# Esc And TSO/ ISPF

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Ngopinath86
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Questions: 45 | Attempts: 829

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• 1.

### The address space provided for each and every user for 16MB is

• A.

23 bit

• B.

31 bit

• C.

24 bit

• D.

33 bit

C. 24 bit
Explanation
The address space provided for each and every user for 16MB is 24 bits. This means that each user is allocated a unique address range within the 16MB memory space. With 24 bits, it is possible to represent 2^24 different addresses, which is sufficient to cover the entire 16MB address space.

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• 2.

### Which of the following bits represent page index(PX) in virtual address

• A.

13-19

• B.

1-12

• C.

12-19

• D.

20-31

C. 12-19
Explanation
The bits 12-19 represent the page index (PX) in the virtual address. This means that these bits determine the specific page within the virtual memory that the address is referring to. The page index is used to locate the corresponding physical page in the memory, allowing for efficient memory management and retrieval of data.

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• 3.

### While editing a ps or a member of pds what is the procedure of knowing the editor’s id

• A.

Show id

• B.

Display id

• C.

Who

• D.

None of the above

C. Who
Explanation
The "Who" command is used to display the editor's ID while editing a PS or a member of PDS. This command provides information about the user who is currently editing the file, allowing others to know the editor's ID.

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• 4.

### The output of a superc can be produced by the following modes(choose 2)

• A.

Edit

• B.

View

• C.

Browse

• D.

Execute

• E.

Run

B. View
C. Browse
Explanation
The output of a superc can be produced by the "view" and "browse" modes. These modes allow the user to access and examine the content of the superc, either for viewing purposes or for browsing through different sections or elements. The other options, such as "edit," "execute," and "run," are not mentioned as modes that can generate the output of a superc.

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• 5.

### i/o Device address is –

• A.

8 bit long

• B.

16 bit long

• C.

32 bit long

• D.

64 bit long

B. 16 bit long
Explanation
The correct answer is 16 bit long. This means that the i/o device address is represented by a 16-bit binary number. The length of the address determines the range of addresses that can be assigned to different devices. With a 16-bit address, there can be a maximum of 2^16 or 65,536 unique addresses. This allows for a larger number of devices to be connected and addressed in the system compared to shorter address lengths.

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• 6.

### Instruction interpretation is done by

• A.

Cp

• B.

Cpc

• C.

Channel program

• D.

None of the above

A. Cp
Explanation
The correct answer is "cp". In the context of the question, "cp" refers to the command used in computer programming to copy files or directories. It is used to create an identical copy of a file or directory in a different location. This command is commonly used in various operating systems and is a fundamental tool for managing files and directories.

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• 7.

### Jes is essential subsystem because

• A.

Jes submits each job

• B.

Once jes is closed,it must be run...

• C.

Jes manages batch jobs for mvs

• D.

B. Once jes is closed,it must be run...
Explanation
JES (Job Entry Subsystem) is an essential subsystem because once it is closed, it must be run again to ensure that all the batch jobs in the system are properly managed. JES is responsible for submitting each job and reading it into the system, making it a crucial component for managing batch jobs in MVS (Multiple Virtual Storage) systems.

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• 8.

### Transaction services provides application services in the form of programs that implement

• A.

Distributed processing alone

• B.

Management services alone

• C.

Both a and b

• D.

None of the above

C. Both a and b
Explanation
Transaction services provide application services in the form of programs that implement both distributed processing and management services. This means that transaction services not only handle distributed processing, which involves executing tasks across multiple computers, but also provide management services, which involve overseeing and controlling the execution of these tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is both a and b.

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• 9.

### Expand LSPR

• A.

Large Source Parallel Relocation

• B.

Large System Perfective Reference

• C.

Large System Performance Reference

• D.

Large Source Parallel Reference

C. Large System Performance Reference
Explanation
LSPR stands for Large System Performance Reference. This refers to a benchmark or reference point used to measure the performance of large systems. It provides a standard against which the performance of a system can be compared and evaluated.

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• 10.

### Main frame hold approximately _______of entire data stored in the planet

• A.

60

• B.

80

• C.

70

• D.

100

C. 70
Explanation
The correct answer is 70 because mainframes are large and powerful computers that are designed to handle and process massive amounts of data. They are commonly used in industries such as banking, government, and healthcare, where large volumes of data need to be stored and processed efficiently. While it is difficult to determine the exact percentage of data stored in mainframes, it is estimated that mainframes hold a significant portion, around 70%, of the entire data stored on the planet.

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• 11.

### Which add to the difficulty of managing loosely coupled configuration?

• A.

Control Units

• B.

Resource Serialization

• C.

Communication Mechanism

• D.

Collection of Applications

C. Communication Mechanism
Explanation
The correct answer is Communication Mechanism. Communication mechanisms refer to the methods or protocols used for exchanging information between loosely coupled components or systems. In a loosely coupled configuration, where components are independent and can operate autonomously, managing communication between these components can be challenging. This includes ensuring reliable and efficient data transfer, handling different communication protocols, managing message formats, and addressing any potential issues or conflicts that may arise during communication. Therefore, the communication mechanism adds to the difficulty of managing loosely coupled configuration.

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• 12.

### Expand OLTP.

• A.

• B.

Object Linear Transaction Processing

• C.

Online Transmission Processing

• D.

Online Transaction Processing

D. Online Transaction Processing
Explanation
OLTP stands for Online Transaction Processing. This refers to a system that is designed to process and manage a large number of transactions in real-time. It is commonly used in databases and financial systems where immediate and accurate processing of transactions is crucial. OLTP systems are optimized for high-speed data entry and retrieval, ensuring that transactions can be processed quickly and efficiently. This allows businesses to handle a large volume of transactions simultaneously, providing a seamless and responsive user experience.

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• 13.

### What Is Sysplex?

• A.

Collection of MVS Systems

• B.

Collection of Mainframe.

• C.

Collection of Application

• D.

Collection of Users

A. Collection of MVS Systems
Explanation
Sysplex refers to a collection of MVS (Multiple Virtual Storage) systems. MVS is an operating system used on IBM mainframe computers. A Sysplex allows multiple MVS systems to work together as a single system, providing high availability, scalability, and workload balancing. It enables applications and resources to be shared across the systems, allowing for increased efficiency and improved performance. Therefore, the correct answer is "Collection of MVS Systems."

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• 14.

### MDF enables the system resources to be logically partitioned up to _____ logical processing systems or domains.

• A.

8

• B.

20

• C.

15

• D.

10

C. 15
Explanation
MDF, or Multi-Domain Facility, allows for the logical partitioning of system resources into separate processing systems or domains. This means that a single system can be divided into multiple independent units, each with its own resources and capabilities. The correct answer is 15, indicating that MDF can enable the system resources to be logically partitioned up to 15 logical processing systems or domains.

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• 15.

### ______ implements multiuser and multiprogramming facilities.

• A.

IMS/DC

• B.

DL/I

• C.

IMS TM

• D.

IMS Hierarchical

A. IMS/DC
Explanation
IMS/DC implements multiuser and multiprogramming facilities. IMS/DC stands for Information Management System/Data Communications, and it is a transaction management and messaging system developed by IBM. It allows multiple users to access and update data simultaneously, making it suitable for multiuser environments. Additionally, it supports multiprogramming, which means it can handle multiple tasks or programs concurrently. IMS/DC is designed to facilitate communication between applications and users, and it provides features like message queuing, data integrity, and security.

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• 16.

### RACF is a subsystem of MVS.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
RACF is not a subsystem of MVS. MVS (Multiple Virtual Storage) is an operating system used on IBM mainframe computers, while RACF (Resource Access Control Facility) is a security management system used to control access to resources within an MVS environment. While RACF is often used in conjunction with MVS, it is not a subsystem of MVS itself. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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• 17.

### Initiator has only one job class in it.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
The statement is false because the initiator can have multiple job classes within it.

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• 18.

### Multiple Choice Exam is an example for

• A.

Batch Processing

• B.

Online Processing

• C.

Transaction

• D.

Database Processing

A. Batch Processing
Explanation
Batch processing is a type of processing where a group of similar tasks or transactions are collected and processed together as a batch. In the case of a multiple-choice exam, the exam papers of all the students are collected and processed together in batches. The answer sheets are scanned or manually graded in batches, and the results are generated once the entire batch is processed. This approach is efficient for handling large volumes of data or tasks that can be processed in a non-real-time manner.

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• 19.

### The customer calls to change customer’s address in customer care system is example for

• A.

Data Architecture

• B.

Data Replication

• C.

• D.

Service Oriented Architecture

B. Data Replication
Explanation
The customer calling to change their address in the customer care system is an example of data replication. Data replication refers to the process of copying data from one location to another, ensuring that the information is consistent across multiple systems. In this case, the customer's address is being updated in the customer care system, which means that the new address data is being replicated from the customer's call to the system.

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• 20.

### Messaging is the best gateway to enterprise system integration in many respects.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Messaging is considered the best gateway to enterprise system integration due to several reasons. Firstly, messaging allows for asynchronous communication between different systems, enabling them to exchange data and information without being dependent on each other's availability. This promotes loose coupling and flexibility in integrating various systems. Additionally, messaging supports reliable and scalable communication, ensuring that messages are delivered and processed efficiently even in high-volume scenarios. Moreover, messaging provides features like message queuing, routing, and transformation, which facilitate the seamless integration of diverse systems and technologies. Overall, messaging offers a robust and efficient approach to enterprise system integration.

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• 21.

### IPCS is

• A.

Inter Problem Communication System

• B.

Interactive Problem Control System

• C.

Interactive Problem Communication System

• D.

Interactive Personnel Control System

B. Interactive Problem Control System
Explanation
IPCS stands for Interactive Problem Control System. This system allows users to interactively control and manage problems or issues. It provides a platform for communication and collaboration among individuals involved in problem-solving processes. The term "interactive" suggests that users can actively engage and participate in problem control activities. The term "problem control" implies that the system helps in monitoring, analyzing, and resolving problems effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is "Interactive Problem Control System".

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• 22.

### Dumps Analysis and Elimination functions for (choose two)

• A.

SVC Dump

• B.

SYSMDUMP

• C.

STAND-ALONE

• D.

SYSABEND

A. SVC Dump
B. SYSMDUMP
Explanation
The correct answer is SVC Dump and SYSMDUMP. These two functions, SVC Dump and SYSMDUMP, are used for analysis and elimination of dumps. SVC Dump is used to analyze and eliminate dumps related to SVC (Supervisor Call) instructions, while SYSMDUMP is used for analysis and elimination of system dumps. Both functions are important in identifying and resolving issues or errors in the system.

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• 23.

### PCOM key Configuration parameters are(choose that are correct)

• A.

Session type

• B.

Communication network

• C.

• D.

Size of dataset

A. Session type
Explanation
The correct answer is Session type and IP address. These are the key configuration parameters for PCOM. Session type refers to the type of connection established between the PCOM client and the host system, such as Telnet or SSH. IP address is the unique identifier assigned to each device connected to a network, and it is necessary for establishing a connection between the PCOM client and the host system. The other options, Communication network and Size of dataset, are not directly related to PCOM key configuration parameters.

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• 24.

### Where the ZCSR will be located if cursor is in out of data area.

• A.

Last line

• B.

First line

• C.

The line at which cursor is presented

• D.

None of the above

B. First line
Explanation
If the cursor is located in the out of data area, the ZCSR (Zero Condition Select Register) will be located at the first line. This means that when the cursor is not within the data area, the ZCSR will be positioned at the beginning of the document or file.

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• 25.

### Which command used to locate the 34th line of dataset

• A.

LNO 34

• B.

LNO 34

• C.

L 34

• D.

LOCATION 34

C. L 34
Explanation
The command "L 34" is used to locate the 34th line of a dataset.

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• 26.

### In DSLIST search criteria which  character is used for single length

• A.

&

• B.

%

• C.

-

• D.

*

• E.

None of the above

B. %
Explanation
The correct answer is "%". In DSLIST search criteria, the "%" character is used to represent a single length wildcard. This means that it can match any single character in the search criteria. For example, if we use "%ABC" as the search criteria, it will match any member that starts with any single character followed by "ABC".

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• 27.

### Which command used to filter the job in input queue which displays jobs in classes A and C that are held

• A.

IAC H

• B.

ACH I

• C.

IH A&C

• D.

IH AC

A. IAC H
Explanation
The command "IAC H" is the correct answer because it filters the job in the input queue to display only the jobs in classes A and C that are held.

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• 28.

### Full form of SAFF

• A.

• B.

• C.

System affinity

• D.

Search affinity

C. System affinity
• 29.

• A.

.

• B.

.

• C.

.

• D.

.

A. .
• 30.

### Which line command is used in spool to cancel and purge the job

• A.

C

• B.

P

• C.

Cp

• D.

O

B. P
Explanation
The correct answer is "p". In spool, the "p" command is used to cancel and purge a job. This command allows the user to remove a job from the spool queue, effectively canceling and deleting it.

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• 31.

### Which picture characters display non displayable chars while FIND command issue

• A.

~

• B.

.

• C.

=

• D.

-

• E.

#

B. .
Explanation
The picture character "." is the correct answer because it is a non-displayable character that can be displayed while using the FIND command.

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• 32.

### Which command is used to show most significant line of the excluded line

• A.

S

• B.

X

• C.

F

• D.

L

A. S
Explanation
The command "s" is used to show the most significant line of the excluded line.

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• 33.

### SuperC compare between of which kind of files

• A.

Source code

• B.

JCL pgms

• C.

Dat stes

• D.

All of the above

• E.

None of the above

D. All of the above
Explanation
SuperC compares between all of the above kinds of files, which include source code, JCL programs, and data sets. This means that SuperC can be used to compare and analyze different types of files, making it a versatile tool for developers and programmers.

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• 34.

### Which of the following is used to save in the view mode

• A.

Save in view mode is not possible

• B.

Use REPLACE command and save with the save name

• C.

Use block command CC & CC and save option

• D.

Use cut and paste

B. Use REPLACE command and save with the save name
• 35.

### In which edit mode  is it possible to modify a content of a document without the risk of automatically saving the changes?

• A.

Browse

• B.

View

• C.

Edit

• D.

None of the above

B. View
Explanation
In the "View" edit mode, it is possible to modify the content of a document without the risk of automatically saving the changes. This mode allows users to make temporary edits or view the document without permanently altering its content.

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• 36.

### Which of the following EDIT  line commands can be used to shift the positions of data in a PDS-

• A.

||

• B.

> ->---

• C.

}}

• D.

]]

• E.

))----

E. ))----
Explanation
The correct answer is ")))----". This command can be used to shift the positions of data in a PDS (Partitioned Data Set).

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• 37.

### In a same edit panel, needs to x no. of lines from the beginning, y no. of lines somewhere in the middle. How to accomplish this in one shot

• A.

Exclude all the lines to be cut and give CUT X ALL command in the command line then paste.

• B.

Do cut those lines in 2 times and paste

• C.

CUT and then CUT APPEND, then will paste

• D.

Give CC CC and CC CC again and CUT

C. CUT and then CUT APPEND, then will paste
• 38.

### Full form of PRPQ1

• A.

Price request for programming quotation

• B.

Programming request for price quotation

• C.

Product request price quotation

• D.

Presentation request for programming quotation

B. Programming request for price quotation
Explanation
The correct answer is "Programming request for price quotation." This is because the acronym "PRPQ1" stands for "Programming Request for Price Quotation." The other options do not match the given acronym.

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• 39.

### Adapter used to connect micro channel based PC to mainframe parallel channel

• A.

PCSA

• B.

PSCA

• C.

PSCP

• D.

PS/CICS

B. PSCA
Explanation
The correct answer is PSCA because PSCA stands for Parallel System Channel Adapter, which is used to connect a micro channel based PC to a mainframe parallel channel. This adapter allows the PC to communicate with the mainframe and access resources on the mainframe system.

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• 40.

### The Execution modes of 3.12

• A.

Foreground

• B.

Intermediate

• C.

Ongoing

• D.

Background

• E.

Batch

A. Foreground
E. Batch
Explanation
The given answer is correct because it includes both the Foreground and Batch execution modes. Foreground execution mode refers to the immediate execution of a task or process, where the user interacts with it directly. On the other hand, Batch execution mode refers to the execution of a task or process without any user interaction, usually scheduled to run at a specific time or when system resources are available. Therefore, the answer covers both immediate user interaction and scheduled execution modes.

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• 41.

### Which is not possible in SuperC utility

• A.

Compare 2 PS files

• B.

Compare 2 PDS files

• C.

Compare 2 members in same PDS

• D.

Compare 2 VSAM ESDS files

D. Compare 2 VSAM ESDS files
• 42.

### Consider the following for TSO/ISPF  ver 5.8. You are in a edit session, and you select the data set     choice from the utilities pull down on the edit panel action bar – which of the following happens ?

• A.

ISPF suspend your edit session and display the Dataset utility.

• B.

ISPF ends your edit session before taking you to the Dataset utility panel.

• C.

ISPF ends your edit session and will not allow you to go to the Dataset utility panel.

• D.

ISPF suspend your edit session and wait for user action.

A. ISPF suspend your edit session and display the Dataset utility.
Explanation
When you select the data set choice from the utilities pull down on the edit panel action bar in TSO/ISPF ver 5.8, ISPF will suspend your edit session and display the Dataset utility. This means that your current edit session will be temporarily paused, allowing you to access and perform actions within the Dataset utility. Once you are done with the Dataset utility, you can resume your edit session.

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• 43.

### SAR means

• A.

Segmentation and reassembly

• B.

System analyze and recovery

• C.

Segment and reference

• D.

System and reuse

A. Segmentation and reassembly
Explanation
SAR stands for segmentation and reassembly. This term refers to the process of breaking down data packets into smaller segments for transmission and then reassembling them at the receiving end. This technique is commonly used in network protocols to ensure efficient data transfer and error recovery.

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• 44.

### National characters are allowed as first character of dataset member name

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because in most programming languages, including datasets in mainframe systems, national characters (such as letters with accents or diacritical marks) are allowed as the first character of a dataset member name. This allows for more flexibility and inclusivity when naming dataset members.

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• 45.

• A.

True

• B.

False