Review Quiz: Air Quality And Environment! Hardest Trivia

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1. What formula represents the ideal gas law?

Explanation

The ideal gas law is represented by the formula PV=nRT. This formula states that the pressure (P) multiplied by the volume (V) of a gas is equal to the number of moles (n) of the gas multiplied by the ideal gas constant (R) and the temperature (T) in Kelvin. This equation is used to describe the behavior of an ideal gas under various conditions, allowing for calculations of pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles.

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About This Quiz
Review Quiz: Air Quality And Environment! Hardest Trivia - Quiz

This exam was offered as part of A&WMA's online course, "GENAQ-100E: Environmental Practices Review Specialty Course: Air Quality" in 2008.

2. Most household cleaning products and paints contain:

Explanation

Volatile organic compounds (VOCs) are commonly found in household cleaning products and paints. VOCs are carbon-based chemicals that easily evaporate at room temperature, releasing harmful pollutants into the air. These compounds can contribute to indoor air pollution and have been linked to various health issues such as respiratory problems, headaches, and allergic reactions. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the presence of VOCs in these products and opt for low VOC or VOC-free alternatives whenever possible.

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3. The inlet temperature to a baghouse needs to be above the dewpoint to prevent blinding the bags by condensing moisture in the gas. 

Explanation

To prevent blinding the bags in a baghouse, the inlet temperature needs to be above the dewpoint. This is because if the temperature of the gas entering the baghouse drops below the dewpoint, moisture in the gas will condense and form droplets. These droplets can then accumulate on the bags, causing them to become clogged or blinded. By maintaining an inlet temperature above the dewpoint, the moisture in the gas remains in a gaseous state and does not condense, preventing blinding of the bags. Therefore, the statement "The inlet temperature to a baghouse needs to be above the dewpoint to prevent blinding the bags by condensing moisture in the gas" is true.

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4. The PM-2.5 sampling refers to:

Explanation

The PM-2.5 sampling refers to particulate matter that has a size smaller than 2.5 microns. This means that it includes particles that are smaller than 2.5 microns in diameter, such as fine dust, smoke, and other pollutants. These particles are small enough to be inhaled into the respiratory system and can have harmful effects on human health. Monitoring and measuring PM-2.5 levels is important for assessing air quality and understanding the potential risks associated with exposure to these fine particles.

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5. Most risk assessments values derived for exposure hazardous wastes and materials are given in terms of:

Explanation

The correct answer is cancer risks. Risk assessments for exposure to hazardous wastes and materials typically focus on evaluating the potential for developing cancer as a result of exposure. This is because certain chemicals and substances have been identified as carcinogens, meaning they have the potential to cause cancer. Assessing the risk of cancer helps determine the level of danger associated with exposure to these hazardous materials and allows for appropriate measures to be taken to minimize the risk.

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6. Which of the following is not a chronic health effect?

Explanation

Immediate exposure is not a chronic health effect because it refers to a single instance of exposure to a harmful substance or condition. Chronic health effects, on the other hand, develop over a long period of time and are typically associated with prolonged or repeated exposure to certain factors. Genetic damage, degenerative illness, and mercury build-up are examples of chronic health effects as they can occur over time due to ongoing exposure or accumulation of harmful substances or conditions.

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7. Air is a non-homogeneous mixture of gases, solid particles and liquids.

Explanation

Air is considered a non-homogeneous mixture because it is composed of various gases, such as nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and trace amounts of other gases. Additionally, air can contain solid particles, such as dust, pollen, and pollutants, as well as liquid droplets, like water vapor. These components are not uniformly distributed throughout the air, leading to its non-homogeneous nature. Therefore, the statement that air is a non-homogeneous mixture is correct.

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8. The above collectors are arranged in:

Explanation

The above collectors are arranged in series. This means that the collectors are connected end to end, with the output of one collector connected to the input of the next collector. In a series arrangement, the total voltage across the collectors is equal to the sum of the individual collector voltages.

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9. Which type of inventory can be considered the most reliable?

Explanation

A point source of inventory can be considered the most reliable because it refers to a specific and identifiable location where emissions or releases occur. This makes it easier to monitor and control the inventory, ensuring accurate and consistent data. In contrast, mobile sources refer to emissions from vehicles that are constantly moving, making it more challenging to track and measure their emissions accurately. Area sources and natural sources are also less reliable as they represent broader areas or natural processes, which can be difficult to quantify and monitor accurately.

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10. Most carbon monoxide deaths are caused by faulty heating systems

Explanation

Faulty heating systems can release carbon monoxide, which is a colorless and odorless gas that can be deadly when inhaled. Carbon monoxide poisoning can occur when there is incomplete combustion of fuels such as gas, oil, or coal. Faulty heating systems can produce high levels of carbon monoxide, leading to poisoning and potentially death if not detected and addressed in a timely manner. Therefore, it is true that most carbon monoxide deaths are caused by faulty heating systems.

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11. Which of the following is not a common exposure route for environmental contaminants:

Explanation

Injection is not a common exposure route for environmental contaminants because it refers to the introduction of substances directly into the body through a needle or syringe. This method of exposure is typically associated with medical procedures, drug use, or accidental needle sticks, rather than the typical routes of exposure to environmental contaminants. The other three options - inhalation, ingestion of food, and ingestion of water - are more common routes through which environmental contaminants can enter the body.

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12. In the stack sampling process, isokinetic sampling is needed when sampling for:

Explanation

Isokinetic sampling is needed when sampling for particulates because it ensures that the velocity of the gas stream carrying the particulates is equal to the velocity at which the sample is collected. This is important because it helps to prevent bias in the sampling process and ensures that the collected sample is representative of the actual particulate concentration in the gas stream.

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13. What gas is most responsible for forming acidic precipitation?

Explanation

SO2, or sulfur dioxide, is the gas most responsible for forming acidic precipitation. When SO2 is released into the atmosphere from sources such as burning fossil fuels, it reacts with oxygen and other compounds to form sulfuric acid. This sulfuric acid then combines with water vapor in the atmosphere to form sulfuric acid droplets, which are a major component of acid rain. Acidic precipitation can have harmful effects on the environment, including damaging forests, lakes, and buildings.

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14. The attractive forces that hold a gas to the surface of a solid are known as:

Explanation

Van der Waals forces are the attractive forces that hold a gas to the surface of a solid. These forces arise due to temporary fluctuations in electron distribution within molecules, resulting in temporary dipoles. These temporary dipoles induce opposite charges in neighboring molecules, creating attractive forces between them. Van der Waals forces are relatively weak compared to other types of chemical bonds, but they play a significant role in various phenomena, such as the condensation of gases into liquids and the adsorption of gases onto solid surfaces.

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15. Indoor air quality is strongly affected by:

Explanation

The number of air changes per hour is a key factor that strongly affects indoor air quality. Air changes refer to the number of times the air in a space is replaced with fresh air within an hour. A higher number of air changes per hour means that there is a greater amount of fresh air entering the space, helping to remove pollutants and improve air quality. On the other hand, a lower number of air changes can lead to a buildup of pollutants and decrease indoor air quality. Therefore, it is important to have an adequate ventilation system in place to ensure a sufficient number of air changes per hour.

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16. The portion of the atmosphere closest to the earth is called the:

Explanation

The troposphere is the layer of the atmosphere closest to the Earth's surface. It extends from the surface up to about 10 kilometers (6.2 miles) in altitude. This is where weather occurs and where most of the Earth's air mass is concentrated. The troposphere is characterized by decreasing temperature with increasing altitude, and it contains the majority of the Earth's clouds and weather systems.

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17. Generally the higher the combustion temperature the greater amount of NOx is formed.

Explanation

This statement is true because when the combustion temperature is higher, it causes nitrogen and oxygen in the air to react and form nitrogen oxides (NOx). NOx is a harmful pollutant that contributes to air pollution and can have negative effects on human health and the environment. Therefore, it is correct to say that the higher the combustion temperature, the greater amount of NOx is formed.

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18. The principal commercial adsorbent used for the adsorption of organic vapors is:

Explanation

Carbon is the principal commercial adsorbent used for the adsorption of organic vapors because it has a high surface area and can effectively adsorb a wide range of organic compounds. It is a highly porous material with a large number of micropores, which provide a large surface area for adsorption. Carbon also has a high adsorption capacity and can remove organic contaminants from air or liquids. Additionally, carbon is cost-effective, readily available, and can be regenerated for reuse, making it a preferred choice for commercial adsorption applications.

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19. A packed countercurrent flow absorber is more efficient than a spray tower because:

Explanation

In a packed countercurrent flow absorber, the gas and liquid flow in opposite directions, allowing for a greater contact area between them. This increases the gas-liquid interfacial area, which enhances the mass transfer between the two phases and improves the efficiency of the absorber. The other options mentioned, such as increased pressure drop, larger tank diameter, and increased tower height, do not directly contribute to the efficiency of the absorber in the same way as increasing the gas-liquid interfacial area.

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20. Which of the following is not a criteria pollutant:

Explanation

Formaldehyde is not considered a criteria pollutant. Criteria pollutants are six common air pollutants regulated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) due to their adverse effects on human health and the environment. These pollutants include carbon monoxide, lead, total suspended particulate matter, and PM-10 (particulate matter with a diameter of 10 micrometers or less). However, formaldehyde is not included in this list. While formaldehyde can be harmful at high concentrations, it is not classified as a criteria pollutant by the EPA.

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21. If a certified Method 9 observer reads 75% opacity, how much light transmission can be seen through the plume?

Explanation

If a certified Method 9 observer reads 75% opacity, it means that 75% of the light is blocked or obscured by the plume. Therefore, only 25% of the light transmission can be seen through the plume.

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22. What is a flue gas treatement process that can be used to reduce NOx in a combustion unit:

Explanation

Selective catalytic reduction (SCR) is a flue gas treatment process that can be used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) in a combustion unit. It involves the injection of a reductant, such as ammonia or urea, into the flue gas stream. The flue gas containing NOx is then passed over a catalyst, where a chemical reaction occurs between the NOx and the reductant. This reaction converts the NOx into nitrogen and water vapor, reducing the emissions of harmful pollutants. SCR is a widely used and effective method for reducing NOx emissions in industrial processes and power plants.

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23. What two pollutants are responsible for ozone formation in the lower atmosphere?

Explanation

NOx (nitrogen oxides) and VOCs (volatile organic compounds) are two pollutants that are responsible for ozone formation in the lower atmosphere. When NOx and VOCs are released into the air, they can react with sunlight to form ground-level ozone. NOx is primarily emitted from vehicles, power plants, and industrial sources, while VOCs can come from various sources such as gasoline, solvents, and certain industrial processes. These pollutants undergo a series of chemical reactions in the presence of sunlight to produce ozone, which can have harmful effects on human health and the environment.

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24. Particulate matter is either a solid or a liquid during standard atmospheric conditions.

Explanation

Particulate matter refers to tiny particles suspended in the air, such as dust, smoke, and soot. These particles can be either solid or liquid, depending on their composition and size. Under standard atmospheric conditions, which include normal temperature and pressure levels, particulate matter can exist in both solid and liquid forms. Therefore, the statement that particulate matter is either a solid or a liquid during standard atmospheric conditions is true.

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25. When studying the absorption of light gases, what law is uesed to relate the amount of light absorbed to the concentration of the gas?

Explanation

The Beer-Lambert Law is used to relate the amount of light absorbed to the concentration of the gas when studying the absorption of light gases. This law states that the absorbance of a sample is directly proportional to the concentration of the absorbing substance and the path length of the light through the sample. It is commonly used in spectroscopy to determine the concentration of a substance in a solution by measuring the absorbance of light at a specific wavelength.

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26. Which of the following is not a secondary pollutant:

Explanation

SO2 is not a secondary pollutant because it is directly emitted into the atmosphere from sources such as industrial processes and burning fossil fuels. Secondary pollutants, on the other hand, are formed in the atmosphere through chemical reactions involving primary pollutants. Nitrates, ozone, and sulfates are examples of secondary pollutants that are formed through reactions involving other pollutants like nitrogen oxides, volatile organic compounds, and sulfur dioxide.

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27. In the absorption process you have the transfer of a gaseous component from the gas phase to the liquid phase.

Explanation

The absorption process refers to the transfer of a gaseous component from the gas phase to the liquid phase. This means that the gas is being taken in or dissolved by the liquid. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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28. Opacity monitors are typically:

Explanation

In-situ monitors are the correct answer because they are designed to measure the opacity of emissions directly at the source, without the need for sample extraction or transport. These monitors are placed directly in the stack or duct where the emissions are being released, allowing for real-time and accurate measurements. Extractive monitors, on the other hand, require the extraction of a sample from the stack and its transport to a separate location for analysis. Remote monitors are used to measure opacity from a distance, often through the use of cameras or other optical devices.

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29. A coal fired boiler is controlled by a spray dryer, a baghouse, and SCR.  Match the pollutant with the control device used:
SOx
NOx
Particulate

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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30. Which of the following inventories is not needed in conducting an ozone model?

Explanation

The toxic release inventory is not needed in conducting an ozone model because it refers to a database that tracks the release of toxic chemicals by certain industries. While this information may be relevant for other purposes, it is not directly related to the formation or behavior of ozone. The other inventories listed, such as mobile sources, biogenic, and point source, are more directly related to the factors that contribute to ozone formation and can help in modeling its behavior.

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31. What is the typical pH of natural rainfall?

Explanation

The typical pH of natural rainfall is 5.5. Rainfall is naturally slightly acidic due to the presence of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which forms carbonic acid when dissolved in water. This acidity can vary depending on factors such as pollution and geographical location. A pH of 5.5 indicates a slightly acidic condition, but it is still close to neutral on the pH scale.

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32. The smallest particle size collected at 100% efficiency in a cyclone is known as:

Explanation

The correct answer is critical size. In a cyclone, the critical size refers to the smallest particle size that can be collected with 100% efficiency. This means that any particles smaller than the critical size will not be collected by the cyclone. The critical size is an important parameter to consider when designing and operating cyclones for particle separation and collection.

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33. The type of flow in a stack is defined by:

Explanation

The Reynolds number is used to determine the type of flow in a stack. It is a dimensionless quantity that relates the inertial forces to the viscous forces in a fluid flow. It helps to classify flow as laminar or turbulent. Laminar flow occurs at low Reynolds numbers and is characterized by smooth and orderly flow. Turbulent flow occurs at high Reynolds numbers and is characterized by chaotic and irregular flow patterns. Therefore, the Reynolds number is used to define the type of flow in a stack.

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34. In air pollution applications, chemical adsorption is preferable to physical adsorption.

Explanation

Chemical adsorption is not preferable to physical adsorption in air pollution applications. Physical adsorption involves the physical attraction of pollutants to a solid surface, while chemical adsorption involves the formation of chemical bonds between the pollutants and the adsorbent material. In air pollution applications, physical adsorption is generally preferred because it is more reversible and allows for easier regeneration of the adsorbent material. Chemical adsorption, on the other hand, is more difficult to reverse and requires more energy-intensive processes for regeneration. Therefore, the statement is false.

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35. Which of the following would not be a fugitive emission?

Explanation

Baghouse exhaust would not be a fugitive emission because it is a controlled emission that is captured and collected by a baghouse system. Fugitive emissions refer to the release of pollutants into the atmosphere that are not properly controlled or contained, such as open burning, road dust, or building vents. Baghouse exhaust, on the other hand, is a controlled emission that goes through a filtration process, ensuring that the pollutants are captured and not released into the environment.

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36. By weight how much of the air is contained in the portion of the atmosphere closest to the earth:

Explanation

The correct answer is 95% because the portion of the atmosphere closest to the Earth is known as the troposphere, which extends up to about 10-15 kilometers from the surface. This layer contains the majority of the air molecules and is where weather phenomena occur. Since air has weight, the percentage of air in this portion of the atmosphere can be estimated by considering the total weight of the atmosphere. The troposphere contains almost all of the atmosphere's mass, making up about 95% of its total weight.

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37. What are the two basic mechanisms for particulate collection in a fabric collector:

Explanation

Impaction and interception are the two basic mechanisms for particulate collection in a fabric collector. Impaction occurs when particles collide with the fabric fibers and become trapped due to their inertia. Interception, on the other hand, happens when particles are intercepted by the fabric fibers as they pass through the collector. Both mechanisms play a crucial role in capturing and removing particulate matter from the air, making them essential for effective air pollution control in fabric collectors.

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38. Which of the following oxidizers would be the most cost effective?

Explanation

A catalytic oxidizer would be the most cost-effective option among the given choices. This is because a catalytic oxidizer utilizes a catalyst to promote the oxidation of pollutants at lower temperatures, resulting in reduced fuel consumption and operating costs. It offers higher energy efficiency and lower operating expenses compared to a thermal oxidizer or a regenerative thermal oxidizer, making it a more cost-effective solution for air pollution control.

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39. Standard particulate source testing is conducted under what EPA method?

Explanation

Standard particulate source testing is conducted under EPA Method 5. This method is used to determine the particulate matter emissions from stationary sources such as industrial facilities. It involves sampling the stack gas and analyzing it for particulate matter using a filter and a series of instruments. Method 5 is considered the standard method for particulate source testing and is widely recognized and accepted by regulatory agencies.

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40. The exhaust from a boiler has a CO concentration with a partial pressure of 19.0 mm HG.  Given a standard pressure of 760 mm HG what is the ppm of CO in exhaust? 

Explanation

The partial pressure of CO in the exhaust is given as 19.0 mm Hg. To find the ppm (parts per million) of CO, we need to compare this partial pressure to the standard pressure of 760 mm Hg.

To do this, we can use the equation:

ppm = (partial pressure of CO / standard pressure) * 1,000,000

Substituting the given values, we get:

ppm = (19.0 mm Hg / 760 mm Hg) * 1,000,000

Simplifying this equation gives us:

ppm = 25,000

Therefore, the ppm of CO in the exhaust is 25,000.

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41. What is the molecular weight of air assuming there is 79% nitrogen and 21% oxygen:

Explanation

Air is a mixture of various gases, primarily nitrogen and oxygen. The molecular weight of a substance is the sum of the atomic weights of all the atoms in a molecule. Nitrogen has an atomic weight of 14.01 g/mol, while oxygen has an atomic weight of 16.00 g/mol. Since nitrogen makes up 79% of air and oxygen makes up 21%, we can calculate the molecular weight of air by multiplying the atomic weight of nitrogen by 0.79 and the atomic weight of oxygen by 0.21, and then adding the two values. This calculation gives us a molecular weight of approximately 28.84 g/mol, which is the correct answer.

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42. An inversion condition exists when you have:

Explanation

The given answer suggests that an inversion condition exists when warm air is present above cool air. This is because in a normal atmosphere, temperature decreases with increasing altitude. However, during an inversion, a layer of warm air traps cool air beneath it, preventing it from rising. This can lead to stable atmospheric conditions with little to no vertical mixing, resulting in the absence of wind and the formation of cumulus clouds.

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43. Which of the following fuels would have the highest nitrogen content:

Explanation

Coal would have the highest nitrogen content among the given options. Coal is a fossil fuel that is formed from the remains of plants and trees over millions of years. It contains a significant amount of nitrogen, which is released as nitrogen oxides (NOx) when coal is burned. This makes coal a major contributor to air pollution and a significant source of nitrogen emissions. Natural gas, No. 2 oil, and No. 6 oil have lower nitrogen content compared to coal.

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44. In the combustion process, if excess air is provided the mixture is considered to be:

Explanation

When excess air is provided in the combustion process, it means that there is more air available than required for the complete combustion of the fuel. This results in a higher air-to-fuel ratio, leading to incomplete combustion. In such a scenario, the mixture is considered to be "lean." A lean mixture contains a higher proportion of air compared to fuel, which can result in reduced fuel efficiency and lower emissions.

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45. From lowest to highest list the following fuels in relationship to their sulfur content:
a.  Bituminous coal
b.  No. 2 fuel oil
c.  No. 6 fuel oil
d.  Natural gas
e.  Antracite coal

Explanation

The correct order of fuels from lowest to highest sulfur content is: d (Natural gas), b (No. 2 fuel oil), c (No. 6 fuel oil), e (Antracite coal), a (Bituminous coal).

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46. In a reverse air baghouse, particulate is collected on:

Explanation

In a reverse air baghouse, particulate is collected on the inside of the bag. This means that the bags are designed in such a way that the dirty gas flows from the outside of the bag to the inside. As the gas passes through the bag, the particulate matter is trapped on the inside surface of the bag. This method of collection allows for easier cleaning and maintenance of the baghouse system.

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47. During high temperature combustion what is the predominant type of NOx that is formed:

Explanation

During high temperature combustion, the predominant type of NOx that is formed is NO. This is because the high temperature causes the nitrogen and oxygen molecules in the air to react and form nitrogen monoxide (NO) molecules. NOx refers to a group of nitrogen oxides, but in this specific scenario, NO is the most common type of NOx formed.

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48. An example of a high energy scrubber would be a:

Explanation

A venturi scrubber is an example of a high energy scrubber because it utilizes a venturi throat to create a high velocity and turbulent gas stream. This high energy gas stream helps in the efficient mixing of the scrubbing liquid with the pollutant particles, resulting in effective particle capture and removal. The venturi scrubber is particularly suitable for applications where the pollutant particles are small and difficult to capture using other scrubbing methods.

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49. A condenser is not an effective way to control alcohol vapors.

Explanation

A condenser is an effective way to control alcohol vapors. A condenser is a device that cools down and condenses vapors into a liquid form. In the context of controlling alcohol vapors, a condenser can be used to capture and collect the alcohol vapors, preventing them from escaping into the environment. This is commonly used in distillation processes, where alcohol vapors are condensed and collected to produce alcoholic beverages or other products. Therefore, the statement "A condenser is not an effective way to control alcohol vapors" is false.

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50. If pollutants from an elevated, buoyant source can be carried down to the ground when a nocturnal surface inversion is dissipated by datime heating, you normally have a process called:

Explanation

Fumigation is the process where pollutants from an elevated, buoyant source are carried down to the ground when a nocturnal surface inversion is dissipated by daytime heating. This occurs when the warm air near the ground rises, mixing with the cooler air above and bringing the pollutants down. Fumigation is a common phenomenon in atmospheric science and can have significant impacts on air quality.

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51. High Ozone levels typically are experienced during periods of :

Explanation

High ozone levels are typically experienced during periods of stable high atmospheric pressure and high temperatures. During stable high pressure, air is compressed and sinks towards the Earth's surface, preventing vertical mixing of pollutants. This leads to the accumulation of ozone near the surface. Additionally, high temperatures enhance the chemical reactions that produce ozone. Therefore, stable high atmospheric pressure and high temperatures create conditions that favor the formation and accumulation of ozone, resulting in high ozone levels.

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52. Good engineering practice stack height is generally considered:

Explanation

The correct answer is 2.5 x bldg. ht. This means that the stack height should be 2.5 times the height of the building. This is considered a good engineering practice because it helps to ensure that the emissions from the stack are dispersed high enough in the atmosphere to prevent any negative impacts on the surrounding environment and community. The increased height allows for better dispersion and dilution of pollutants, reducing the potential for air pollution and minimizing any potential health and environmental risks.

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53. Emission inventories are usually required for all stationary sources regardless of their size.

Explanation

Emission inventories are not usually required for all stationary sources regardless of their size. The requirement for emission inventories typically depends on the regulations and policies set by the governing authorities. While larger stationary sources are often required to report their emissions, smaller sources may be exempt from this requirement. Therefore, the statement that emission inventories are required for all stationary sources regardless of their size is false.

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54. The average velocity through a 4ft. X 5ft. diameter rectangular stack is 30 feet / sec.  What is the volume in acfm?

Explanation

The volume in acfm can be calculated by multiplying the average velocity (30 feet/sec) by the cross-sectional area of the rectangular stack. The cross-sectional area can be found by multiplying the length (4 ft) by the width (5 ft), which equals 20 square feet. Therefore, the volume in acfm is 30 feet/sec * 20 square feet = 600 acfm.

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55. In an absorber, if the temperature of the liquid increases the solubility of the gaseous component into the liquid normally:

Explanation

When the temperature of a liquid in an absorber increases, the solubility of the gaseous component into the liquid decreases. This is because an increase in temperature generally leads to an increase in kinetic energy of the molecules, causing them to move faster and creating more space between them. As a result, the liquid molecules are less likely to interact and bond with the gaseous molecules, leading to a decrease in solubility.

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56. In the combustion of natural gas, most of the NOx produced is considered:

Explanation

In the combustion of natural gas, the majority of the NOx produced is considered to be Thermal NOx. This type of NOx is formed when nitrogen and oxygen in the air react at high temperatures, such as those found in the combustion process. The heat causes nitrogen and oxygen molecules to combine and form NOx compounds. This is different from Fuel NOx, which is formed when the nitrogen in the fuel itself reacts with oxygen, and Residual NOx, which is formed from impurities in the fuel.

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57. Carbon monoxide has a 500 times greater affinity to hemoglobin in the blood than oxygen.

Explanation

Carbon monoxide actually has a 200-250 times greater affinity to hemoglobin in the blood than oxygen. This means that it binds to hemoglobin more readily and strongly than oxygen does, leading to a decreased ability of the blood to carry oxygen to the body's tissues. This is why carbon monoxide poisoning can be so dangerous, as it can quickly replace oxygen in the bloodstream and lead to oxygen deprivation in vital organs. Therefore, the statement that carbon monoxide has a 500 times greater affinity to hemoglobin in the blood than oxygen is false.

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58. Stage II collection at gasoline stations refers to the control of gaseous vapors from the underground storage tank.

Explanation

Stage II collection at gasoline stations does not refer to the control of gaseous vapors from the underground storage tank. Stage II collection refers to the control of gaseous vapors during the refueling process, where the vapors are captured and returned to the underground storage tank to prevent air pollution.

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59. What source sampling method is used to determine total gaseous non-methane organic emissions using a flame ionization detector?

Explanation

Method 25A is used to determine total gaseous non-methane organic emissions using a flame ionization detector. This method involves collecting a sample of the gas stream and passing it through a flame ionization detector, which measures the concentration of organic compounds in the sample. The collected sample is then analyzed to determine the total gaseous non-methane organic emissions present in the gas stream.

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60. PM-10 particles have a settling time of approximately:

Explanation

PM-10 particles have a settling time of approximately 0.4 m/hr. This means that these particles, which have a diameter of 10 micrometers or less, will settle at a rate of 0.4 meters per hour. This settling time indicates the speed at which these particles will fall out of the air and settle onto surfaces. It is important to measure and monitor the settling time of PM-10 particles as they can have harmful effects on human health when inhaled.

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61. The Discharge Electrode in an Electrostatic Precipitator is usually:

Explanation

The Discharge Electrode in an Electrostatic Precipitator is usually negatively charged. This is because the discharge electrode is responsible for generating a corona discharge, which creates a strong electric field. This electric field attracts and ionizes the particles present in the gas stream, causing them to become charged. The negatively charged discharge electrode helps to attract and collect the positively charged particles, allowing for efficient particle removal in the electrostatic precipitator.

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62. NOx control is usually accomplished through what process?

Explanation

NOx control is usually accomplished through the reduction process. Reduction involves converting nitrogen oxides (NOx) into harmless nitrogen (N2) and water (H2O) by introducing a reducing agent, such as ammonia or urea, into the exhaust gases. This process breaks down the nitrogen oxides and transforms them into less harmful substances, reducing their environmental impact.

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63. A cascade impactor stage's cut size separate ___% of the particles of that size:

Explanation

A cascade impactor stage's cut size separates 50% of the particles of that size. This means that the stage is designed to effectively separate and collect half of the particles that are of the specified size.

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64. The exhaust from a baghouse stack has a concentration of 0.2 gr./dscf.  Given an exhaust of 10,000 scfm what is the emission rate in lbs./hr?

Explanation

The emission rate can be calculated by multiplying the concentration of the exhaust (0.2 gr./dscf) by the flow rate of the exhaust (10,000 scfm) and then converting the units to lbs./hr. Therefore, the emission rate is 1.7 lbs./hr.

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65. Bituminous coal fired utilities usually use what process to control SO2?

Explanation

Bituminous coal fired utilities usually use the limestone process to control SO2. This process involves injecting limestone into the flue gas stream, where it reacts with the sulfur dioxide to form calcium sulfite. This calcium sulfite can then be further oxidized to form calcium sulfate, which is a solid waste product. The limestone process is a commonly used method for reducing SO2 emissions in coal-fired power plants, as it is effective and relatively cost-efficient.

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66. How many cylindrical bags, 6 inches in diameter and 25 feet long, would be needed to filter a particulate laden stream?  The total filtering surface area is 4045 square feet. 

Explanation

To find the number of cylindrical bags needed, we need to calculate the total filtering surface area of one bag. The surface area of a cylinder is given by the formula 2πrh + πr^2, where r is the radius and h is the height. In this case, the radius is 3 inches (half of the diameter) and the height is 25 feet. Converting the radius to feet, we get 0.25 feet. Plugging these values into the formula, we get a surface area of approximately 28.27 square feet for one bag. Dividing the total filtering surface area of 4045 square feet by the surface area of one bag, we get approximately 103 bags needed.

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67. Henry's law applies if the equilibrium diagram of a system is a straight line.  For most systems, the equilibrium diagram is a straight line if:

Explanation

In Henry's law, the equilibrium diagram of a system is a straight line when the solution is dilute. This means that the concentration of the solute in the solution is relatively low. In dilute solutions, the solute particles are dispersed and do not interact strongly with each other. As a result, the relationship between the concentration of the solute and its partial pressure in the gas phase is linear. In contrast, in concentrated solutions, the solute particles are closer together and may interact more strongly, leading to deviations from linearity in the equilibrium diagram. Therefore, the correct answer is that the solution is dilute.

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68. Federal Land Managers are most interested in reducing what in Class 1 areas:

Explanation

Federal Land Managers are most interested in reducing visibility in Class 1 areas. This is because Class 1 areas are designated as the most pristine and scenic areas, and maintaining clear visibility is crucial for preserving their natural beauty. Visibility reduction can occur due to air pollution, such as the presence of particulate matter, SO2, and NOx. Therefore, federal land managers focus on reducing these pollutants to improve visibility and protect the aesthetic value of Class 1 areas.

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69. Which of the fabrics listed below would have a good resistence to acid and alkaline attack and also have a high temperature limitation?

Explanation

Polyester is the correct answer because it has good resistance to acid and alkaline attack. It is a synthetic fabric that is known for its durability and ability to withstand harsh chemicals. Additionally, polyester has a high temperature limitation, meaning it can withstand high heat without melting or deforming. This makes it a suitable choice for applications where resistance to acids, alkalines, and high temperatures is required.

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70. In the combustion process, if you need two moles of oxygen to combust one mole of methane, how many moles of air would be needed?

Explanation

In the combustion process, methane (CH4) reacts with oxygen (O2) to produce carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:

CH4 + 2O2 -> CO2 + 2H2O

From the equation, we can see that 1 mole of methane requires 2 moles of oxygen. Since air is approximately 21% oxygen, the rest being mostly nitrogen, we need to calculate how many moles of air would contain 2 moles of oxygen.

To do this, we divide 2 moles of oxygen by the mole fraction of oxygen in air (0.21):

2 moles O2 / 0.21 = 9.52 moles of air

Therefore, the correct answer is 9.53 moles.

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71. What Title of the 1990 Clean Air Act deals with Toxic Pollutants:

Explanation

Title III of the 1990 Clean Air Act deals with Toxic Pollutants. This title focuses on the regulation and control of hazardous air pollutants, also known as air toxics. It establishes a comprehensive program to identify and regulate sources of toxic air emissions, aiming to protect public health and the environment from the harmful effects of these pollutants. Title III requires the development of standards, permits, and monitoring systems to reduce and control toxic emissions from various industries and sources.

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72. Visible light occurs in the 400-700 nm range with the red around 400 and the violets around 700. 

Explanation

The statement in the question is incorrect. In the visible light spectrum, red light has a longer wavelength and is around 700 nm, while violet light has a shorter wavelength and is around 400 nm. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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73. A pound of activated carbon has a surface area equal to about:

Explanation

Activated carbon is known for its high adsorption capacity due to its large surface area. The surface area of activated carbon is typically measured in square meters per gram. The given answer of 125 acres suggests that a pound of activated carbon has a surface area equivalent to 125 acres. This indicates that activated carbon has an extremely high surface area, allowing it to effectively adsorb and remove impurities from various substances.

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74. The most common approach to dispersion modeling is a gradient modeling approach.

Explanation

The most common approach to dispersion modeling is not a gradient modeling approach.

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75. Most gaseous continuous emissions monitors (CEMs) are:

Explanation

Most gaseous continuous emissions monitors (CEMs) are extractive monitors. Extractive monitors are designed to extract a sample of the gas from the emission source and analyze it in a separate location. This method allows for accurate and reliable measurement of the gas composition. In-situ monitors, on the other hand, measure the gas directly at the emission source, while remote monitors use remote sensing techniques to measure the gas from a distance. In line gas analysis refers to the analysis of gas within a pipeline or process. However, in the context of continuous emissions monitoring, extractive monitors are the most commonly used method.

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76. If you had a coal with a BTU content of 10,000 BTU/lb, and 2.5% S and all of it is emitted into the atmosphere, what would be the emission rate in lbs/MM BTU?

Explanation

The emission rate in lbs/MM BTU can be calculated by dividing the percentage of S (sulfur) emitted into the atmosphere by the BTU content of the coal. In this case, the percentage of S emitted is 2.5% and the BTU content is 10,000 BTU/lb. Dividing 2.5% by 10,000 BTU/lb gives us an emission rate of 0.00025 lbs/MM BTU. However, the answer choices are given in whole numbers, so we need to convert the emission rate to a whole number. Multiplying 0.00025 by 1,000 gives us 0.25 lbs/MM BTU. Rounding this to the nearest whole number, the emission rate is 0.25 lbs/MM BTU, which is equivalent to 5.0.

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What Title of the 1990 Clean Air Act deals with Toxic Pollutants:
Visible light occurs in the 400-700 nm range with the red around 400...
A pound of activated carbon has a surface area equal to about:
The most common approach to dispersion modeling is a gradient modeling...
Most gaseous continuous emissions monitors (CEMs) are:
If you had a coal with a BTU content of 10,000 BTU/lb, and 2.5% S and...
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