). It is a sexually transmitted infection that primarily affects the genital tract, but can also infect the throat, eyes, and rectum. Symptoms of gonorrhea include painful urination, abnormal discharge, and in some cases, no symptoms at all. If left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. Therefore, gonorrhea is the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Common bacteria for negative Bacilli
- A.
Pneumonia
- B.
Meningitis
- C.
Tetanus
- D.
Brucellosis
Correct Answer
D. BrucellosisExplanation
Brucellosis is caused by bacteria called Brucella, which are gram-negative bacilli. This infectious disease primarily affects animals, but it can also be transmitted to humans through direct contact with infected animals or consumption of contaminated animal products. Symptoms of brucellosis in humans include fever, fatigue, joint and muscle pain, and headache. Therefore, Brucellosis is the correct answer as it is caused by negative bacilli.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Total red blood count for adult male
- A.
4.2-6.0 million
- B.
3.6-5.6 million
- C.
5.0-6.5 million
- D.
2.0-3.5million
Correct Answer
A. 4.2-6.0 millionExplanation
The correct answer is 4.2-6.0 million. This range represents the normal total red blood cell count for adult males. The red blood cell count is an important measure of the body's ability to transport oxygen to tissues and organs. A count within this range indicates a healthy level of red blood cells, which is essential for maintaining proper oxygenation and overall health.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Total red blood count adult female
- A.
4.2-6.0million
- B.
3.6-5.6 million
- C.
5.0-6.5 million
- D.
2.0-3.5 million
Correct Answer
B. 3.6-5.6 millionExplanation
The correct answer is 3.6-5.6 million. This range represents the normal total red blood cell count for adult females. Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body, and a count within this range indicates a healthy level of oxygen-carrying capacity. Counts below or above this range may indicate anemia or other underlying health conditions.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Total red blood count for newborn
- A.
4.2 - 6.0 million
- B.
3.6 - 5.6 million
- C.
5.0 - 6.5 million
- D.
2.0 - 3.5 million
Correct Answer
C. 5.0 - 6.5 millionExplanation
The correct answer is 5.0 - 6.5 million. This range represents the normal total red blood cell count for newborns. The red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body, and having a sufficient count is crucial for proper oxygenation. This range ensures that the newborn has an adequate number of red blood cells to support their oxygen needs.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the order of Graim Stain
- A.
Mordant; 1 min, Crystal violet stain; 1 min, Acetone - Alcohol declorizer; 30-60 seconds, Safarine (counter-stain); 30-60 seconds
- B.
Crystal violet stain; 1 min, Safarin (counter-stain); 30-60 seconds, Acetone-Alcohol declorizer; 30-60 seconds, Mordant; 1min
- C.
Safarine; 30-60 seconds, Aceton-Alcohol declorizer; 30-60 seconds, Mordant; 1 min, Crystal Violet Stain; 1 min.
- D.
Crystal violet stain; 1 min, mordant; acetone - alcohol declorier; 30-60 seconds, Safarine (counter-stain) 30-60 seconds
Correct Answer
D. Crystal violet stain; 1 min, mordant; acetone - alcohol declorier; 30-60 seconds, Safarine (counter-stain) 30-60 secondsExplanation
The correct order of the Graim Stain is Crystal violet stain for 1 minute, followed by mordant for 30-60 seconds, and then Safarine (counter-stain) for 30-60 seconds. This order ensures that the crystal violet stain is applied first to stain the bacteria, then the mordant is used to fix the stain, and finally, the Safarine counter-stain is applied to provide contrast and enhance visibility of the bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Temp. for Hot water bottle
- A.
125F
- B.
110F
- C.
100F
- D.
105F
Correct Answer
A. 125FExplanation
The correct answer is 125F because it is the highest temperature listed.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Temp. for hot water comprass
- A.
125F
- B.
110F
- C.
100F
- D.
105F
Correct Answer
B. 110FExplanation
The correct answer is 110F because it is the temperature that is most suitable for hot water compresses. This temperature is warm enough to provide relief and promote healing, but not too hot to cause burns or discomfort. It strikes a balance between being effective and safe for use on the skin.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Temp. for sits bath
- A.
125F
- B.
110F
- C.
100F
- D.
105F
Correct Answer
C. 100FExplanation
The correct answer is 100F. This is the suggested temperature for a sitz bath. A sitz bath is a therapeutic bath in which only the hips and buttocks are immersed in water. It is commonly used to provide relief for various conditions such as hemorrhoids, postpartum pain, and anal fissures. A temperature of 100F is considered to be warm enough to provide comfort and relaxation without causing any discomfort or burns to the sensitive area.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Shipping Code for normal Refrigeration
- A.
G
- B.
F
- C.
I
- D.
Q
Correct Answer
A. GExplanation
The correct answer is G because the question asks for the shipping code for normal refrigeration. Among the options provided, G is the only code that matches this requirement.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Shipping Code for Coorossives
- A.
G
- B.
D
- C.
W
- D.
I
Correct Answer
B. DExplanation
The correct answer is "D" because in the given list of shipping codes, "D" is the only code that is spelled correctly. The other codes, "G", "W", and "I", do not match the correct spelling of "corrosives". Therefore, "D" is the correct shipping code for corrosives.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the size of a standard size casket?
- A.
23 X 78
- B.
25 X 81
- C.
27 X 84
- D.
20 X 76
Correct Answer
A. 23 X 78Explanation
The correct answer is 23 X 78. This answer suggests that the size of a standard size casket is 23 inches wide and 78 inches long.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the size of a oversized casket?
- A.
25 X 78
- B.
25 X 81
- C.
27 X 84
- D.
20 X 76
Correct Answer
B. 25 X 81Explanation
An oversized casket typically has larger dimensions than a standard casket to accommodate a larger body. The given answer, 25 X 81, suggests that the length of the casket is 25 inches and the width is 81 inches. This larger size allows for a more comfortable and appropriate resting place for individuals who require a larger casket.Rate this question:
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- 16.
How many different size caskets does the Navy use?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The Navy uses two different sizes of caskets.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Using youngs rule determine the amount of medication that should be given to a 3 year child; and the adult dose of motrin is 800mg.
- A.
160mg
- B.
220mg
- C.
165mg
- D.
180mg
Correct Answer
A. 160mgExplanation
Young's rule is a formula used to calculate the appropriate dosage for children based on their age and the adult dosage. According to Young's rule, the dosage for a child is determined by dividing their age by the sum of their age and 12, and then multiplying that result by the adult dosage. In this case, for a 3-year-old child, the calculation would be (3 / (3 + 12)) * 800mg, which equals 160mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 160mg.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Using Clarks rule for dose calculations; determing the amount medication should be administered to a 25lb child, the normal adult dose is 500mg.
- A.
85mg
- B.
88mg
- C.
83mg
- D.
90mg
Correct Answer
C. 83mgExplanation
Based on Clark's rule, the amount of medication to be administered to a child is determined by dividing the child's weight by 150 (the average adult weight) and then multiplying it by the normal adult dose. In this case, the child weighs 25lb, so the calculation would be (25/150) * 500 = 83.33mg. Since medication is typically rounded down to the nearest whole number, the correct answer is 83mg.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How many bones are there in the skull
- A.
8
- B.
6
- C.
28
- D.
10
Correct Answer
C. 28 -
- 20.
Excercising in the heat and humidity for how many hours daily gradually increasing the workload each day, can produce acclimatization
- A.
1-2 hours
- B.
2-3 hours
- C.
.5-1 hours
- D.
3-4 hours
Correct Answer
A. 1-2 hoursExplanation
Exercising in the heat and humidity for 1-2 hours daily gradually increasing the workload each day can produce acclimatization. This means that by consistently working out in hot and humid conditions for this duration, the body can adapt and become more efficient at regulating its temperature and handling the stress of exercising in such conditions. This adaptation helps improve performance and reduce the risk of heat-related illnesses.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the most effective clothing repellent
- A.
DEET
- B.
Permethrin
- C.
Off
- D.
Skin so Soft
Correct Answer
B. PermethrinExplanation
Permethrin is the most effective clothing repellent as it is a synthetic chemical that repels and kills insects, including mosquitoes and ticks. It can be applied to clothing, tents, and other gear, creating a protective barrier that lasts even after multiple washes. Unlike DEET, which is a skin repellent, Permethrin is specifically designed for treating clothing and provides long-lasting protection against insects. Off and Skin so Soft are not as effective as Permethrin for repelling insects from clothing.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is the distance that latrines shold be from food operations.
- A.
10 meters
- B.
50 meters
- C.
100 meters
- D.
150 meters
Correct Answer
C. 100 metersExplanation
The distance that latrines should be from food operations is 100 meters. This distance is necessary to prevent contamination and the spread of diseases. By keeping the latrines at a safe distance, the risk of pathogens and harmful bacteria reaching the food operations is minimized. This ensures the safety and hygiene of the food being prepared and consumed.Rate this question:
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- 23.
During continuous operations, set shifts and rotate jobs to allow everyone how many hours of uninterrupted sleep per 24-hour period.
- A.
1-2 hours
- B.
2-3 hours
- C.
3-4 hours
- D.
4-5 hours
Correct Answer
C. 3-4 hoursExplanation
During continuous operations, it is important to ensure that everyone gets enough uninterrupted sleep to maintain their well-being and performance. Rotating jobs and allowing set shifts helps in achieving this goal. By rotating jobs and shifts, individuals have the opportunity to have 3-4 hours of uninterrupted sleep per 24-hour period. This duration allows for sufficient rest and recovery, enabling individuals to stay alert and productive during their working hours.Rate this question:
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- 24.
To disinfect the mess kit by immersing it in the third sink of what temp of water and for how long?
- A.
175F /10 seconds
- B.
180F/ 15 seconds
- C.
180F/10 seconds
- D.
175F/15 seconds
Correct Answer
C. 180F/10 secondsExplanation
The correct answer is 180F/10 seconds. This temperature and duration are necessary to ensure proper disinfection of the mess kit. Higher temperatures help kill bacteria and other harmful microorganisms, while the 10-second duration ensures sufficient exposure to the heat. It is important to follow these guidelines to maintain hygiene and prevent the spread of diseases.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Only 20 % of all hospital admissions have been from combat injuries. What percent have been from DNBI (Disease and Nonbattle injury)
- A.
82%
- B.
81%
- C.
80%
- D.
85%
Correct Answer
C. 80%Explanation
The given statement states that only 20% of all hospital admissions have been from combat injuries. This means that the remaining 80% of hospital admissions are from other causes, including DNBI (Disease and Nonbattle injury). Therefore, the percentage of hospital admissions from DNBI would be 80%.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Nuclear explosions are divided into how many classes?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
D. FourExplanation
Nuclear explosions are divided into four classes. This classification is based on the yield, or the amount of energy released by the explosion. The four classes are: low yield, intermediate yield, high yield, and very high yield. Each class represents a different range of energy release, with very high yield explosions being the most powerful. This classification system helps to categorize and understand the destructive potential of nuclear explosions.Rate this question:
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- 27.
CPR whould be started within how many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest?
- A.
Seven
- B.
Six
- C.
Five
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
D. FourExplanation
CPR should be started within four minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest. Prompt initiation of CPR is crucial in order to maintain blood flow and oxygenation to vital organs, especially the brain. Delaying CPR beyond four minutes can significantly decrease the chances of successful resuscitation and increase the risk of irreversible damage or death. Therefore, it is essential to begin CPR as soon as possible to improve the chances of survival.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The basic disciplinary laws for the Navy are set forth in how many official sources?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
C. ThreeExplanation
The correct answer is Three. The explanation for this answer is that the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy are set forth in three official sources. These sources include the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), the Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM), and the Navy Regulations. These sources outline the rules and regulations that govern the behavior and conduct of Navy personnel, and provide guidance for the enforcement of discipline within the Navy.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Most watches in the Navy are of what duration?
- A.
One hour
- B.
Two hours
- C.
Three hours
- D.
Four hours
Correct Answer
D. Four hoursExplanation
In the Navy, most watches typically last for a duration of four hours. This means that a sailor or officer is responsible for performing their duties and keeping watch for a four-hour period before being relieved by the next person. This rotation allows for continuous monitoring and ensures that there is always someone on duty to maintain the safety and security of the ship or naval facility.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The square knot is also known by which of the following names?
- A.
Granny knot
- B.
Seaman's knot
- C.
Reef knot
- D.
Top knot
Correct Answer
C. Reef knotExplanation
The square knot is also known as the reef knot.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is the Navy's primary land-based ASW patrol aircraft?
- A.
S-3 Viking
- B.
P-3 Orion
- C.
A-6 Intruder
- D.
A-7 Corsair II
Correct Answer
B. P-3 OrionExplanation
The Navy's primary land-based ASW patrol aircraft is the P-3 Orion. This aircraft is specifically designed for anti-submarine warfare (ASW) missions and is equipped with advanced sensors and systems to detect and track submarines. The P-3 Orion has a long-range capability and can operate from land bases, making it an ideal choice for patrolling and protecting maritime territories. Its effectiveness and versatility have made it a crucial asset in the Navy's ASW operations.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What article of the Constitution created the United States Congress
- A.
Article I
- B.
Article V
- C.
Article III
- D.
Article VII
Correct Answer
A. Article IExplanation
The correct answer is Article I. Article I of the Constitution created the United States Congress. This article establishes the legislative branch of the federal government, outlining its powers, structure, and responsibilities. It establishes the two chambers of Congress, the House of Representatives and the Senate, and outlines the qualifications and terms of office for members. Article I also grants Congress the power to make laws, regulate commerce, and collect taxes, among other important responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following descriptive names identifies the 1600 to 1800 watch
- A.
Afternoon watch
- B.
First dog watch
- C.
Evening watch
- D.
Midwatch
Correct Answer
B. First dog watchExplanation
The term "First dog watch" refers to the period of time from 1600 to 1800 on a ship's watch schedule. This watch is called the "First dog watch" because it is divided into two watches, with the first watch being the "First dog watch" and the second watch being the "Second dog watch". The "First dog watch" typically takes place in the late afternoon and early evening, making it the correct descriptive name for the given time period.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Part II of NAVPERS form 1070/602 (page 2) contains which of the following information?
- A.
List of all duty stations
- B.
Record of emergency data
- C.
List of all qualifications
- D.
Complete list of Navy schools
Correct Answer
B. Record of emergency dataExplanation
Part II of NAVPERS form 1070/602 (page 2) contains the record of emergency data. This section of the form includes important information such as the individual's next of kin, contact information, and any specific medical conditions or allergies that may be relevant in case of an emergency. It is crucial to have this information readily available to ensure the well-being and safety of the individual in case of any unforeseen circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following diseases can be spread as part of a BW attack?
- A.
Cholear
- B.
Typhoid fever
- C.
Both A and B above
- D.
Mumps
Correct Answer
C. Both A and B aboveExplanation
Both cholera and typhoid fever can be spread as part of a BW (biological warfare) attack. These diseases are caused by bacterial infections and can be transmitted through contaminated food, water, or direct contact with infected individuals. In a BW attack, these diseases can be intentionally released to infect a large population, causing widespread illness and potentially overwhelming healthcare systems. Mumps, on the other hand, is a viral infection and is not typically associated with BW attacks.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many chamber are contained in the cylinder of the .38-caliber revolver?
- A.
Six
- B.
Seven
- C.
Eight
- D.
Nine
Correct Answer
A. SixExplanation
The correct answer is six. A .38-caliber revolver typically contains six chambers in its cylinder. Each chamber holds one round of ammunition, allowing the revolver to hold a total of six rounds. This design is common among revolvers and provides the shooter with a convenient and reliable six-shot capacity.Rate this question:
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- 37.
How many Trident missiles does the Ohio class ballistic missile submarine carry?
- A.
16
- B.
20
- C.
24
- D.
26
Correct Answer
C. 24Explanation
The Ohio class ballistic missile submarine carries 24 Trident missiles.Rate this question:
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- 38.
In a group survival situation, good leadership will lessen the effects of which of the following physical or emotional states?
- A.
Panic
- B.
Confusion
- C.
Disorganization
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Good leadership in a group survival situation can help lessen the effects of panic, confusion, and disorganization. When faced with a crisis, individuals may become overwhelmed and panicked, leading to irrational decision-making and actions. A good leader can provide clear direction, calmness, and reassurance, helping to prevent panic from spreading and maintaining a sense of control. Additionally, a leader can provide clarity and structure, reducing confusion and ensuring that everyone understands their roles and responsibilities. By promoting organization and coordination, a leader can help the group work together effectively, maximizing their chances of survival.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A person who is arrested and accused of a crime is entitled to which of the following privileges?
- A.
Representation by a lawyer
- B.
A speedy trial
- C.
Trial by jury
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
When a person is arrested and accused of a crime, they are entitled to certain privileges. These privileges include representation by a lawyer, which ensures that they have legal counsel to protect their rights and provide a defense. They are also entitled to a speedy trial, which means that their case should be heard promptly without unnecessary delays. Additionally, they have the right to a trial by jury, where their case is decided by a group of impartial individuals from the community. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all these privileges are guaranteed to a person who is arrested and accused of a crime.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following hazard is/are associated with jet aircraft on flight decks?
- A.
Being blown overboard
- B.
Being burned by jet exhaust
- C.
Being sucked into jet intakes
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Jet aircraft on flight decks pose multiple hazards to personnel. Firstly, the strong jet exhaust can cause burns to individuals who are in close proximity to the engines. Secondly, the powerful air currents created by the engines can potentially blow people overboard, especially if they are not properly secured. Lastly, the jet intakes can pose a risk of individuals being sucked into them, which can result in severe injuries or even fatalities. Therefore, all of the mentioned hazards are associated with jet aircraft on flight decks.Rate this question:
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