Emc 020-001 (Practice) Storage Foundations Exam By

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1. What are the five core elements of the data center infrastructure? 

Explanation

The five core elements of the data center infrastructure are applications, databases, servers/operating systems, networks, and storage arrays. These elements are crucial components that work together to support the operation and management of the data center. Applications refer to the software programs and systems used to perform specific tasks or functions. Databases store and manage large amounts of structured data. Servers/operating systems provide the computing power and software environment for running applications. Networks facilitate communication and data transfer between various components. Storage arrays are used to store and manage data in a centralized and scalable manner.

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Emc 020-001 (Practice) Storage Foundations Exam By - Quiz

EMC fundamentals - foundation for all other EMC exams.
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2. Which feature can multi-pathing software provide? 

Explanation

Multi-pathing software can provide load balancing, which is the process of distributing network traffic evenly across multiple paths or links. This helps to optimize the utilization of available resources and ensures that no single path becomes overwhelmed with traffic. By distributing the workload across multiple paths, load balancing improves performance, increases fault tolerance, and enhances overall system reliability.

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3. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? 

Explanation

The key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure that addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7 is Availability. Availability ensures that the storage systems are always accessible and operational, allowing users to access their data at any time without any interruptions or downtime. This requirement is crucial for organizations that rely on continuous access to their data for critical operations and business continuity.

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4. Which sequence of activities describes a read cache hit?  1. Read data is sent to the host 2. Host sends read request to storage system 3. Cache is searched, and data is found 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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5.  Which service is used by SCSI intitiators to discover targets? 

Explanation

iSNS (Internet Storage Name Service) is the service used by SCSI initiators to discover targets. iSNS is a protocol that allows devices in a storage area network (SAN) to discover and communicate with each other. It provides a centralized registry for storing and retrieving information about storage devices, including their names, addresses, and capabilities. SCSI initiators use iSNS to discover the available targets in the SAN and establish connections with them. DNS (Domain Name System) is a service used for translating domain names into IP addresses, NIS (Network Information Service) is a directory service used in UNIX-like operating systems, and WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) is a service used for name resolution in Windows networks.

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6. Which statement is true about iSCSI names? 

Explanation

Every initiator or target in an iSCSI network is assigned a unique iSCSI name. This unique identifier helps in distinguishing and addressing each initiator or target device in the network. The iSCSI name is not derived from the IP address, and both initiators and targets require an iSCSI name. Therefore, the statement that every initiator or target has a unique iSCSI name is true.

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7. What is the process of dividing a disk into logical containers? 

Explanation

Partitioning is the process of dividing a disk into logical containers. This allows the disk to be divided into separate sections, each with its own file system, allowing for better organization and management of data. Partitioning also enables the use of multiple operating systems on a single disk, as each partition can be dedicated to a specific operating system.

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8. What are three requirements of storage systems? 

Explanation

Storage systems require availability to ensure that data can be accessed when needed, capacity to store large amounts of data, and scalability to accommodate future growth and increased storage needs. Compliance, maintenance, security, performance, utilization, and data integrity are also important factors in storage systems, but they are not listed as requirements in this question.

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9. What is a physical component of a storage environment

Explanation

A physical component of a storage environment is a BUS. A BUS refers to a communication system that allows different components of a computer system to transfer data between each other. In the context of a storage environment, a BUS is responsible for connecting storage devices, such as hard drives or solid-state drives, to the rest of the computer system. It provides a pathway for data to be transferred to and from the storage devices, allowing the operating system and other components to access and manipulate the stored data.

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10. A disk is divided into three LUNs. One LUN is presented to a host. How does this LUN appear to the host? 

Explanation

When a disk is divided into multiple Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs), each LUN appears as a separate and independent disk to the host. Therefore, when one LUN is presented to the host, it appears as a single disk. The host is not aware of the other LUNs or any underlying configuration such as mirroring or RAID arrays. It simply sees and interacts with the presented LUN as if it were a standalone disk.

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11. Which technology supports high availability of data?

Explanation

Clustering is a technology that supports high availability of data. It involves grouping multiple servers together to work as a single system, providing redundancy and failover capabilities. In a clustered environment, if one server fails, another server in the cluster takes over the workload, ensuring continuous availability of data. Clustering also allows for load balancing, where the workload is distributed across multiple servers to improve performance and prevent any single point of failure. Therefore, clustering is the correct answer for supporting high availability of data.

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12. Which statement describes logical volumes? 

Explanation

Logical volumes can be a partition of a larger physical disk. This means that a logical volume can be created by dividing a single physical disk into multiple partitions, each of which can be independently managed and accessed. This allows for more efficient and flexible utilization of storage space, as different logical volumes can have different sizes and file systems.

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13. Which type of front-end port is found on an intelligent storage system used in a SAN?

Explanation

FC stands for Fibre Channel, which is a type of front-end port commonly found on intelligent storage systems used in a Storage Area Network (SAN). Fibre Channel is a high-speed network technology that allows for fast and reliable data transfer between servers and storage devices. It provides a scalable and flexible solution for connecting storage systems to servers in a SAN environment. ATA, EIDE, and SCSI are other types of front-end ports, but they are not typically used in SANs.

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14. What does partitioning do to a physical disk?

Explanation

Partitioning a physical disk involves dividing it into logical containers. This allows the disk to be organized into separate sections, each with its own file system and storage space. Partitioning enables the disk to be used more efficiently by allowing different types of data to be stored in separate areas. It also allows for easier management and organization of files and data on the disk.

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15. You want to ensure that your storage solution can grow with your business. Which requirement of storage systems applies to this goal? 

Explanation

Scalability is the requirement of storage systems that applies to the goal of ensuring that the storage solution can grow with the business. Scalability refers to the ability of a system to handle increasing amounts of work, data, or users without compromising performance or functionality. In the context of storage systems, scalability means that the system can easily accommodate additional storage capacity as the business grows, allowing for seamless expansion without disruption or the need for significant infrastructure changes.

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16. Which component in an EMC Symmetrix Array provides physical connectivity to hosts

Explanation

The front-end adapter in an EMC Symmetrix Array is responsible for providing physical connectivity to hosts. It acts as an interface between the storage processor and the host, allowing data to be transferred between them. The front-end adapter handles the communication protocols and ensures that the data is transmitted accurately and efficiently.

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17. Which host component is the high speed interconnect between the Central Processing Unit and memory? 

Explanation

The high-speed interconnect between the Central Processing Unit (CPU) and memory is known as the BUS. The BUS allows for the transfer of data between the CPU and memory, enabling efficient communication and data processing. It acts as a pathway for the CPU to access and retrieve information from the memory, ensuring smooth and fast operation of the system.

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18. What is the role of a bus? 

Explanation

A bus is a high-speed interconnect that facilitates communication and data transfer between the CPU, memory, and disks in a computer system. It acts as a pathway or channel through which information can flow between these components, enabling efficient data transfer and synchronization. The bus ensures that data can be quickly and accurately exchanged between the different parts of the system, allowing for smooth and efficient operation.

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19. When is it necessary to hold application I/O to ensure a consistent copy

Explanation

When creating a point in time replica, it is necessary to hold application I/O just before the creation to ensure a consistent copy. This is because any ongoing I/O operations during the creation process can lead to inconsistencies in the replica. By holding the application I/O, any changes made to the data will be completed, and the replica will accurately reflect the state of the application at that specific point in time.

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20. What does partitioning do?

Explanation

Partitioning is the process of dividing a physical disk into logical volumes. This allows the disk to be divided into separate sections, each with its own file system and storage capacity. By partitioning a disk, it becomes easier to organize and manage data, as well as improve performance and security. Each logical volume can be treated as a separate entity, with its own file system and access controls, making it easier to allocate and manage storage space.

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21. What is a benefit of SAN? 

Explanation

SAN, or Storage Area Network, provides a benefit of enabling centralized provisioning and management of storage resources. This means that administrators can easily allocate and manage storage resources from a central location, making it more efficient and convenient. This centralized approach allows for better organization and control over storage, leading to improved performance and easier troubleshooting. It also simplifies the process of adding or removing storage devices, as well as optimizing storage utilization. Overall, SAN helps streamline storage management, saving time and effort for administrators.

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22. What is a benefit of reporting on storage arrays? 

Explanation

Reporting on storage arrays allows organizations to monitor and analyze their storage capacity usage over time. This information is crucial for planning and forecasting future storage needs, ensuring that the organization has enough storage space to accommodate its data growth. By tracking storage capacity, organizations can identify potential bottlenecks, optimize storage resources, and make informed decisions about when to upgrade or expand their storage infrastructure. This helps prevent unexpected storage shortages or overprovisioning, ultimately improving the overall efficiency and cost-effectiveness of the storage environment.

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23. A Celerra system is servicing NAS clients over two Data Movers that are configured Primary/Primary. The Control Station fails. How does this failure impact data access? 

Explanation

The failure of the Control Station does not impact data access in this scenario because the Data Movers are configured as Primary/Primary. This means that both Data Movers are actively servicing NAS clients and can continue to do so even if the Control Station fails. The Data Movers do not need to reboot or reconfigure to maintain data access. Therefore, there is no impact on data access.

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24. Which statement describes the iSCSI protocol? 

Explanation

The iSCSI protocol is a storage networking standard that allows SCSI commands to be sent over an IP network. It enables the use of IP networks to connect storage devices, such as disk arrays, to servers. This allows for the consolidation and centralization of storage resources, making it easier to manage and allocate storage in a networked environment. By using the iSCSI protocol, organizations can leverage their existing IP infrastructure to access and utilize storage resources efficiently.

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25. What is a benefit of a NAS Solution? 

Explanation

A benefit of a NAS solution is that it enables the ability to share data across platforms. This means that data can be accessed and shared by different devices and operating systems, allowing for seamless collaboration and increased productivity. This is particularly useful in environments where there are multiple devices and platforms in use, as it eliminates the need for data transfer or conversion between different systems.

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26. What is a disadvantage of JBOD versus disk arrays? 

Explanation

JBOD (Just a Bunch Of Disks) is a storage configuration where multiple disks are combined into a single logical unit. One disadvantage of JBOD compared to disk arrays is that data is unprotected. In a JBOD setup, there is no redundancy or fault tolerance, meaning that if one disk fails, all the data stored on that disk will be lost. In contrast, disk arrays typically use RAID configurations to provide data protection by replicating data across multiple disks.

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27. Which storage method will make data most accessible?

Explanation

The magnetic disk is the most accessible storage method among the options given. This is because magnetic disks, such as hard disk drives (HDDs), provide fast and direct access to data. They have a low latency and high data transfer rate, allowing for quick retrieval and processing of information. Additionally, magnetic disks offer random access, meaning that data can be accessed in any order without the need to sequentially read through the entire storage medium. This makes magnetic disks highly efficient and suitable for applications that require frequent and immediate access to data.

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28. What is a requirement for a client initiated restore?

Explanation

In order for a client initiated restore to take place, the backup catalogs must be available. This is because the backup catalogs contain the necessary information about the backed up data, such as the location and timestamps. Without access to the backup catalogs, the client would not be able to identify and retrieve the specific data they want to restore.

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29. Which protocol is used by a host to access block level storage over IP

Explanation

iSCSI is the correct answer because it is a protocol that allows a host to access block level storage over IP. iSCSI stands for Internet Small Computer System Interface and it enables the transmission of SCSI commands over IP networks. This protocol is commonly used in storage area networks (SANs) to connect servers to storage devices, providing a way for the host to access and manage block-level storage remotely.

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30. What are the four components of an intelligent storage system? 

Explanation

An intelligent storage system consists of four components: back-end, cache, front-end, and physical disks. The back-end is responsible for handling the communication between the storage system and the host system. The cache component stores frequently accessed data to improve performance. The front-end is responsible for handling the communication between the storage system and the client system. Lastly, the physical disks are the actual storage devices where the data is stored.

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31. What is a valid member of a zone in a SAN? 

Explanation

A valid member of a zone in a Storage Area Network (SAN) is a Host Bus Adapter (HBA) World Wide Port Name (WWPN). In a SAN, a zone is a logical grouping of devices that are allowed to communicate with each other. The HBA WWPN is a unique identifier assigned to each HBA in a SAN, and it is used to establish connections and control access between devices within a zone. Therefore, a valid member of a zone in a SAN would be an HBA WWPN.

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32. If site A is 1000 miles (1600 km) away from site B, which method is NOT suitable for remotely replicating data from A to B? 

Explanation

Synchronous replication requires a continuous and consistent connection between the two sites in order to replicate data in real-time. However, since site A and site B are 1000 miles (1600 km) away, it is not feasible to maintain a stable and low-latency connection over such a long distance. Therefore, synchronous replication is not suitable for remotely replicating data from site A to site B in this scenario.

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33. What is the correct order of operations for array based synchronous replication? A. Write is received by the source array from host/server B. Remote array sends acknowledgement to the source array C. Source array signals write complete to host/server D. Write is transmitted by source array to the remote array 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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34. You are planning for disaster recovery of your backup and recovery environment. Which backup server component must be included? 

Explanation

In disaster recovery planning for a backup and recovery environment, the catalog is a crucial component that must be included. The catalog contains metadata about the backup data, such as file names, locations, and timestamps. It helps in tracking and managing the backup data, allowing for efficient and accurate recovery in case of a disaster. Without the catalog, it would be challenging to identify and restore the necessary backup data, making the disaster recovery process more time-consuming and prone to errors.

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35. What are the physical ports that interconnect two FC switches referred to as? 

Explanation

E_Ports are the physical ports that interconnect two FC switches. These ports are used for establishing an inter-switch link (ISL) between the switches. ISLs allow for communication and data transfer between the switches, enabling the creation of larger storage networks. E_Ports are typically used in Fibre Channel (FC) SAN environments and provide high-speed connectivity between switches.

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36. What is a logical component of a storage environment?

Explanation

A logical component of a storage environment is the FileSystem. A FileSystem is responsible for organizing and managing the storage of data on a disk. It provides a structured way to store, retrieve, and manage files and directories. It determines how data is stored, accessed, and organized on the storage device. The FileSystem ensures that data is stored in a logical and efficient manner, allowing for easy retrieval and manipulation of files and folders.

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37. What does a Domain ID identify?

Explanation

A Domain ID identifies a switch within a fabric. In a fabric network, multiple switches are connected together to form a unified network. Each switch is assigned a unique Domain ID, which helps in identifying and addressing the switch within the fabric. The Domain ID allows for efficient communication and management of the switches within the fabric network.

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38. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? 

Explanation

Fiber Channel Arbitrated Loop represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability. In this network architecture, devices are connected in a loop, and data is transmitted in a sequential manner. However, only one device can transmit data at a time, causing potential bottlenecks and limited scalability. This is in contrast to Switched Fabric, where devices are connected to a central switch, allowing for simultaneous data transmission and greater scalability.

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39. What is the basic unit of storage in a CAS implementation

Explanation

In a CAS (Content Addressable Storage) implementation, the basic unit of storage is an object. CAS is a data storage architecture that stores and retrieves data based on its content rather than its location. In this system, each object is assigned a unique identifier based on its content, and this identifier is used to retrieve the object when needed. Therefore, an object is the fundamental unit of storage in a CAS implementation.

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40. What is a cache dirty bit flag? 

Explanation

A cache dirty bit flag is a marker that indicates whether the data in the cache has been modified since it was last written to disk. In this case, the correct answer is "Changed data not yet written to disk." This means that the data in the cache has been modified, but those changes have not been saved to the disk yet.

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41. What is a disadvantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other methods of remote replication?

Explanation

Synchronous remote replication is a method of replicating data in real-time to a remote location. However, one disadvantage of this method is that it can cause response time elongation. This means that the time it takes for a system to respond to a request or command may increase, leading to slower performance. This can be a drawback compared to other methods of remote replication that may not have this issue.

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42. What failure does RAID protect against 

Explanation

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a data storage technology that protects against disk loss. It achieves this by distributing data across multiple disks, so that if one disk fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining disks. RAID provides fault tolerance and data redundancy, ensuring that data is not lost in the event of a disk failure. Therefore, it protects against the failure of individual disks within a storage system.

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43. Why do array based local replication technologies track changes made to source and target devices after the creation of a replica?

Explanation

Array based local replication technologies track changes made to source and target devices after the creation of a replica to enable faster re-synchronization. By tracking these changes, the replication technology can identify and replicate only the modified data, rather than replicating the entire dataset. This significantly reduces the time and resources required for re-synchronization, allowing for quicker recovery and minimizing downtime.

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44. Which tool can be used to view the logical and physical topology of an MDS SAN?

Explanation

Fabric manager is the correct answer because it is a tool specifically designed to view the logical and physical topology of a SAN (Storage Area Network) in an MDS (Multilayer Director Switch) environment. It provides a comprehensive overview of the SAN infrastructure, including the connections between switches, the storage devices, and the hosts. With fabric manager, administrators can easily monitor and manage the SAN, troubleshoot issues, and optimize performance. Device manager, EWS, and switch manager are not specifically tailored for viewing the topology of an MDS SAN, making them incorrect choices.

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45. Many FCAL nodes are attempting to simultaneously send I/O to a storage array. How is control of the loop determined? 

Explanation

The control of the loop is determined by the node with the highest priority. In this scenario, when multiple FCAL nodes are attempting to send I/O to a storage array simultaneously, the node with the highest priority will have control over the loop. This means that it will have the authority to send its I/O requests first, while the other nodes will have to wait for their turn based on their priority levels.

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46. You need to consolidate a storage environment. The applications require high bandwidth and block level I/O. Which storage solution best meets these requirements?

Explanation

A Storage Area Network (SAN) is the best solution for consolidating a storage environment that requires high bandwidth and block level I/O. SANs are specifically designed to provide fast and efficient data transfer between servers and storage devices, making them ideal for applications that require high performance and low latency. CAS (Content Addressable Storage) is primarily used for data archiving and retrieval, DAS (Direct Attached Storage) is a simple storage solution directly connected to a single server, and NAS (Network Attached Storage) is optimized for file-level access over a network. None of these options are as suitable as SAN for the given requirements.

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47. What is a disadvantage of multi-mode fiber relative to single-mode fiber?

Explanation

Multi-mode fiber has a disadvantage of limited distances compared to single-mode fiber. This means that the maximum distance over which data can be transmitted using multi-mode fiber is shorter than that of single-mode fiber. This limitation can be a drawback in situations where long-distance communication is required.

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48. What distinguishes a FC director from a FC switch? 

Explanation

The correct answer is greater connectivity capacity. A FC director is a high-end Fibre Channel switch that is designed to handle large amounts of data traffic and provide high-performance connectivity. It typically has more ports and higher bandwidth compared to a FC switch, allowing for greater connectivity capacity. Dual-redundant power supplies, support for both LC and SC optical connectors, and more options for SAN management software are features that can be found in both FC directors and FC switches, but they do not specifically distinguish one from the other.

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49. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 2 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "No more than 2 hours of production data can be lost." This means that in the event of a disaster, the company's Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is 2 hours, indicating that they cannot afford to lose more than 2 hours' worth of production data. This suggests that the company has implemented backup and recovery measures to ensure that data is regularly backed up and can be restored in a timely manner in case of a disaster.

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50. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data?

Explanation

CAS stands for Content Addressable Storage, which is a technology specifically designed for the storage of fixed content data. CAS uses a unique identifier or address to store and retrieve data, making it ideal for storing data that does not change frequently or at all. This technology ensures data integrity and immutability, making it suitable for compliance and regulatory requirements. Unlike other storage technologies like DAS, NAS, and SAN, CAS provides a secure and efficient way to store and manage fixed content data.

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51. Which Data Center element stores customer and product information when the server is connected to an array? 

Explanation

When a server is connected to an array, the element responsible for storing customer and product information is the database. A database is a structured collection of data that is organized, managed, and accessed in a way that allows for efficient storage, retrieval, and modification. It is specifically designed to handle large volumes of data and provide a reliable and secure storage solution. Therefore, in this scenario, the database would be the most suitable element for storing customer and product information.

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52. What do you monitor as part of server performance? 

Explanation

As part of monitoring server performance, memory utilization is an important factor to consider. Memory is a crucial resource for running applications and processes on a server. Monitoring memory utilization helps to ensure that the server has enough memory available to handle the workload efficiently. By tracking memory usage, administrators can identify any potential memory leaks or excessive memory consumption that may lead to performance issues or system crashes. Monitoring memory utilization allows for proactive management and optimization of server resources, ensuring smooth and uninterrupted operation.

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53. A local replica of an application was created with pointer based replication technology. What is a requirement to perform a successful restore? 

Explanation

To perform a successful restore of a local replica created with pointer-based replication technology, it is necessary for the source devices to be healthy. This means that the source devices should be in proper working condition without any issues or errors. If the source devices are not healthy, it may lead to data corruption or loss during the restore process. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure the health and stability of the source devices before proceeding with the restore operation.

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54. You have five disks in a RAID 0 set, and have assigned a stripe depth of 128 blocks (64 kB). What is the STRIPE size (kB)?

Explanation

The stripe size in a RAID 0 set is determined by the number of disks in the set and the stripe depth. In this case, there are five disks and a stripe depth of 128 blocks (64 kB). To calculate the stripe size, we multiply the stripe depth by the block size. Since each block is 64 kB, the stripe size would be 128 blocks * 64 kB = 8192 kB, which is equal to 320 kB.

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55. Which management task eliminates single points of failure in a data center?

Explanation

Availability is the management task that eliminates single points of failure in a data center. This means ensuring that all critical systems and components are redundant and have backup options in place, so that if one fails, there is another one to take over. This helps to ensure continuous operation and minimize downtime in case of any failures or disruptions. By implementing measures such as redundant power supplies, backup generators, and failover mechanisms, availability management aims to eliminate any single point of failure that could potentially disrupt the normal functioning of the data center.

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56. Which remote replication technology absolutely requires host involvement? 

Explanation

Logical Volume mirroring is a remote replication technology that absolutely requires host involvement. This technology involves creating an exact copy of a logical volume on a different storage system, which requires the host to be involved in the replication process. The host is responsible for initiating and managing the mirroring process, ensuring that the replicated volume stays synchronized with the original volume. This level of host involvement is necessary to ensure the integrity and consistency of the mirrored data.

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57. The remote site B will hold a copy of data that is 5 minutes behind the production data at site A It will take two hours after an outage at site A to decide to shift production to site B An additional 3 hours will be needed to power up the servers, bring up the network and redirect users so site B can become productive What is the Recover Point Objective (RPO) of this plan? 

Explanation

The Recover Point Objective (RPO) of this plan is five minutes. This means that the remote site B will hold a copy of data that is 5 minutes behind the production data at site A.

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58. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? 

Explanation

The maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B in the event of a site failure at A is 2 hours. This is because data is being replicated from site A to site B every hour using disk buffering. Therefore, if site A fails, the most recent data that would have been replicated to site B is from 2 hours ago.

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59. What is the name of the drive subassembly containing the platters and R/W heads?

Explanation

The correct answer is HDA. HDA stands for Head Disk Assembly, which is the drive subassembly that contains the platters and Read/Write heads. This component is responsible for the actual reading and writing of data on the hard drive. ATA, HBA, and IDE are not the correct answers as they do not specifically refer to the subassembly containing the platters and R/W heads.

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60. What best describes a Fibre Channel SAN?

Explanation

A Fibre Channel SAN is a dedicated storage network that is specifically designed for connecting storage devices to servers. It provides high-speed, reliable, and scalable connectivity for storage systems, allowing for efficient data transfer and storage management. Unlike other types of networks, such as global inter-connectivity networks or multi-purpose systems networks, a Fibre Channel SAN is solely focused on providing a dedicated infrastructure for storage purposes.

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61. What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent? 

Explanation

Provisioning, monitoring, and reporting are three key data center management activities that are interdependent. Provisioning involves the process of setting up and configuring resources such as servers, storage, and networking equipment. Monitoring refers to continuously monitoring the performance and health of these resources to ensure they are functioning optimally. Reporting involves generating and analyzing reports on the data center's performance and resource utilization. These activities are interdependent as monitoring is necessary to identify any issues or bottlenecks, which can then be addressed through provisioning. Additionally, reporting provides valuable insights into the data center's performance and helps in making informed decisions for future provisioning and resource allocation.

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62. What is a key management task that applies to all data center elements? 

Explanation

Capacity management is a key management task that applies to all data center elements. It involves monitoring and planning the resources required to meet the demands of the data center, such as storage, processing power, and network bandwidth. By effectively managing capacity, data center operators can ensure that there is enough resources available to support the workload and avoid any performance issues or downtime. This task is essential for maintaining the efficiency and reliability of the data center infrastructure.

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63. What is a disadvantage of a Fibre Channel hub when compared to a Fibre Channel switch

Explanation

A disadvantage of a Fibre Channel hub when compared to a Fibre Channel switch is limited performance. A hub operates at a lower speed because it shares the available bandwidth among all connected devices. This can result in slower data transfer rates and increased latency compared to a switch, which provides dedicated bandwidth to each connected device.

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64. Why would you implement an iSCSI solution?

Explanation

Implementing an iSCSI solution allows for the utilization of existing IP infrastructure, which can save on costs and simplify deployment. This means that organizations do not have to invest in additional networking equipment or separate storage networks. Instead, they can leverage their existing Ethernet infrastructure to connect storage devices and servers, making it a cost-effective solution. Additionally, iSCSI offers flexibility and scalability, as it can be easily integrated into existing network configurations.

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65. What is a purpose of iSNS? 

Explanation

The purpose of iSNS is to assist with the discovery of iSCSI targets. iSNS stands for Internet Storage Name Service and it helps in the dynamic discovery and management of iSCSI devices on a network. It provides a centralized repository for iSCSI target information, allowing initiators to easily locate and connect to available targets. This helps in simplifying the configuration and management of iSCSI storage devices in a network environment.

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66. Which event is known as a head crash? 

Explanation

A head crash is an event where the read/write head of a hard disk drive comes into contact with the disk's data area. This can cause physical damage to the disk and result in data loss.

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67. Which disk drive component is responsible for positioning the R/W heads? 

Explanation

The actuator arm assembly is responsible for positioning the R/W heads in a disk drive. This component consists of a mechanical arm that moves the heads across the surface of the disk to access different data tracks. By controlling the movement of the actuator arm assembly, the disk drive can accurately position the R/W heads to read or write data on the desired track.

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68. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit.

Explanation

In the SAN Core/Edge exhibit, the E Port is identified as port 1 and the Edge switch is identified as port 6.

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69. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed?

Explanation

WWN zoning should be employed if the primary concern in a SAN is cabling flexibility. WWN (World Wide Name) zoning is a method of zoning that uses the unique identifier of each device's WWN to control access to specific zones. This allows for more flexibility in cabling because devices can be easily moved or added without the need to reconfigure the zoning. Hard zoning, mixed zoning, and port zoning are other methods of zoning in a SAN, but they do not prioritize cabling flexibility as effectively as WWN zoning.

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70. What is the protocol used by a Windows client to communicate with a NAS device? 

Explanation

CIFS, which stands for Common Internet File System, is the protocol used by a Windows client to communicate with a NAS (Network Attached Storage) device. CIFS allows the Windows client to access and share files and folders over a network with the NAS device. It is a widely used protocol for file sharing and provides a seamless integration between Windows clients and NAS devices.

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71. An application uses ten 9 GB devices. A full volume local replica of the application is required every 6 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. How many replica devices are required?

Explanation

To calculate the number of replica devices required, we need to consider the size of each replica and the duration for which it needs to be kept. The application uses ten 9 GB devices, so each replica will also require ten 9 GB devices. Since a full volume local replica is required every 6 hours and each replica needs to be kept for 24 hours, we need to calculate the number of replicas that can be created within 24 hours. 24 hours divided by 6 hours gives us 4 replicas. Therefore, 4 replicas multiplied by 10 devices per replica gives us a total of 40 replica devices required.

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72. Which Celerra component is used to manage and configure the NAS solution?

Explanation

The Control Station is the component used to manage and configure the NAS solution. It provides a user interface and management tools to control and monitor the Celerra system. It allows administrators to configure network settings, create and manage file systems, set up user access controls, and perform various administrative tasks. The Control Station plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the NAS solution efficiently.

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73. What is a benefit of SAN? 

Explanation

SAN (Storage Area Network) provides secure access to data. SANs are designed to provide a dedicated network for storage devices, allowing multiple servers to access the same storage resources. By separating the storage network from the regular network, SANs offer enhanced security for data access. SANs often incorporate features like zoning and LUN masking to control access to specific storage resources and ensure data security. This benefit makes SANs a preferred choice for organizations that require high levels of data security and privacy.

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74. Which component of EMC ControlCenter holds the information collected about the Managed Objects?

Explanation

The correct answer is Repository. The repository component of EMC ControlCenter holds the information collected about the Managed Objects. It serves as a centralized database where all the data about the managed objects is stored and can be accessed for analysis and reporting purposes. The repository acts as a central hub for storing and managing the collected information, allowing for efficient data retrieval and management within the ControlCenter system.

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75. Which topology increases connectivity within the SAN while conserving overall port utilization?

Explanation

Core Edge topology increases connectivity within the SAN while conserving overall port utilization. In this topology, multiple edge switches are connected to a central core switch. The edge switches are responsible for connecting the servers and storage devices, while the core switch handles the interconnection between the edge switches. This design allows for efficient use of ports as the core switch acts as a central hub, reducing the number of connections required between devices. Additionally, it provides high availability and scalability by allowing for easy addition or removal of edge switches without affecting the overall network connectivity.

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76. What is a disadvantage of storage array based local replication?

Explanation

A disadvantage of storage array based local replication is that it cannot span storage arrays. This means that the replication process is limited to a single storage array and cannot be extended to multiple arrays. This can be a limitation in situations where data needs to be replicated across different arrays for redundancy or scalability purposes.

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77. Which layer of the protocol stack re-transmits dropped packets in iSCSI? 

Explanation

TCP, or Transmission Control Protocol, is responsible for re-transmitting dropped packets in iSCSI. TCP ensures reliable delivery of data by using acknowledgments and re-transmissions. When a packet is dropped or lost during transmission, TCP detects the loss and requests the sender to retransmit the missing packet. This process continues until all packets are successfully received, ensuring the integrity and reliability of the data transfer in iSCSI.

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78. What is a fundamental characteristic of a CAS implementation? 

Explanation

A fundamental characteristic of a CAS (Content Addressable Storage) implementation is the use of a globally unique identifier for every data object. This means that each data object is assigned a unique identifier that can be used to locate and retrieve the object, regardless of its physical location or storage system. This allows for efficient and reliable data management, as well as seamless scalability and interoperability within the CAS system.

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79. What is a disadvantage of array based remote replication? 

Explanation

Array-based remote replication is a method of data replication where data is copied from one storage array to another. One of the disadvantages of array-based remote replication is that it cannot manage log shipping. Log shipping is a process of automatically sending transaction logs from a primary database to a secondary database, allowing for continuous data replication and recovery. Since array-based replication focuses on copying data at the block level, it does not have the capability to manage and replicate transaction logs, making it a disadvantage in scenarios where log shipping is required.

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80. Which Data Center infrastructure component does the Array receive read/write commands from?

Explanation

The Array receives read/write commands from the Server in a Data Center infrastructure. The Server acts as the intermediary between the Array and other components, such as the Application, Database, and Network. It sends the commands to the Array, which then processes them accordingly.

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81. Which SAN topology allows IP initiators to communicate with FC targets? 

Explanation

Bridged SAN topology allows IP initiators to communicate with FC targets. In a bridged SAN, IP traffic is encapsulated and sent over the Fibre Channel network, enabling communication between IP initiators and FC targets. This allows for the integration of IP-based applications and storage devices into a Fibre Channel SAN environment.

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82. Which statement describes the choice of cylinders used in a partition? 

Explanation

The correct answer states that the choice of cylinders used in a partition must be contiguous and may be in the same zone. This means that the cylinders should be physically adjacent to each other, but they can be located within the same zone. This allows for efficient data access and storage within the partition while still maintaining some flexibility in terms of zone placement.

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83. What is a benefit of a NAS solution? 

Explanation

A benefit of a NAS (Network Attached Storage) solution is that it centralizes storage and simplifies management. This means that all the data is stored in one central location, making it easier to access and manage. It eliminates the need for individual storage devices on each host and allows for efficient sharing and collaboration. This also reduces the complexity of managing multiple storage arrays and simplifies the backup and recovery processes.

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84. An application uses a file system. A local replica of the application is required. Business requirements demand that the application be available on a 24x7 basis. Which operation should be performed for a consistent file system replica? 

Explanation

Flushing file system buffers before creating the replica ensures that all data is written to the file system and that there are no pending writes or cached data. This helps in creating a consistent replica of the file system, as any pending writes could lead to data inconsistencies between the original and replica. By flushing the buffers before creating the replica, the application can ensure that the replica accurately reflects the state of the file system at the time of creation.

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85. What does the number of files to be backed up affect in a backup and recovery environment? 

Explanation

The number of files to be backed up directly affects the catalog size in a backup and recovery environment. The catalog is a database that keeps track of all the files that have been backed up, allowing for easy retrieval and recovery when needed. As the number of files increases, so does the size of the catalog. This means that more storage space is required to store the catalog, and it may take longer to search and retrieve specific files from the backup.

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86. What is a benefit of tracking changes to the source and target devices after a point in time replica is created? 

Explanation

Tracking changes to the source and target devices after a point in time replica is created helps to speed up the re-synchronization of the source and target. By keeping track of the changes made to both devices, the system can quickly identify and synchronize only the modified data, rather than having to synchronize the entire data set. This reduces the time and resources required for re-synchronization, improving overall efficiency and minimizing downtime.

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87. Which requirement is a reason for deploying NAS? 

Explanation

The requirement for deploying NAS is global access to data, as Network Attached Storage (NAS) allows multiple users and devices to access and share data over a network. NAS provides a centralized storage solution that can be accessed from anywhere, making it ideal for organizations with distributed teams or remote users who need to collaborate and access data simultaneously.

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88. Which network technology uses time division multiplexing for sending data from multiple subscribers as an optical signal? 

Explanation

SONET (Synchronous Optical Network) is the correct answer because it is a network technology that uses time division multiplexing to send data from multiple subscribers as an optical signal. SONET is a standardized protocol that allows for the efficient transmission of large amounts of data over optical fiber networks. It uses time division multiplexing to divide the optical signal into multiple channels, each with its own time slot, allowing for simultaneous transmission of data from multiple subscribers.

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89. Which statement is true of parity-based RAID? 

Explanation

In parity-based RAID, the parity is updated each time a write is performed. This means that whenever data is written to the RAID system, the parity information is also updated to ensure data integrity and fault tolerance. This allows for the recovery of data in case of a disk failure. The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how parity is used in RAID systems.

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90. What is a standard layer that resides between managed objects and management software?

Explanation

SMI-S stands for Storage Management Initiative Specification. It is a standard layer that resides between managed objects (such as storage devices) and management software. SMI-S provides a common language and set of protocols for storage management, allowing different vendors' storage devices to be managed by a single management software. This standardization simplifies the process of managing storage infrastructure and enables interoperability between different storage systems.

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91. Which local replication technology does EMC TimeFinder/Mirror implement?

Explanation

EMC TimeFinder/Mirror implements the Full Volume Mirroring local replication technology. This technology allows for the creation of an exact copy of a volume or storage device, ensuring that all data is replicated in real-time. This can be useful for creating backups or for disaster recovery purposes, as it provides a reliable and consistent copy of the data.

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92. What do you monitor as part of an array capacity check? 

Explanation

As part of an array capacity check, you monitor the allocated storage. This refers to the amount of storage that has been assigned or allocated to the array. By monitoring the allocated storage, you can ensure that the array has enough capacity to store the data and meet the storage requirements. This helps in preventing any potential storage shortages or capacity issues.

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93. A file system is backed up every day at 11:00 PM according to the schedule in the exhibit. The file system gets corrupted at 3:00 PM on Wednesday. 

Explanation

Based on the given information, the file system is backed up every day at 11:00 PM. Since the file system gets corrupted at 3:00 PM on Wednesday, it means that the backup has not yet occurred for that day. Therefore, the correct answer is 3, indicating that the file system is not backed up on Wednesday.

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94. A disk drive has a rotational speed of 100 revolutions per second. What is the average rotational latency? 

Explanation

The average rotational latency can be calculated by taking the time it takes for one complete revolution and dividing it by 2. In this case, since the disk drive has a rotational speed of 100 revolutions per second, it would take 1/100th of a second (10 ms) for one complete revolution. Dividing this by 2 gives us an average rotational latency of 5 ms.

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95. Which Connectrix switches can be managed using WebTools 

Explanation

The B-series switches can be managed using WebTools.

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96. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk?

Explanation

The CHS values represent the maximum number of cylinders (1000), heads (4), and sectors (25) that the disk can have. To calculate the LBA address range, we multiply these values together: 1000 * 4 * 25 = 100,000. However, since LBA values start from 0, the address range will be from 0 to 99,999.

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97. What are two parts of cache? 

Explanation

The two parts of a cache are the data-store and the tag ram. The data-store holds the actual data that is being cached, while the tag ram holds the memory addresses or tags that are associated with the data in the cache. The tag ram is used to quickly determine if a requested memory address is present in the cache, and if so, the corresponding data can be retrieved from the data-store. The combination of the data-store and tag ram allows for faster access to frequently used data, improving overall system performance.

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98. What is a feature of Internal DAS

Explanation

Internal DAS (Direct Attached Storage) refers to the storage devices that are directly connected to a server or a computer system. It is a feature of Internal DAS to provide local storage provisioning, which means that the storage devices are dedicated to a specific server or system and are not shared with other devices. This allows for efficient and direct access to the storage, resulting in faster data transfer and reduced latency. Therefore, the correct answer is local storage provisioning.

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99. What is a critical design factor when deciding whether or not to deploy IP SAN? 

Explanation

When deciding whether or not to deploy IP SAN, a critical design factor to consider is the application response time. This is because the performance and efficiency of the SAN will directly impact the response time of the applications running on it. If the application response time is a crucial factor for the organization, then it becomes essential to evaluate whether an IP SAN can meet the required response time standards.

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100. A pointer based replica has been created. Source devices are being used for production operations. When is data copied from the source to the save location?

Explanation

When a pointer based replica is created, data is copied from the source to the save location for the first write to a location on the source. This means that when any write operation is performed on the source device, the data is immediately copied to the save location. This ensures that the save location stays up to date with the changes made on the source device.

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101. Which database is used by EMC ControlCenter as the Repository? 

Explanation

EMC ControlCenter uses Oracle as the repository database. This means that Oracle is the database where EMC ControlCenter stores and manages its data. It is the chosen platform for storing and organizing the information that ControlCenter needs to perform its functions effectively.

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102. What describes DAS?

Explanation

Internally deployed block level access storage refers to a storage system that is located within the organization's infrastructure and provides access to data at the block level. This means that data is divided into smaller blocks, which can be accessed and managed individually. This type of storage is typically used for high-performance applications that require fast and direct access to data. It allows for efficient data storage and retrieval, as well as advanced features such as data deduplication and snapshots.

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103. What is a remote replication solution on EMC Symmetrix Arrays? 

Explanation

SRDF/S is a remote replication solution on EMC Symmetrix Arrays. It stands for Symmetrix Remote Data Facility/Synchronous and is used for synchronous replication of data between two Symmetrix arrays. SRDF/S ensures that data is mirrored in real-time, providing continuous availability and zero data loss in the event of a disaster or system failure. It is a reliable and efficient solution for business continuity and disaster recovery purposes.

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104. What are three advantages of a disk array compared with JBOD? 

Explanation

A disk array offers higher speed interconnects compared to JBOD, which means that data can be transferred at a faster rate. Additionally, a disk array provides data protection, ensuring that data is not lost in case of a disk failure. Lastly, a disk array supports multiple host I/O channels, allowing multiple servers to access the storage simultaneously.

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105. What do you monitor as part of a SAN health check? 

Explanation

As part of a SAN health check, monitoring port status change is important. This involves keeping track of any changes in the status of the ports within the SAN infrastructure. By monitoring port status change, you can identify any issues or abnormalities that may occur, such as ports going offline or experiencing connectivity problems. This allows for proactive troubleshooting and maintenance, ensuring the smooth operation and performance of the SAN.

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106. What is host memeory?

Explanation

Host memory refers to a temporary location where commands and data are stored. This memory is used by the host system to store instructions and data that are currently being processed. It serves as a temporary storage space for the CPU to access and manipulate the data as required. The host memory is essential for the functioning of the system as it allows for efficient execution of commands and retrieval of data during the operation of the host system.

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107. What is a role of the backup server in a backup and recovery environment? 

Explanation

The role of the backup server in a backup and recovery environment is to maintain the backup catalog. The backup catalog contains important information about the backed-up data, such as file names, locations, and timestamps. By maintaining the backup catalog, the backup server ensures that the data can be easily identified and restored when needed. This role is crucial for effective backup and recovery operations, as it allows for efficient management and retrieval of backed-up data.

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108. What represents the layering of protocols in a Fibre Channel SAN?

Explanation

The correct answer is SCSI over FC. This represents the layering of protocols in a Fibre Channel SAN, where the SCSI protocol is used over the Fibre Channel protocol. This means that the Fibre Channel protocol is responsible for transporting the SCSI commands and data between devices in the SAN.

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109. An application uses ten 9 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the application is required every 4 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 10% every 4 hours.How many replica devices are required? 

Explanation

To calculate the number of replica devices required, we need to consider the following information:
- The application uses ten 9 GB devices, so the total data size is 10 * 9 = 90 GB.
- Each replica will be kept for 24 hours, and a new replica is required every 4 hours.
- The data changes by 10% every 4 hours.

Since a new replica is required every 4 hours, we need to calculate the total number of replicas needed in 24 hours.
24 hours / 4 hours = 6 replicas.

Since the data changes by 10% every 4 hours, each replica will have a data size of 90 GB + (10% of 90 GB) = 99 GB.

Therefore, the total data size for 6 replicas is 6 * 99 GB = 594 GB.

To calculate the number of replica devices required, we divide the total data size by the size of each device: 594 GB / 9 GB = 66.

Hence, the correct answer is 60 (as there are only 10 devices available).

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110. What is the advantage of single-mode fiber over multi-mode fiber?

Explanation

The advantage of single-mode fiber over multi-mode fiber is that it enables optical connections over longer distances. Single-mode fiber has a smaller core diameter, which allows for less dispersion and attenuation of the light signal as it travels through the fiber. This means that the signal can travel further without losing strength or quality. In contrast, multi-mode fiber has a larger core diameter, which limits the distance that the signal can travel before it degrades. Therefore, single-mode fiber is preferred for long-distance applications.

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111. How are nodes typically connected in a two tier Core Edge fabric? 

Explanation

In a two-tier Core Edge fabric, nodes are typically connected with the host on the edge and storage on the core. This means that the edge nodes, which are closer to the end-user devices, will handle the host functions, while the core nodes will handle the storage functions. This configuration allows for efficient data transfer and processing, as the edge nodes can quickly handle user requests, while the core nodes can efficiently manage and store the data.

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112. Which feature differentiates an integrated NAS device from a NAS Gateway device? 

Explanation

An integrated NAS device manages storage devices using NAS software, which is specifically designed for file-level access and sharing. This means that it can provide advanced features such as file-level permissions, file locking, and file versioning. On the other hand, a NAS Gateway device manages storage devices via array software, which is primarily designed for block-level access. This means that it can provide features such as RAID, volume management, and disk provisioning. Therefore, the use of NAS software is the key feature that differentiates an integrated NAS device from a NAS Gateway device.

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113. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? 

Explanation

The maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B in the event of a site failure at A is 2 hours. This is because data is being replicated from site A to site B every hour, creating consistent point in time copies. If there is a failure at site A, the replication process will be interrupted and the data from the last successful replication until the failure occurred will be missing at site B. Since the replication occurs every hour, the maximum amount of missing data will be 2 hours.

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114. What is the size of the unique Content Address when the CAS stores a data object? 

Explanation

The size of the unique Content Address when the CAS stores a data object is 128 bit. This means that the CAS uses a 128-bit address to uniquely identify each data object it stores. This large address size allows for a vast number of unique addresses, which helps ensure that each data object can be accessed and retrieved accurately.

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115. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk?

Explanation

Formatting is the process that writes physical address information to a disk. This process prepares the disk to store data by creating a file system and organizing the disk into sectors and tracks. It also marks bad sectors and sets up the necessary structures for the operating system to access and manage the disk. Formatting is essential before using a new disk or when reusing an existing disk to ensure proper data storage and retrieval.

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116. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost." This means that in the event of a disaster, the company should have measures in place to ensure that they can recover their data and resume production within 4 hours, without losing more than 4 hours worth of data. This implies that they should have backup systems and processes in place to minimize data loss and ensure business continuity.

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117. What is the advantage of using multiple ISLs between two FC switches? 

Explanation

Using multiple Inter-Switch Links (ISLs) between two Fibre Channel (FC) switches provides an advantage in terms of availability. By having multiple ISLs, it creates redundancy and ensures that if one link fails, the other links can still carry the traffic, preventing any disruption in communication between the switches. This enhances the overall availability of the network and reduces the chances of downtime or loss of connectivity.

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118. In a given environment, the peak writes are 50 MB/s and average writes are 25 MB/s. Peak reads are 45 MB/s and average reads are 20 MB/s. How much network bandwidth must be provided if asynchronous remote replication will be used in this environment? 

Explanation

The correct answer is 25 MB/s. This is because the network bandwidth must be able to handle the peak writes and reads in the environment. In this case, the peak writes are 50 MB/s and the peak reads are 45 MB/s. Since asynchronous remote replication will be used, the network must be able to handle both the writes and reads simultaneously. Therefore, the network bandwidth must be at least equal to the higher of the two, which is 50 MB/s.

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119. Which Celerra component allows management of volumes and filesystems?

Explanation

The Control Station component of Celerra allows for the management of volumes and filesystems. It is responsible for providing a user interface and management services for the Celerra system. This includes tasks such as creating and deleting volumes, managing filesystems, and configuring storage resources. The Control Station acts as the central point for administering and monitoring the Celerra system, making it the correct answer for this question.

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120. How does Asynchronous remote replication improve application performance, compared to Synchronous remote replication? 

Explanation

Asynchronous remote replication improves application performance compared to synchronous remote replication because in asynchronous replication, writes are acknowledged immediately by the source. This means that the application does not have to wait for the remote replica to acknowledge the write before proceeding, resulting in faster write performance. With synchronous replication, on the other hand, the application has to wait for the remote replica to acknowledge the write, which can introduce latency and slow down the application performance.

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121. You have a SAN environment and want to introduce NAS functionality. Which NAS solution is most appropriate?

Explanation

A Gateway NAS system solution is the most appropriate choice for introducing NAS functionality in a SAN environment. A Gateway NAS acts as a bridge between the SAN and NAS, allowing the SAN to access the NAS storage. This solution provides seamless integration between the two technologies, enabling the SAN environment to leverage the benefits of NAS, such as file-level access and simplified management. Additionally, a Gateway NAS system solution offers flexibility and scalability, as it can be easily expanded to meet growing storage needs.

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122. What is the role of the back-end in an intelligent disk system? 

Explanation

The back-end in an intelligent disk system is responsible for moving data between the cache and the disks. This means that it is involved in the actual transfer of data from the storage cache to the physical disks and vice versa. It plays a crucial role in ensuring efficient data storage and retrieval, as it manages the movement of data between these two components of the system.

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123. A local replica of a database is required. Business requirements demand that the database be available 24x7. Which operation should be performed to ensure a consistent replica of the database

Explanation

To ensure a consistent replica of the database, I/Os to the source devices should be held just before the creation of the replica. Holding I/Os to the source devices ensures that no new data is being written to the database during the replication process, preventing any inconsistencies or data loss. By pausing I/Os, the replica can accurately reflect the state of the database at the time of replication, maintaining data integrity.

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124. Which data access pattern will have its performance affected most by slow seek times? 

Explanation

Random, small writes will have its performance affected most by slow seek times. In this data access pattern, the system needs to locate and write to specific random locations on the storage device. Slow seek times mean that the time taken to locate these random locations will be longer, resulting in decreased performance. Additionally, small writes require frequent disk access, and slow seek times will further exacerbate the performance impact.

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125. A pointer based replica has been created and is being used for decision support. When is data copied from the source to the save location? 

Explanation

When a pointer based replica is created and used for decision support, the data is copied from the source to the save location for the first write to a location on the target. This means that when the first write operation occurs on the target, the data from the source is copied to the save location. This ensures that the target has the most up-to-date data for decision support purposes.

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126. What is a role of the backup client in a backup and recovery environment? 

Explanation

The role of the backup client in a backup and recovery environment is to gather data for backup. This means that the backup client is responsible for identifying and selecting the data that needs to be backed up from the source system. It collects this data and sends it to the backup server or storage node for further processing and storage. The backup client plays a crucial role in ensuring that all the necessary data is captured and backed up effectively, making it an essential component of the backup and recovery process.

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127. Which EMC product family allows management and configuration of Fibre Channel switched fabrics?

Explanation

Connectrix is the correct answer because it is an EMC product family specifically designed for the management and configuration of Fibre Channel switched fabrics. The Connectrix product family includes a range of switches and directors that provide connectivity and control for Fibre Channel networks. This allows for efficient and effective management of storage area networks (SANs) and enables the configuration of complex storage infrastructures.

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128. Which remote replication solution has the highest bandwidth requirements

Explanation

Array based synchronous replication has the highest bandwidth requirements because it involves replicating data in real-time between storage arrays. This means that every write operation must be synchronized between the primary and secondary arrays, resulting in a constant flow of data over the network. On the other hand, async ordered writes, log shipping, and host-based async LVM mirroring do not require the same level of real-time synchronization and therefore have lower bandwidth requirements.

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129. Which cache algorithm minimizes the time the host waits for data to be fetched from the storage system? 

Explanation

Read Ahead is a cache algorithm that minimizes the time the host waits for data to be fetched from the storage system. This algorithm predicts the data that will be needed in the future and proactively fetches it from the storage system into the cache. By doing so, it reduces the latency of retrieving data from the storage system, as the data is already available in the cache when the host requests it. This helps to improve the overall performance and responsiveness of the system.

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130. When is data copied from the source to the target using Copy on First Access replica technology? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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131. Identify the HBA and F port in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit.

Explanation

In the SAN Core/Edge exhibit, the HBA (Host Bus Adapter) is responsible for connecting the server to the storage network. The F port (Fabric port) is a switch port that connects to the storage devices. Looking at the options provided, the correct answer is 7 and 5, as port 7 represents the HBA and port 5 represents the F port.

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132. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? 

Explanation

MirrorView/A is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems. It allows for the creation of synchronous or asynchronous copies of data between two CLARiiON arrays, providing disaster recovery and data protection capabilities. MirrorView/A ensures that data is replicated in real-time, allowing for quick failover and minimal data loss in the event of a disaster.

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133. Which remote replication solution has the lowest bandwidth requirement? 

Explanation

Log shipping over IP networks has the lowest bandwidth requirement among the given options. Log shipping involves sending transaction log backups from a primary database server to a secondary server, where they are restored and applied. This process requires minimal bandwidth because only the transaction log backups, which are typically small in size, need to be transferred over the network. In contrast, array-based synchronous replication, asynchronous ordered writes, and host-based LVM mirroring involve replicating entire data sets or making frequent updates, which can consume more bandwidth.

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134. Which data center activity is responsible for maintaining an audit trail of configuration changes?

Explanation

The data center activity responsible for maintaining an audit trail of configuration changes is security. Security measures in a data center include tracking and logging all configuration changes made to the systems and infrastructure. This audit trail helps in identifying any unauthorized or suspicious changes, ensuring accountability, and facilitating troubleshooting and compliance with regulatory requirements.

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135. What describes External DAS? 

Explanation

External DAS refers to Direct Attached Storage that is connected to a server or host system via a peripheral interface such as SCSI, SATA, or USB. In this context, "Array provided device management" means that the storage array is responsible for managing the devices connected to it, such as handling device configuration, monitoring, and maintenance. This is in contrast to host-provided device management, where the server or host system is responsible for managing the connected storage devices.

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136. An application uses ten 10 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the application is required. The replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 20% every 24 hours. How much storage should be allocated for the replication? 

Explanation

The correct answer is 20GB because the replica of the application needs to store the same amount of data as the original application. Since the original application uses ten 10GB devices, the replica should also allocate the same amount of storage, which is 10GB x 10 devices = 100GB. However, the data changes by 20% every 24 hours, so the replica only needs to store 80% of the original data, which is 100GB x 80% = 80GB. Therefore, the storage allocated for the replication should be 80GB, which is equivalent to 20GB.

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137. Which component in an EMC Symmetrix Array handles physical disk I/O operations?

Explanation

The back-end adapter in an EMC Symmetrix Array is responsible for handling physical disk I/O operations. It connects the storage processors to the physical disks, allowing data to be read from and written to the disks. The back-end adapter is an essential component in the array's architecture, ensuring efficient and reliable disk I/O operations.

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138. When is data copied from the source to the save location in pointer based replica technology?

Explanation

In pointer based replica technology, data is copied from the source to the save location when the first write occurs to a location on the source. This means that as soon as any data is written to a location on the source, it is immediately copied to the save location.

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139. What is a set of CLARiiON disks used to provide storage space to a host? 

Explanation

A RAID Group is a set of CLARiiON disks used to provide storage space to a host. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a single logical unit, providing improved performance, fault tolerance, and increased storage capacity. A RAID Group allows for data to be distributed across multiple disks, providing redundancy and ensuring that if one disk fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining disks.

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140. The queued writes on the source side exceed the size of the dedicated log file. Which remote replication technology requires a full resynchronization between source and target in this situation?

Explanation

In LVM based remote replication, the queued writes on the source side exceeding the size of the dedicated log file would require a full resynchronization between the source and target. This means that all the data needs to be synchronized again from the source to the target, which can be a time-consuming process. This is because LVM (Logical Volume Manager) uses a dedicated log file to track changes and ensure consistency between the source and target volumes. When the log file becomes full, a full resynchronization is necessary to ensure data integrity.

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141. What is a logical component of a storage environment? 

Explanation

A logical component of a storage environment is an application. Applications are responsible for generating and manipulating data that needs to be stored. They interact with the storage system to read and write data, manage storage resources, and perform various storage-related tasks. Applications can be anything from a simple file transfer program to a complex database management system. They play a crucial role in determining how data is stored, accessed, and managed within a storage environment.

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142. What is the Reserved LUN Pool in EMC CLARiiON SnapView replication? 

Explanation

The Reserved LUN Pool in EMC CLARiiON SnapView replication is a pool of LUNs that can hold COFW (Copy-on-First-Write) data. COFW is a technology used in replication to ensure that data is consistent and accurate between the source and target LUNs. By reserving a specific pool of LUNs for COFW data, the replication process can efficiently manage and track the changes made to the source LUNs before transferring them to the target LUNs. This helps to maintain data integrity and minimize the impact on performance during the replication process.

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143. The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement below is true in the event of a disaster? 

Explanation

In the event of a disaster, the company must be able to resume production within 4 hours. This means that the company should have a plan and resources in place to quickly recover from the disaster and resume its normal production activities within the specified time frame. This ensures that the impact on the company's operations and productivity is minimized and that it can continue serving its customers and meeting its business objectives.

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144. How is the Content Address derived in CAS? 

Explanation

The Content Address in CAS is derived from the contents of the object. This means that the address is generated based on the actual data stored within the object, rather than any other factors such as metadata, creation time, anticipated retention time, or size in bytes.

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145. What best defines NAS? 

Explanation

NAS stands for Network Attached Storage, which refers to a specialized server that provides file-level data access to multiple clients over a network. Unlike a general-purpose server, NAS is designed specifically for storing and sharing files, making it an efficient and dedicated solution for file-level data access. Therefore, the answer "Specialized server for file level data access" accurately defines NAS.

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146. What is the CLARiiON software component that controls storage visibility to hosts? 

Explanation

Access Logix is the CLARiiON software component that controls storage visibility to hosts. It allows for the creation of logical units (LUNs) and controls the access and visibility of these LUNs to the hosts. Access Logix helps in managing and organizing the storage resources efficiently, ensuring that the hosts can access the required data without any conflicts or unauthorized access.

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147. What is CIM? 

Explanation

CIM stands for Common Information Model, which is a language and methodology used for describing management data. It provides a standardized way to define and organize information about managed resources in a networked environment. CIM allows different management systems to exchange and understand information about the resources they are managing, promoting interoperability and integration between different systems. It is commonly used in IT infrastructure management, allowing administrators to easily access and manipulate management information across multiple platforms and devices.

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148. What are replicated in storage array based remote replication? 

Explanation

Replicated in storage array based remote replication refers to the process of duplicating data from a source device to a remote device. In this scenario, the correct answer is "Writes to source device." This means that any write operations performed on the source device will be replicated or copied to the remote device. This ensures that both devices have the same data and can be used for data recovery or backup purposes.

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149. During EMC CLARiiON MirrorView/A remote replication, the communication link between a mirror's primary image and its secondary image fails. What is the state of the secondary imag

Explanation

When the communication link between a mirror's primary image and its secondary image fails during EMC CLARiiON MirrorView/A remote replication, the state of the secondary image is "Fractured". This means that the secondary image is no longer synchronized with the primary image and is unable to receive updates or changes. The fracture occurs due to the interruption in communication, causing the secondary image to become out of sync and unable to mirror the primary image.

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150. What channel is valid for connecting storage arrays directly to IP networks for remote replicatio

Explanation

Gigabit Ethernet is the correct answer because it is a channel that allows storage arrays to be connected directly to IP networks for remote replication. Gigabit Ethernet provides high-speed data transfer rates and is commonly used for connecting storage devices to networks for remote replication purposes. It is a reliable and widely supported method for transmitting data over IP networks, making it suitable for remote replication of storage arrays.

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151. In which management task would you collect and analyze ISL traffic metrics? 

Explanation

In the task of performance management, collecting and analyzing ISL traffic metrics is important. This involves measuring and evaluating the performance of the network, including the traffic flow through ISLs (Inter-Switch Links). By analyzing these metrics, organizations can identify any bottlenecks or issues that may be affecting the performance of the network. This information can then be used to optimize the network and ensure that it is operating at its best capacity.

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152. What is an advantage of using tape over disk as the backup destination device?

Explanation

Tape is advantageous over disk as a backup destination device because of its portability. Unlike disks, tapes can be easily transported and stored offsite, providing an extra layer of protection against disasters or system failures. This allows for the creation of an effective disaster recovery plan, ensuring that data can be restored even in the event of a physical location being compromised. Additionally, tapes are typically more durable than disks, making them less susceptible to damage from physical mishaps or environmental factors.

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153. A Copy on First Access (COFA)  target is being used for decision support operations. When is data copied from the source to the target? 

Explanation

When a read or write is issued for the first time to a location on the target, the data is copied from the source to the target. This means that the Copy on First Access (COFA) mechanism is triggered when there is an initial read or write operation to a specific location on the target. This ensures that the target has the most up-to-date data from the source, allowing for accurate decision support operations.

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154. Which statement describes Content Address (CA)? 

Explanation

Content Address (CA) is an identifier that uniquely addresses the content of a file and not its location. This means that regardless of where the file is stored or its physical location, the CA remains the same and can be used to retrieve the file. The CA focuses solely on the content of the file, allowing for easy access and retrieval of specific files based on their unique identifiers.

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155. What is a primary concern when using Internal DAS? 

Explanation

When using Internal DAS (Direct Attached Storage), a primary concern is the presence of single points of failure. This means that if any component within the DAS system fails, it can cause the entire system to fail. This is a significant concern as it can lead to data loss or downtime. To mitigate this risk, redundancy measures such as backup systems or RAID configurations can be implemented.

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156. Which task is an example of monitoring the utilization of a data center object

Explanation

Viewing a list of filesystems that are nearly full is an example of monitoring the utilization of a data center object. This task involves keeping track of the available storage space in the data center's filesystems and identifying those that are close to reaching capacity. By monitoring the filesystems, administrators can take proactive measures such as reallocating storage or removing unnecessary files to prevent potential issues or downtime caused by running out of storage space.

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157. Which aspect of monitoring will allow you quickly respond to the failure of a Host Bus Adapter (HBA)?

Explanation

Monitoring the health of a Host Bus Adapter (HBA) allows for quick response to its failure. By monitoring the health, any issues or abnormalities with the HBA can be detected promptly, enabling immediate action to be taken to address the failure. This ensures that the HBA is functioning properly and any potential failures are identified and resolved in a timely manner, minimizing downtime and optimizing system performance.

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158. What provides maximum data protection and availability on the back end of a storage array? 

Explanation

Dual controllers provide maximum data protection and availability on the back end of a storage array. Dual controllers ensure redundancy and fault tolerance by having two separate controllers that can take over each other's workload in case of a failure. This ensures uninterrupted access to data and minimizes the risk of data loss or downtime.

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159. Which statement applies to Internal DAS? 

Explanation

Internal DAS refers to Internal Direct Attached Storage, which is a storage system that is directly connected to a server or computer. The term "parallel" in this context means that the storage system can handle multiple data requests simultaneously, improving performance and efficiency. Therefore, the statement "Internally deployed parallel protocol storage" is the correct answer as it accurately describes the characteristics of Internal DAS.

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160. You must create a chargeback system for cost recovery in the IT department. Which activity supports this goal? 

Explanation

Reporting supports the goal of creating a chargeback system for cost recovery in the IT department. By generating reports, the IT department can track and document the resources and services provided to different departments or users. These reports can then be used to calculate the costs associated with each department's or user's usage of IT resources. This information is crucial for implementing a chargeback system where departments or users are billed based on their actual usage, enabling cost recovery for the IT department.

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161. A five disk set is configured as RAID 5. Each disk has a Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) of 500,000 hours. What is the MTBF of the set? 

Explanation

The Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) of a RAID 5 set is calculated by taking the MTBF of a single disk and dividing it by the number of disks in the set. In this case, each disk has an MTBF of 500,000 hours and there are five disks in the set. Therefore, the MTBF of the set is 500,000 hours divided by 5, which equals 100,000 hours.

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162. What happens when the EMC/TimeFinder Mirror Restore operation is performed? 

Explanation

When the EMC/TimeFinder Mirror Restore operation is performed, all data from the BCV (Business Continuity Volume) is copied to the Standard Volume. This means that the data stored in the BCV, which is a duplicate or mirror of the Standard Volume, is transferred back to the original Standard Volume. This operation is typically used to restore data from a backup or to revert to a previous state of the Standard Volume.

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163. You have a backup and recovery solution in your environment. Several tapes are available. You want to use different tapes for each set of backup clients. Which backup component do you configure? 

Explanation

In order to use different tapes for each set of backup clients, you would configure the backup component called "Pool". A pool is a logical grouping of tapes that allows you to assign them to specific backup clients. By configuring a pool, you can ensure that each set of backup clients has its own dedicated set of tapes for backup and recovery purposes. This helps in organizing and managing the backup process efficiently.

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164. A company has two SAN islands approximately one mile apart. The company wants to create a single fabric over its public WAN connection. Which protocol is recommended to connect the sites? 

Explanation

FCIP (Fibre Channel over Internet Protocol) is the recommended protocol to connect the two SAN islands over the public WAN connection. FCIP encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into IP packets, allowing for the extension of Fibre Channel storage networks over long distances using standard IP networks. By using FCIP, the company can effectively create a single fabric between the two sites, enabling seamless communication and data transfer between the SAN islands.

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165. What is a benefit of disk mirroring compared to a single disk?

Explanation

Disk mirroring, also known as RAID 1, involves creating an exact copy of data on two separate disks. This redundancy provides improved read performance because the system can retrieve data from either disk, allowing for parallel access and faster data retrieval. In contrast, a single disk can only read data sequentially, resulting in slower read times. While disk mirroring also offers other benefits such as data redundancy and increased reliability, the given answer specifically focuses on the improved read performance aspect.

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166. Which SAN management feature prevents unauthorized or accidental access to volumes? 

Explanation

LUN masking is a SAN management feature that prevents unauthorized or accidental access to volumes. It allows administrators to control which servers or hosts can access specific LUNs (Logical Unit Numbers) within a storage array. By implementing LUN masking, administrators can ensure that only authorized devices have access to specific data, protecting it from unauthorized access or accidental deletion.

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167. Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to prevent a file system from running out of space? 

Explanation

Monitoring the server capacity allows you to prevent a file system from running out of space. By continuously monitoring the server's capacity, you can track the amount of storage space available and take proactive measures to prevent it from reaching its limit. This can include actions such as optimizing storage usage, deleting unnecessary files, or allocating additional storage resources when needed.

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168. Which remote replication method is most affected by the distance between source and target

Explanation

Synchronous remote replication is the method most affected by the distance between the source and target. In synchronous replication, data is written to both the source and target simultaneously, ensuring consistency between the two locations. However, the distance between the two locations can introduce latency or delays in data transmission. This means that the farther the distance, the longer it takes for the data to be replicated, potentially impacting the performance of the replication process. Therefore, synchronous replication is more sensitive to distance compared to other methods like asynchronous, disk buffering, or log shipping.

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169. What is an objective of SMI-S

Explanation

The objective of SMI-S (Storage Management Initiative Specification) is to define a complete Storage Area Network (SAN) object model. This means that SMI-S aims to provide a standardized framework for managing and monitoring storage devices within a SAN environment. By defining a common object model, SMI-S enables interoperability and simplifies management tasks by allowing administrators to use a unified set of commands and tools to manage different storage devices from different vendors.

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170. Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit?

Explanation

The exhibit does not provide any information or visual representation to determine the type of backup topology. Therefore, an explanation cannot be provided.

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171. What is a factor in performance for DAS?

Explanation

A factor in performance for DAS (Direct-Attached Storage) is the bus type. The bus type refers to the interface used to connect the storage device to the computer system. Different bus types, such as SATA, SAS, or USB, have varying data transfer speeds and capabilities. Therefore, the bus type directly affects the performance of the DAS system, as it determines the maximum speed at which data can be transferred between the storage device and the computer.

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172. What is a SAN availability management task

Explanation

Configuring redundant fabrics is a SAN availability management task because it involves setting up duplicate fabrics or network switches in a storage area network (SAN) infrastructure. This redundancy ensures high availability and fault tolerance in case one fabric or switch fails. By configuring redundant fabrics, data can continue to flow smoothly and uninterrupted, minimizing downtime and ensuring that the SAN remains available and accessible to users.

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173. What is a purpose of zoning? 

Explanation

The purpose of zoning is to logically connect array ports and host HBAs. Zoning is a technique used in storage area networks (SANs) to control and manage the access of devices to specific resources. By creating zones, administrators can define which array ports can communicate with which host HBAs, allowing for more efficient and secure data transfer. Zoning helps to ensure that only authorized devices can access specific storage resources, improving overall SAN performance and security.

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174. What is stored in tag RAM?

Explanation

Tag RAM stores pointers to the location of data in both the cache and on disk. This allows the system to quickly access and retrieve the data when needed. The tag RAM helps in efficiently managing the cache and disk storage by keeping track of where the data is located in both locations.

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175. Which task is an example of monitoring the health of a data center object? 

Explanation

Monitoring the health of a data center object involves keeping track of its operational status and identifying any issues or abnormalities. Examining the operation status of a device port falls under this category as it involves checking if the port is functioning properly or if there are any errors or failures. This task helps ensure that the data center object is operating efficiently and can help identify any potential problems that may affect the overall health and performance of the data center.

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176. Which statement is true about integrated NAS systems? 

Explanation

Integrated NAS systems are designed to simplify the management of storage arrays and NAS components. In these systems, NAS software is responsible for managing both the NAS components and the storage arrays. This eliminates the need for separate array management software and allows for centralized control and administration of the entire system. By using NAS software, administrators can easily configure, monitor, and manage both the NAS components and the storage arrays, making it a more efficient and streamlined solution.

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177. A Copy on First Access replica has been created. The source devices are being used for production operations. When is data copied from the source to the target? 

Explanation

Data is copied from the source to the target when a write is issued for the first time to a location on the source.

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178. How many simultaneous operations can an eight disk RAID 5 set perform? 

Explanation

An eight disk RAID 5 set can perform a maximum of 8 reads or 4 writes simultaneously. RAID 5 distributes data and parity across multiple disks, allowing for both data redundancy and improved performance. In this configuration, the data can be read from any of the disks in parallel, enabling up to 8 simultaneous read operations. However, write operations require additional calculations and disk accesses, limiting the number of simultaneous writes to 4.

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179. Which statement describes the iFCP protocol? 

Explanation

The iFCP protocol is an IP-based gateway-to-gateway protocol that can be used for SAN extension. This means that it allows for the extension of a Storage Area Network (SAN) over an IP network by connecting multiple SANs together through gateways. This protocol enables the transmission of Fibre Channel (FC) frames over IP networks, providing a way to connect remote storage devices and servers over long distances.

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180. What is a server capacity management task?

Explanation

A server capacity management task involves establishing user quotas. This means setting limits on the amount of storage, bandwidth, or other resources that each user is allowed to consume on the server. By implementing user quotas, administrators can ensure fair and efficient allocation of server resources, prevent one user from monopolizing resources, and optimize overall server performance.

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181. Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to predict the possible failure of FC Switch ports before the ports actually fail? 

Explanation

Monitoring the performance of FC Switch ports will allow you to predict the possible failure of the ports before they actually fail. By closely monitoring the performance metrics such as latency, throughput, and error rates, you can identify any abnormalities or degradation in the performance of the ports. These indicators can be early warning signs of potential failures, allowing you to take proactive measures such as troubleshooting or replacing the ports before they completely fail.

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182. Which component of EMC ControlCenter collects information about Managed Objects? 

Explanation

The Agent component of EMC ControlCenter is responsible for collecting information about Managed Objects. It gathers data from various sources and sends it to the Repository for storage and analysis. The Agent acts as a bridge between the Managed Objects and the ControlCenter, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date information is available for monitoring and managing the EMC infrastructure.

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183. What is an advantage of RAID 5 relative to RAID 1? 

Explanation

RAID 5 offers an advantage of improved space utilization compared to RAID 1. In RAID 5, data is distributed across multiple drives with parity information, allowing for more efficient use of storage capacity. This is achieved by striping data and parity information across the drives, which results in a higher overall storage capacity compared to RAID 1, where data is simply mirrored on multiple drives. Therefore, RAID 5 provides better space utilization by maximizing the available storage capacity.

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184. Which task is an example of monitoring the performance of a data center object? 

Explanation

Viewing rates of data transmission of all disks is an example of monitoring the performance of a data center object. By viewing the rates of data transmission of all disks, one can assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the data center's storage system. This information helps identify any bottlenecks or issues with data transmission, allowing for timely troubleshooting and optimization of the data center's performance.

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185. What is a concern of NAS management? 

Explanation

NAS management involves configuring the system to meet application performance requirements. This means ensuring that the network-attached storage (NAS) system is optimized to handle the specific performance needs of the applications it supports. This may include adjusting settings such as caching, data transfer rates, and storage capacity to ensure that the NAS system can effectively handle the workload and deliver the required performance levels.

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186. What is a reason for implementing single HBA zoning

Explanation

Implementing single HBA zoning minimizes the impact to nodes after RSCN (Registered State Change Notification). RSCN is a notification sent by a Fibre Channel switch to all affected devices when a change in the fabric occurs, such as a device being added or removed. By implementing single HBA zoning, only the affected node will receive the RSCN, reducing the impact on other nodes in the SAN. This ensures that the nodes are not overwhelmed with unnecessary notifications and allows for more efficient and streamlined communication within the SAN.

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187. Which feature applies only to an integrated NAS device

Explanation

An integrated NAS device is a storage device that combines the functionality of a network-attached storage (NAS) system with other features, such as a server or switch. The feature that applies only to an integrated NAS device is the ability to manage storage devices via NAS software. This means that the device can control and manipulate the storage devices connected to it using specialized software designed for NAS management. This feature is unique to integrated NAS devices and differentiates them from other types of storage devices.

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188. What is a reason for implementing single HBA zoning?

Explanation

Single HBA zoning refers to the practice of allowing a host to access a storage volume through only one Host Bus Adapter (HBA). This helps decrease the reset time for any change made in the state of the fabric. By limiting the host's access to a single HBA, any changes or reconfigurations in the fabric can be implemented more efficiently and quickly, reducing the time required for the system to reset and stabilize. This can improve the overall performance and reliability of the storage network.

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189. Which statement applies to NAS?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Specialized server for block level data access." NAS stands for Network Attached Storage, which is a specialized server that provides storage space and file sharing capabilities over a network. It is designed specifically for block level data access, allowing users to access and manage data at the block level rather than the file level. This makes it suitable for applications that require high-performance data access, such as databases and virtualization.

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190. A company has two SAN islands approximately one mile apart. The company wants to link both sites over its public WAN connection. The fabrics must remain separate but allow device access from either site. Which protocol is recommended to connect the sites? 

Explanation

iFCP (Internet Fibre Channel Protocol) is recommended to connect the two SAN islands over the public WAN connection while keeping the fabrics separate but allowing device access from either site. iFCP is a protocol that encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into IP packets, allowing them to be transmitted over IP networks. It provides a way to extend Fibre Channel connectivity over long distances using existing IP infrastructure.

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191. Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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192. In the environment shown in the exhibit: The storage devices are RAID-1 protected. Which component is a Single Point of Failure? 

Explanation

In the given environment, the storage devices are RAID-1 protected, which means that data is mirrored across multiple drives for redundancy. A Single Point of Failure refers to a component that, if it fails, can cause the entire system to fail. In this case, the Storage Array Port is a Single Point of Failure because if it fails, it can disrupt the connection between the storage array and the other components, leading to a potential loss of access to the stored data.

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193. The storage devices are RAID-1 protected. Which two components are Single Points of Failure? 

Explanation

In a RAID-1 configuration, data is mirrored across multiple storage devices for redundancy and protection against data loss. In this scenario, the storage array and storage array port are the single points of failure. If either the storage array or the port fails, it can result in the loss of data or the inability to access the stored data. Therefore, it is crucial to have backup and redundancy measures in place for these components to ensure the integrity and availability of the data.

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194. Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit? 

Explanation

The exhibit does not provide any information or visual representation to determine the type of backup topology. Therefore, it is not possible to provide an explanation for the correct answer.

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195. What is an advantage of using disk over tape as the backup destination device? 

Explanation

Using disk as a backup destination device offers the advantage of portability. Unlike tape, which requires physical transportation and can be bulky and cumbersome, disks are small, lightweight, and easily portable. This means that backups can be easily transported and accessed from different locations, making it convenient for disaster recovery situations or when backups need to be accessed by remote teams. Additionally, disks offer faster access and retrieval times compared to tape, further enhancing their portability and usability.

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What are the five core elements of the data center...
Which feature can multi-pathing software provide? 
Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the...
Which sequence of activities describes a read cache hit? ...
 Which service is used by SCSI intitiators to discover...
Which statement is true about iSCSI names? 
What is the process of dividing a disk into logical containers? 
What are three requirements of storage systems? 
What is a physical component of a storage environment
A disk is divided into three LUNs. One LUN is presented to a host. How...
Which technology supports high availability of data?
Which statement describes logical volumes? 
Which type of front-end port is found on an intelligent storage system...
What does partitioning do to a physical disk?
You want to ensure that your storage solution can grow with your...
Which component in an EMC Symmetrix Array provides physical...
Which host component is the high speed interconnect between the...
What is the role of a bus? 
When is it necessary to hold application I/O to ensure a consistent...
What does partitioning do?
What is a benefit of SAN? 
What is a benefit of reporting on storage arrays? 
A Celerra system is servicing NAS clients over two Data Movers that...
Which statement describes the iSCSI protocol? 
What is a benefit of a NAS Solution? 
What is a disadvantage of JBOD versus disk arrays? 
Which storage method will make data most accessible?
What is a requirement for a client initiated restore?
Which protocol is used by a host to access block level storage over IP
What are the four components of an intelligent storage system? 
What is a valid member of a zone in a SAN? 
If site A is 1000 miles (1600 km) away from site B, which method is...
What is the correct order of operations for array based synchronous...
You are planning for disaster recovery of your backup and recovery...
What are the physical ports that interconnect two FC switches referred...
What is a logical component of a storage environment?
What does a Domain ID identify?
Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with...
What is the basic unit of storage in a CAS implementation
What is a cache dirty bit flag? 
What is a disadvantage of synchronous remote replication compared to...
What failure does RAID protect against 
Why do array based local replication technologies track changes made...
Which tool can be used to view the logical and physical topology of an...
Many FCAL nodes are attempting to simultaneously send I/O to a storage...
You need to consolidate a storage environment. The applications...
What is a disadvantage of multi-mode fiber relative to single-mode...
What distinguishes a FC director from a FC switch? 
The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 2 hours. Which...
Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data?
Which Data Center element stores customer and product information when...
What do you monitor as part of server performance? 
A local replica of an application was created with pointer based...
You have five disks in a RAID 0 set, and have assigned a stripe depth...
Which management task eliminates single points of failure in a data...
Which remote replication technology absolutely requires host...
The remote site B will hold a copy of data that is 5 minutes behind...
Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to...
What is the name of the drive subassembly containing the platters and...
What best describes a Fibre Channel SAN?
What are the three key data center management activities that are...
What is a key management task that applies to all data center...
What is a disadvantage of a Fibre Channel hub when compared to a Fibre...
Why would you implement an iSCSI solution?
What is a purpose of iSNS? 
Which event is known as a head crash? 
Which disk drive component is responsible for positioning the R/W...
Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit.
In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of...
What is the protocol used by a Windows client to communicate with a...
An application uses ten 9 GB devices. A full volume local replica of...
Which Celerra component is used to manage and configure the NAS...
What is a benefit of SAN? 
Which component of EMC ControlCenter holds the information collected...
Which topology increases connectivity within the SAN while conserving...
What is a disadvantage of storage array based local replication?
Which layer of the protocol stack re-transmits dropped packets in...
What is a fundamental characteristic of a CAS implementation? 
What is a disadvantage of array based remote replication? 
Which Data Center infrastructure component does the Array receive...
Which SAN topology allows IP initiators to communicate with FC...
Which statement describes the choice of cylinders used in a...
What is a benefit of a NAS solution? 
An application uses a file system. A local replica of the application...
What does the number of files to be backed up affect in a backup and...
What is a benefit of tracking changes to the source and target devices...
Which requirement is a reason for deploying NAS? 
Which network technology uses time division multiplexing for sending...
Which statement is true of parity-based RAID? 
What is a standard layer that resides between managed objects and...
Which local replication technology does EMC TimeFinder/Mirror...
What do you monitor as part of an array capacity check? 
A file system is backed up every day at 11:00 PM according to the...
A disk drive has a rotational speed of 100 revolutions per second....
Which Connectrix switches can be managed using WebTools 
A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What...
What are two parts of cache? 
What is a feature of Internal DAS
What is a critical design factor when deciding whether or not to...
A pointer based replica has been created. Source devices are being...
Which database is used by EMC ControlCenter as the Repository? 
What describes DAS?
What is a remote replication solution on EMC Symmetrix Arrays? 
What are three advantages of a disk array compared with JBOD? 
What do you monitor as part of a SAN health check? 
What is host memeory?
What is a role of the backup server in a backup and recovery...
What represents the layering of protocols in a Fibre Channel SAN?
An application uses ten 9 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the...
What is the advantage of single-mode fiber over multi-mode fiber?
How are nodes typically connected in a two tier Core Edge...
Which feature differentiates an integrated NAS device from a NAS...
Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to...
What is the size of the unique Content Address when the CAS stores a...
What is the process that writes physical address information to a...
The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which...
What is the advantage of using multiple ISLs between two FC...
In a given environment, the peak writes are 50 MB/s and average writes...
Which Celerra component allows management of volumes and filesystems?
How does Asynchronous remote replication improve application...
You have a SAN environment and want to introduce NAS functionality....
What is the role of the back-end in an intelligent disk system? 
A local replica of a database is required. Business requirements...
Which data access pattern will have its performance affected most by...
A pointer based replica has been created and is being used for...
What is a role of the backup client in a backup and recovery...
Which EMC product family allows management and configuration of Fibre...
Which remote replication solution has the highest bandwidth...
Which cache algorithm minimizes the time the host waits for data to be...
When is data copied from the source to the target using Copy on First...
Identify the HBA and F port in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit.
What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage...
Which remote replication solution has the lowest bandwidth...
Which data center activity is responsible for maintaining an audit...
What describes External DAS? 
An application uses ten 10 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the...
Which component in an EMC Symmetrix Array handles physical disk I/O...
When is data copied from the source to the save location in pointer...
What is a set of CLARiiON disks used to provide storage space to a...
The queued writes on the source side exceed the size of the dedicated...
What is a logical component of a storage environment? 
What is the Reserved LUN Pool in EMC CLARiiON SnapView...
The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of a company is 4 hours. Which...
How is the Content Address derived in CAS? 
What best defines NAS? 
What is the CLARiiON software component that controls storage...
What is CIM? 
What are replicated in storage array based remote replication? 
During EMC CLARiiON MirrorView/A remote replication, the communication...
What channel is valid for connecting storage arrays directly to IP...
In which management task would you collect and analyze ISL traffic...
What is an advantage of using tape over disk as the backup destination...
A Copy on First Access (COFA)  target is being used for decision...
Which statement describes Content Address (CA)? 
What is a primary concern when using Internal DAS? 
Which task is an example of monitoring the utilization of a data...
Which aspect of monitoring will allow you quickly respond to the...
What provides maximum data protection and availability on the back end...
Which statement applies to Internal DAS? 
You must create a chargeback system for cost recovery in the IT...
A five disk set is configured as RAID 5. Each disk has a Mean Time...
What happens when the EMC/TimeFinder Mirror Restore operation is...
You have a backup and recovery solution in your environment. Several...
A company has two SAN islands approximately one mile apart. The...
What is a benefit of disk mirroring compared to a single disk?
Which SAN management feature prevents unauthorized or accidental...
Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to prevent a file system...
Which remote replication method is most affected by the distance...
What is an objective of SMI-S
Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit?
What is a factor in performance for DAS?
What is a SAN availability management task
What is a purpose of zoning? 
What is stored in tag RAM?
Which task is an example of monitoring the health of a data center...
Which statement is true about integrated NAS systems? 
A Copy on First Access replica has been created. The source devices...
How many simultaneous operations can an eight disk RAID 5 set...
Which statement describes the iFCP protocol? 
What is a server capacity management task?
Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to predict the possible...
Which component of EMC ControlCenter collects information about...
What is an advantage of RAID 5 relative to RAID 1? 
Which task is an example of monitoring the performance of a data...
What is a concern of NAS management? 
What is a reason for implementing single HBA zoning
Which feature applies only to an integrated NAS device
What is a reason for implementing single HBA zoning?
Which statement applies to NAS?
A company has two SAN islands approximately one mile apart. The...
Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit? 
In the environment shown in the exhibit: The storage devices are...
The storage devices are RAID-1 protected. Which two components are...
Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit? 
What is an advantage of using disk over tape as the backup destination...
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