Examinicion De Vida Practica B

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1. All of the following statements about policy provisions are true, Except

Explanation

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Examinicion De Vida Practica B - Quiz

Examinacion de vida practica B

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2. Which of the following is Not an acceptable underwriting classification?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Declined" because it refers to a classification where an applicant is denied coverage due to high risk factors. Underwriting classifications typically include sub-standard (high risk), preferred (low risk), and standard (average risk), but declined is not a classification as it signifies a denial of coverage.

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3. . At age 72, Mrs. Smith is considering applying for Medi-Cal so she can afford her medical bills. Today agent Charles is visiting her home and wanting to sell her an annuity product. Which of the following is true?

Explanation

Agent Charles cannot allow Mrs. Smith to purchase an annuity if after the purchase, Mrs. Smith wouldn’t qualify for Medi-Cal. This is because Medi-Cal is a government program that provides medical assistance to individuals with low income and limited resources. If Mrs. Smith purchases an annuity, it could potentially increase her income or assets, which may disqualify her from receiving Medi-Cal benefits. Therefore, it is important for Agent Charles to consider Mrs. Smith's eligibility for Medi-Cal before recommending the annuity purchase.

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4. Which action by an insurer, or its representatives, is Not considered an unfair claims violation?

Explanation

An agent advising a claimant to obtain the services of an attorney is not considered an unfair claims violation because it is within the claimant's rights to seek legal representation for their claim. This action does not involve any misrepresentation, lack of response, or failure to affirm or deny coverage, which would be considered unfair claims violations.

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5. A forty-five year old investor has been laid off from his job. In order to pay bills he takes a premature distribution from his Traditional IRA account. What tax penalties, if any, will he face?

Explanation

The answer states that the investor will be required to pay a 10% tax penalty on the amount withdrawn. This is because premature distributions from a Traditional IRA account before the age of 59 1/2 are subject to a 10% penalty unless certain exceptions apply. In this case, being laid off from his job does not qualify as an exception, so the investor will face the penalty.

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6. An agent who knowingly misrepresents Material information for the purpose of inducing a client to lapse, forfeit, change or surrender a life insurance policy or annuity has committed an illegal practice known as:

Explanation

Twisting refers to the illegal practice of an insurance agent intentionally misrepresenting material information to a client in order to convince them to surrender, lapse, forfeit, or change their life insurance policy or annuity. This practice is considered fraudulent as it deceives the client and can lead to financial loss or inadequate coverage.

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7. For an insurance contract, utmost good faith means:

Explanation

Utmost good faith in an insurance contract refers to the principle that both the policyowner and the insurer must rely on the truthfulness and honesty of each other. This means that both parties are expected to provide accurate and complete information during the application process and throughout the duration of the policy. By relying on each other's truthfulness, both parties can ensure that the contract is fair and that the insurer can accurately assess the risk and provide appropriate coverage.

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8. In insurance, the agents have authorization to represent the company. The producers may exercise this relationship through:

Explanation

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9. Ashley, the policy owner and insured, named Wendell as primary beneficiary and Barbara as contingent beneficiary. Just six (6) weeks prior to Ashley's death, Wendell and Barbara are killed in a common disaster. The insurance proceeds will be received by whom?

Explanation

In this scenario, Ashley, the policy owner and insured, named Wendell as the primary beneficiary and Barbara as the contingent beneficiary. However, both Wendell and Barbara were killed in a common disaster just six weeks prior to Ashley's death. In such a case, if the primary and contingent beneficiaries predecease the insured, the insurance proceeds will be received by the insured's estate. Therefore, the correct answer is Ashley's estate.

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10. Who submits a request for life insurance to a company?

Explanation

The applicant is the person who submits a request for life insurance to a company. They are the individual seeking to obtain life insurance coverage and are responsible for providing all the necessary information and completing the application process. The beneficiary is the person who receives the benefits of the life insurance policy upon the death of the insured. The underwriter is the person who assesses the risk and determines the terms and conditions of the insurance policy. The agent is the representative of the insurance company who assists the applicant in the process of obtaining life insurance.

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11. A policy owner who cannot borrow the equity, change beneficiaries, assign a policy or stop paying premiums without the beneficiary's written consent has designated the beneficiary as a/an?

Explanation

The policy owner in this scenario has designated the beneficiary as an irrevocable beneficiary. This means that the beneficiary cannot be changed or revoked without their written consent. The policy owner cannot borrow the equity, change beneficiaries, assign the policy, or stop paying premiums without the beneficiary's permission. This indicates that the beneficiary has a permanent and unchangeable interest in the policy.

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12. The Roth and Traditional IRAs have some similarities. Which of the following in Not true?

Explanation

Both the Roth and Traditional IRAs have tax advantages, but they differ in terms of tax deductibility. Contributions to a Traditional IRA are tax-deductible, meaning they can be deducted from the investor's taxable income for the year. However, contributions to a Roth IRA are not tax-deductible. Instead, withdrawals from a Roth IRA are tax-free in retirement. Therefore, the statement "Both are tax deductible to the investor" is not true.

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13. When an applicant makes a Material statement believed to be true to the best of their knowledge, the statement is considered to be a/an

Explanation

When an applicant makes a material statement believed to be true to the best of their knowledge, it is considered to be a representation. A representation is a statement of fact made by one party to another during the negotiation or formation of a contract. It is not a guarantee or a promise, but rather a statement that is believed to be true at the time it is made. If a representation turns out to be false, it can potentially give rise to legal consequences, such as a claim for misrepresentation.

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14. Any person to whom the commissioner has issued a seizure order and who refuses to deliver any books, records, or assets of an insurer faces:

Explanation

If a person refuses to deliver any books, records, or assets of an insurer after a seizure order has been issued by the commissioner, they face a misdemeanor. This means they can be punished by a fine of up to $1,000, a year in jail, or both.

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15. Which of the following is an Incorrect statement about a client's privacy rights?

Explanation

The MIB report belongs to the member life insurers, so clients do not have access to it. This statement implies that clients have no right to access their own MIB report, which is incorrect. Clients do have the right to access their MIB report and review the information in it.

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16. How many hours of continuing education are required per renewal for a life-only agent?

Explanation

Life-only agents are required to complete 24 hours of continuing education per renewal. Out of these 24 hours, 4 hours must be specifically focused on ethics. This ensures that life-only agents stay updated with the latest industry standards and ethical practices, enabling them to provide the best service to their clients.

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17. Variable insurance and variable annuity products are regulated by:

Explanation

Variable insurance and variable annuity products are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA), and the Department of Insurance (DOI). These regulatory bodies oversee the sale and marketing of variable insurance and annuity products to ensure that they comply with relevant laws and regulations. The SEC focuses on investor protection and market integrity, FINRA oversees the conduct of brokerage firms and their registered representatives, and the DOI regulates insurance products and companies. Therefore, the correct answer is SEC, FINRA, and DOI.

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18. Which of the following is most likely to have a TSA? (tax sheltered accounts)

Explanation

A school district employee is most likely to have a TSA (tax sheltered account) because many school districts offer retirement plans that include tax sheltered annuities. These plans allow employees to contribute a portion of their salary to a retirement account on a pre-tax basis, reducing their taxable income and providing potential tax advantages. Corporate executives, small business owners, and employees of blue chip corporations may have other retirement plans or investment options available to them, but it is less likely that these options would specifically be tax sheltered accounts.

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19. Brian purchased a variable life policy and died 25 months after the issue date. It is then discovered that Brian Understated his age on the application. What will the insurer do in regard to the payment of the death benefit to the beneficiary?

Explanation

If the insured understated his age on the application, it means that the premium rates were calculated based on a younger age. As a result, the death benefit will be reduced to reflect the correct age of the insured at the time of death. This adjustment ensures that the premiums paid by the insured were appropriate for the actual age, and prevents any potential advantages or disadvantages resulting from incorrect information provided on the application.

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20. Which party has the legal authority to name or change the beneficiary?

Explanation

The policy owner has the legal authority to name or change the beneficiary. As the owner of the insurance policy, they have the right to decide who will receive the benefits of the policy in the event of the insured's death. This authority allows the policy owner to make changes to the beneficiary designation as needed, providing flexibility and control over the policy's proceeds. The insurer, insured, and agent do not have the legal authority to make such decisions.

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21. Term insurance is best described by which of the following:

Explanation

Term insurance is best described as a type of insurance that provides temporary protection for a specified period of time. It does not build cash value, making it less expensive compared to other types of insurance. It can be renewed after the initial term expires, providing continued coverage. The policyholder has the option to adjust the face amount, change anniversary dates, and the face amount may automatically increase at a certain age.

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22. Which of the following transactions would most likely be declined due to lack of insurable interest?

Explanation

Insurable interest refers to the financial or legal interest that a person has in the subject matter of an insurance policy. In this case, an employee insuring their employer in the fear of losing their job would most likely be declined due to lack of insurable interest. The employee does not have a financial or legal interest in the employer, and therefore there is no valid reason for them to insure the employer. Insurable interest requires that the insured would suffer a financial loss if the insured event occurs, which is not the case in this scenario.

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23. Which of the following is Not a personal use of Life Insurance?

Explanation

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24. All of these statements about life insurance Settlement Options are False, except:

Explanation

The statement "Life income with 10 years certain provides at least 120 months of payments" is the only true statement among the given options. The other statements are false. Fixed amount is not the default option, life income payments are not income tax free, and settlement options like fixed period may not be suitable for beneficiaries who cannot handle large sums of money.

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25. 7. The insured dies 6 months after the policy issue date. Upon death of the insured, it is determined that the applicant made a Material Misstatement on the application. What is the most likely course of action for the insurer?

Explanation

The most likely course of action for the insurer is to rescind the policy. This means that the insurer will cancel the policy and treat it as if it never existed. This is because it is determined that the applicant made a material misstatement on the application, which means that the applicant provided false or misleading information that could have affected the insurer's decision to issue the policy. Rescinding the policy allows the insurer to avoid paying out any benefits or claims associated with the policy.

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26. According to the California DOI (Dept. of Insurance), and insurer whose articles of incorporation are registered in Oslo, Norway is considered:

Explanation

An insurer whose articles of incorporation are registered in Oslo, Norway is considered an alien insurer because it is a foreign insurer that is not incorporated in the United States. Alien insurers are typically subject to different regulations and requirements than domestic insurers or insurers from other states within the United States.

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27. The provision that protects the proceeds of a life insurance policy from attachment by the beneficiary's creditors after the insured's death is known as the:

Explanation

The provision that protects the proceeds of a life insurance policy from attachment by the beneficiary's creditors after the insured's death is known as the spendthrift (trust) clause. This clause ensures that the beneficiary cannot use the life insurance proceeds as collateral or be forced to use them to pay off their debts. Instead, the proceeds are protected and can only be used for the intended purpose, such as providing financial support to the beneficiary.

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28. In a group life policy with a death benefit of more than $50,000:

Explanation

In a group life policy with a death benefit of more than $50,000, the premium cost for insurance above $50,000 is taxable as income to the employee. This means that the employee will have to report the premium cost as part of their taxable income when filing their taxes. This is because the IRS considers the portion of the premium that covers insurance above $50,000 to be a benefit provided by the employer to the employee, and therefore subject to taxation.

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29. To authorize the release of an attending physician's report, the applicant must:

Explanation

The correct answer is to sign a consent form. This is because authorizing the release of a physician's report requires the applicant to give their consent for the release of their medical information. Signing a consent form is a formal way of providing this authorization. Sending a letter to the physician or furnishing the name of the physician may be part of the process, but the essential step is signing the consent form. Submitting to a physical examination is not mentioned in relation to authorizing the release of the report.

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30. The commissioner can deny an applicant for a license after a hearing:

Explanation

The correct answer is if the applicant has permitted someone in their employment to violate the California Insurance Code. This means that if the applicant has allowed someone working for them to break the rules and regulations stated in the California Insurance Code, the commissioner has the authority to deny their license application. This shows that the applicant has not demonstrated the necessary integrity and responsibility required for obtaining a license in the insurance industry.

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31. At what age does Social Security Medicare program Part B start providing benefits?

Explanation

The Social Security Medicare program Part B starts providing benefits at the age of 65. This is the age at which individuals become eligible for Medicare coverage, which includes Part B. Part B helps cover medical services and supplies that are necessary to treat or diagnose a medical condition. It is important to note that there may be certain enrollment periods and requirements that individuals need to meet in order to receive these benefits.

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32. All of the following statements about a policy grace period are False, Except:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Grace periods are typically 31 days." This statement is the only one that is true. A policy grace period refers to the period of time after the premium due date during which an insurance policy remains in force even if the premium has not been paid. During this period, the policyholder has the opportunity to make the premium payment without any penalty or loss of coverage. The length of the grace period may vary depending on the insurance company and the type of policy, but it is commonly 31 days.

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33. Which insurance is known for having a level premium with a fixed rate of return resulting in guaranteed cash value?

Explanation

Whole life insurance is known for having a level premium, which means that the premium remains the same throughout the policy's duration. It also offers a fixed rate of return, ensuring that the cash value of the policy grows at a guaranteed rate. This makes whole life insurance a popular choice for individuals who want a stable and predictable investment option with guaranteed cash value. Adjustable life, variable universal life, and universal life insurance policies do not necessarily offer these features, making whole life insurance the correct answer.

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34. A client has purchased an annuity with an annual bonus she received at the end of last year. She has requested annual benefit payments to start at the end of this year. What type of annuity did she purchase?

Explanation

The client purchased a single premium immediate annuity. This type of annuity is funded by a lump sum payment (single premium) and provides immediate benefit payments starting at a specified time (in this case, the end of this year). The fact that the client used an annual bonus to purchase the annuity indicates that it was a one-time payment rather than ongoing contributions (flexible premium deferred annuity). A consumer report and a pretext interview are unrelated to annuities and are not applicable in this context.

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35. . According to the CIC (California Insurance Code), life-only agents must keep records of their transactions for:

Explanation

According to the CIC (California Insurance Code), life-only agents are required to keep records of their transactions for a period of 5 years. This means that life-only agents must maintain documentation and records of their business activities, including policies sold, premiums collected, and any other relevant information, for a minimum of 5 years. This requirement ensures that there is a sufficient record of the agent's transactions, which can be useful for audits, investigations, and customer inquiries.

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36. All of the following are True about Key Person insurance, Except:

Explanation

Key Person insurance is a type of life insurance policy taken out by a business on the life of a key employee. The purpose of this insurance is to protect the business from financial loss in the event of the key employee's death. The business is the applicant and owner of the policy, and it is also the beneficiary, meaning that it will receive the death benefit payout. The employee must give written consent by signing the application to be covered by the policy. However, the death benefit is not taxable to the business, making it the exception among the given statements.

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37. Situations where the risk is increased by slippery floors, a habit of lying or reckless drunk driving are best described by which of the following?

Explanation

The given situations, such as slippery floors, a habit of lying, and reckless drunk driving, indicate potential dangers or risks. These situations can lead to accidents, injuries, or damage. Therefore, they can be best described as hazards, which refer to conditions or factors that increase the likelihood of a loss occurring. Hazards can be physical, moral, or moral in nature, and they contribute to the overall risk associated with a particular situation or activity.

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38. A client has a history of DUIs. To his insurer, they see him as a _________ hazard

Explanation

The correct answer is "Morale". This is because the client's history of DUIs indicates a lack of responsibility and judgment, which can affect their overall attitude and behavior. The insurer would view the client as a morale hazard, as their past actions suggest a potential for future risky behavior that could result in accidents or insurance claims.

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39. All of the following statements about agents are true Except:

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Exclusive agents work for themselves." This statement is false because exclusive agents work exclusively for one insurer and are not self-employed. They have a contractual agreement with a single insurance company and represent only that company's products and services.

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40. Under which Life Settlement option does the insurer retain the death benefit but pays the beneficiary the earnings on the death benefit?

Explanation

Under the interest only option, the insurer retains the death benefit but pays the beneficiary the earnings on the death benefit. This means that the beneficiary will receive the interest earned on the death benefit, while the actual death benefit remains with the insurer. This option allows the beneficiary to receive some financial benefit while still keeping the death benefit intact.

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41. What is the minimum number of members required for group life insurance?

Explanation

The minimum number of members required for group life insurance is 10. Group life insurance is a type of insurance coverage that is offered to a group of people, typically employees of a company or members of an organization. By pooling together a larger number of individuals, the risk is spread out, making it more affordable for each member. Therefore, even with just 10 members, a group can qualify for group life insurance.

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42. A client missed her premium payment on her cash value policy, and the grace period has also lapsed. The policy is still in force because her insurer has been deducting the cost of the premium from her cash value. What provision allows this?

Explanation

The correct answer is Automatic premium loan. This provision allows the insurer to deduct the premium amount from the cash value of the policy to keep it in force when the client misses a payment and the grace period has lapsed. It acts as a loan against the policy's cash value to cover the premium amount, ensuring that the policy remains active even if the client fails to make the payment on time.

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43. An applicant has the right to know that the insurance company will collect certain personal information about their credit, character and reputation. The insurer may gain such information from:

Explanation

A consumer report is a document that contains information about an individual's credit, character, and reputation. This report is typically prepared by a consumer reporting agency and includes details such as credit history, employment history, and public records. Insurance companies may request and review consumer reports as part of their underwriting process to assess the risk associated with insuring an applicant. Therefore, a consumer report is a valid source from which an insurer may gain information about an applicant's credit, character, and reputation.

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44. All of the following describe differences between binding receipts and conditional receipts, Except:

Explanation

The given answer, "No claim is paid with either receipt until a policy is issued", is incorrect. Both binding receipts and conditional receipts can provide coverage before a policy is issued. The main difference between the two is that a binding receipt always provides immediate coverage from the date of the receipt, while a conditional receipt can provide coverage from the date of application once the application is later approved by underwriting. Therefore, this answer is not a difference between binding receipts and conditional receipts.

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45. All of the following needs to be included on an application for life insurance Except:

Explanation

The question asks for the item that should not be included on an application for life insurance. The correct answer is "Disability income insurance." This is because disability income insurance is a separate type of insurance that provides income replacement in the event that the insured becomes disabled and is unable to work. It is not directly related to life insurance, which provides a death benefit to beneficiaries upon the insured's death. Therefore, disability income insurance should not be included on an application for life insurance.

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46. . A partial payment of proceeds to cover final expenses is paid to someone not designated as a beneficiary but acting in a legal or fiduciary capacity. This is provided in which provision?

Explanation

Facility of Payment is a provision that allows for a partial payment of proceeds to cover final expenses to be paid to someone who is not designated as a beneficiary but is acting in a legal or fiduciary capacity. This provision ensures that the necessary funds are available to cover any outstanding expenses related to the policyholder's death, such as funeral costs or outstanding debts. It provides flexibility in distributing the proceeds and ensures that the policyholder's final expenses are taken care of.

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47. All of the following statements about assignments are Not False, Except:

Explanation

Assignments need to be filed with the insurer if notarized and filed in county records.

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48. For a flexible premium deferred annuity, the time during which the owner makes premium payments and the time before benefit payments begin is known as the:

Explanation

The correct answer is the accumulation period. In a flexible premium deferred annuity, the accumulation period refers to the time when the owner makes premium payments and the funds accumulate within the annuity account. During this period, the funds grow on a tax-deferred basis until the annuitization period begins, at which point the owner can start receiving benefit payments.

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49. Which statement best describes "agreement" as it relates to contracts?

Explanation

"One party accepts the exact terms of the other party's offer" best describes "agreement" as it relates to contracts. In order for a contract to be formed, there must be a mutual understanding and acceptance of the terms and conditions outlined in the offer. This means that one party agrees to the exact terms proposed by the other party, creating a meeting of the minds and a binding agreement. The other options mentioned in the question are also important aspects of contracts, but they do not specifically capture the concept of agreement.

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50. Which of the following becomes part of the contract, is guaranteed to be true, and if untrue, may be grounds for rescinding the policy?

Explanation

A warranty is a statement made by the insurance company that is guaranteed to be true and becomes part of the contract. If the warranty is untrue, it may be grounds for rescinding the policy. This means that if the insurance company fails to fulfill the warranty, the policyholder has the right to cancel the policy and potentially seek compensation. The other options, such as the facility of payment clause, contract of adhesion, and consideration, are important elements of an insurance contract, but they do not necessarily guarantee the truthfulness of the contract or provide grounds for rescinding the policy.

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51. An insurer invests the cash value of a fixed annuity in which of the following assets?

Explanation

The insurer invests the cash value of a fixed annuity in the general account. The general account is a pool of funds managed by the insurer, and it typically consists of a diversified portfolio of assets such as bonds, stocks, and real estate. By investing in the general account, the insurer aims to generate returns that can support the annuity payments and provide a stable and predictable income stream for policyholders.

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52. Which of the following are characteristics of renewable term?

Explanation

Renewable term insurance allows the policy owner to renew the policy at the end of the term without providing evidence of insurability. This means that the insured does not have to go through a medical examination or provide any other proof of insurability in order to continue the coverage. However, it is mentioned that the premium will increase upon renewal. This implies that the cost of the insurance will go up when the policy is renewed, which is a characteristic of renewable term insurance.

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53. Which statement is False concerning insurance company regulations?

Explanation

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54.  In comparing the purchase of individual life insurance to acquiring group life, which statement is Not True?

Explanation

The statement "Group insurance has a non-deductible premium while individual insurance has a tax deductible premium to the payor" is not true. In reality, it is the opposite. Individual insurance premiums are typically non-deductible, while premiums for group insurance are often tax deductible for the employer.

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55. Which type of insurer requires and attorney-in-fact overseen by an advisory committee of subscribers?

Explanation

A reciprocal insurer requires an attorney-in-fact overseen by an advisory committee of subscribers. In a reciprocal insurance arrangement, individuals or businesses pool their risks and agree to insure each other. The attorney-in-fact is responsible for managing the insurance operations on behalf of the subscribers, and the advisory committee provides oversight and guidance. This structure ensures that the interests of the subscribers are protected and that the insurer operates in a fair and transparent manner. Fraternal insurers, mutual insurers, and reinsurers do not typically have this specific requirement.

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56. The person who will receive the benefit of an annuity and whose life the payout is based on when the contract is purchased is called the:

Explanation

The person who will receive the benefit of an annuity and whose life the payout is based on when the contract is purchased is called the annuitant. This means that the annuity payments will be made to the annuitant for the duration of their life, and upon their death, the payments may cease or be transferred to a beneficiary. The policyowner is the person who owns the annuity contract, while the insured refers to the person whose life is being insured in a life insurance policy.

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57. A policy that pays the face amount if the insured dies before a specified date, or lives to that specified date. This best describes:

Explanation

An endowment policy is a type of insurance policy that pays out the face amount if the insured dies before a specified date or lives to that specified date. This means that regardless of whether the insured dies or survives until the specified date, the policy will pay out the face amount. Term insurance, on the other hand, only pays out if the insured dies within a specified term. Social Security and annuities are not directly related to this description.

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58. . All of the following statements about life insurance policy illustrations and the senior market are correct Except:

Explanation

The correct answer is D. The illustration will note that both guaranteed and non-guaranteed elements will remain unchanged for the years illustrated. This statement is incorrect because illustrations must clearly state that non-guaranteed elements are subject to change based on various factors such as market conditions and company performance.

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59. Premiums paid into variable annuity purchase which of the following:

Explanation

Premiums paid into variable annuities are used to purchase accumulation units. Accumulation units represent the investor's ownership in the separate account of the variable annuity. These units increase or decrease in value based on the performance of the underlying investments. The accumulation units are not immediately converted into annuity units or paid-up units, but instead, they continue to accrue until the annuitization phase begins. At that point, the accumulation units are converted into annuity units, which will determine the income payments the investor will receive.

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60. Which of the following cannot be used in a policy illustration if non-guaranteed elements are intended to pay future premiums?

Explanation

Vanishing premiums cannot be used in a policy illustration if non-guaranteed elements are intended to pay future premiums. Vanishing premiums are a feature in some life insurance policies where the policyholder stops paying premiums after a certain period of time, typically when the policy's cash value reaches a certain amount. However, since the question states that non-guaranteed elements are intended to pay future premiums, vanishing premiums cannot be used because they rely on the policy's cash value to cover future premiums, which is not guaranteed.

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61. Which of the following is Not a qualified 1035 Exchange?

Explanation

A variable annuity exchanged for a variable universal life policy is not a qualified 1035 Exchange because both the variable annuity and the variable universal life policy are considered to be similar types of investment products. In order for a 1035 Exchange to be qualified, the exchange must be made between different types of insurance policies, such as exchanging a whole life policy for a variable life policy or a variable annuity for a fixed annuity.

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62. Which statement about Reinstatement is False?

Explanation

Reinstatement does not automatically make a policy incontestable. The incontestability clause typically applies to a policy from the original issue date and not from the reinstatement date. Therefore, even if a reinstated policy has been in force for over two years, it can still be contested by the insurer if there are any misrepresentations or fraud involved.

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63. Which statement is Not True about insurance sales?

Explanation

The statement "Brokers represent insures in negotiating coverage with various insureds" is not true about insurance sales. Brokers actually represent insureds (policyholders) in negotiating coverage with various insurers. They act as intermediaries between the insureds and the insurance companies, helping the insureds find the best coverage and negotiate favorable terms.

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64. In which type of policy does the insurer apply Flexible Premium to pay for the cost of insurance and expenses and then uses the remaining balance plus interest to build the cash value account?

Explanation

Universal Life insurance is a type of policy where the insurer applies a flexible premium to pay for the cost of insurance and expenses. The remaining balance, along with interest, is then used to build the cash value account. This means that the policyholder has the option to adjust their premium payments and the death benefit amount as needed. This flexibility allows for potential growth of the cash value over time, making Universal Life insurance a popular choice for those who want both insurance coverage and a savings component.

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65. Which statement below is Least Correct regarding the type of insurance that fits best with the applicant's needs?

Explanation

The statement "Convertible term can be purchased by applicants who may require a larger death benefit in the future" is the least correct because convertible term insurance allows the policyholder to convert their policy into a permanent life insurance policy, not necessarily to increase the death benefit. The purpose of convertible term insurance is to provide flexibility for the policyholder to change their coverage to better suit their needs, not specifically to increase the death benefit.

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66. In life insurance, beneficiary succession is the method used to determine who will receive death proceeds. If the primary beneficiary is not living upon the death of the insured who will receive the payment?

Explanation

When the primary beneficiary of a life insurance policy is not alive at the time of the insured's death, the payment will go to the contingent beneficiary. The contingent beneficiary is named as a backup option in case the primary beneficiary is unable to receive the death proceeds. This ensures that the money is still distributed according to the insured's wishes and does not go to a third party or remain unclaimed.

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67. Which of the following statements is False in regard to a Life Paid-Up at 65 Whole Life policy?

Explanation

A Life Paid-Up at 65 Whole Life policy is a type of insurance policy where premium payments stop at age 65, and the policy remains in force until the death of the insured or age 100, whichever occurs first. Unlike a straight whole life policy, the premium payments for a Life Paid-Up at 65 policy are typically higher because they are condensed into a shorter period of time. However, this type of policy does not endow at age 65, meaning there is no cash value or payout at that age. Therefore, the statement "The policy will endow at age 65" is false.

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68. All of the following statements are True about participating and non-participating policies, Except:

Explanation

Participating policies allow policy owners to share in a mutual company's divisible surplus through dividends. Non-participating policies, on the other hand, do not issue dividends to policy owners. Instead, they may issue dividends to shareholders or may not issue any dividends at all. Therefore, the statement "Non-participating policies issue dividends to policy owners" is not true.

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69. Which of the following is Not Excluded from the California Life and Annuity Replacement Law?

Explanation

The California Life and Annuity Replacement Law excludes the purchase of a new policy that will take the place of an existing policy. This means that if someone wants to replace their current policy with a new one, they are not exempt from the regulations and requirements set forth by the law. The other options, such as purchasing credit life insurance for a second home, purchasing group life insurance from a part-time employer, and converting a convertible term policy to whole life insurance, are not mentioned as being excluded from the law.

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70. Which of the following is considered Ordinary insurance?

Explanation

Mortgage redemption is considered ordinary insurance because it is a type of insurance policy that protects the lender in case the borrower is unable to repay the mortgage loan. It is a common type of insurance that is often required by lenders when granting a mortgage loan. This insurance provides financial protection to the lender in the event of default by the borrower, ensuring that the mortgage loan will be repaid. Unlike the other options listed, such as renewable term insurance, blanket policies, and whole life insurance, mortgage redemption insurance specifically deals with protecting the lender's interest in a mortgage loan.

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71. Which of the following riders would provide for an insured to increase the face amount of their life insurance policy without proof of insurability?

Explanation

The Guarantee insurability/future purchase option rider allows the insured to increase the face amount of their life insurance policy without having to provide proof of insurability. This means that the insured can increase their coverage in the future without having to go through the underwriting process again, regardless of any changes in their health or other risk factors. This rider provides flexibility and ensures that the insured can adjust their coverage as their needs change, without the risk of being denied coverage or facing higher premiums.

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72. Profit sharing plans:

Explanation

Profit sharing plans allow for a contribution of a specified proportion of company profits. This means that a certain percentage of the company's profits will be set aside and distributed among employees as part of their compensation. Unlike fixed liabilities, which are predetermined expenses that must be paid by the business, profit sharing plans are not fixed and can vary based on the company's profits. Additionally, profit sharing plans do not necessarily prevent the use of other retirement programs, as they can be used in conjunction with other forms of employee benefits.

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73. What Nonforfeiture Option allows a policy owner to use existing cash value to purchase a policy of the same face amount as the original policy but for a reduced amount of time?

Explanation

Extended term insurance is the correct answer because it allows a policy owner to use the existing cash value to purchase a policy of the same face amount as the original policy but for a reduced amount of time. This means that the policy owner can continue to have coverage, albeit for a shorter period, without having to pay any additional premiums. This option is useful for policy owners who may not be able to afford the premiums for the full term of the policy but still want to maintain some level of coverage.

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74. Which of the following statements is Not included in the Entire Contract Clause?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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75. While collecting underwriting information, certain rules must be followed. Which of the following is Incorrect?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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Profit sharing plans:
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While collecting underwriting information, certain rules must be...
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