Emc 020-001 (Practice) Storage Foundations Exam By

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  • 1/195 Questions

    Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? 

    • 1 hours
    • 2 hours
    • 3 hours
    • 4 hours
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Emc 020-001 (Practice) Storage Foundations Exam By - Quiz
About This Quiz

EMC fundamentals - foundation for all other EMC exams.
I'm not the orignal author. I've merely taken what was available on the internet and put it up on this website for flash card use. I may add to it from time to time and grow it. Or users can email me questions to add to it.
USE See moreat your own risk. . . IF YOU EVEN THINK an answer is incorrect - LOOK IT UP. . . In your book. This practice test is about learning the material and not remembering question and answer responses. Understand expecially the math calc problems.

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  • 2. 

    What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? 

    • MirrorView/A

    • SnapView

    • SRDF/AR

    • TimeFinder

    Correct Answer
    A. MirrorView/A
    Explanation
    MirrorView/A is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems. It allows for the creation of synchronous or asynchronous copies of data between two CLARiiON arrays, providing disaster recovery and data protection capabilities. MirrorView/A ensures that data is replicated in real-time, allowing for quick failover and minimal data loss in the event of a disaster.

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  • 3. 

    Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? 

    • CSMA/CD

    • Fiber Channel Arbitrated Loop

    • Store and Forward

    • Switched Fabric

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber Channel Arbitrated Loop
    Explanation
    Fiber Channel Arbitrated Loop represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability. In this network architecture, devices are connected in a loop, and data is transmitted in a sequential manner. However, only one device can transmit data at a time, causing potential bottlenecks and limited scalability. This is in contrast to Switched Fabric, where devices are connected to a central switch, allowing for simultaneous data transmission and greater scalability.

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  • 4. 
    Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. - ProProfs

    Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit.

    • 1 and 6

    • 4 and 5

    • 7 and 5

    • 6 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 6
    Explanation
    In the SAN Core/Edge exhibit, the E Port is identified as port 1 and the Edge switch is identified as port 6.

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  • 5. 

    What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk?

    • Concantenating

    • Formatting

    • Partitioning

    • Striping

    Correct Answer
    A. Formatting
    Explanation
    Formatting is the process that writes physical address information to a disk. This process prepares the disk to store data by creating a file system and organizing the disk into sectors and tracks. It also marks bad sectors and sets up the necessary structures for the operating system to access and manage the disk. Formatting is essential before using a new disk or when reusing an existing disk to ensure proper data storage and retrieval.

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  • 6. 

    The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? 

    • Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours

    • Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours

    • Must be able to resume production within 4 hours

    • No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost

    Correct Answer
    A. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost." This means that in the event of a disaster, the company should have measures in place to ensure that they can recover their data and resume production within 4 hours, without losing more than 4 hours worth of data. This implies that they should have backup systems and processes in place to minimize data loss and ensure business continuity.

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  • 7. 

    Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data?

    • CAS

    • DAS

    • NAS

    • SAN

    Correct Answer
    A. CAS
    Explanation
    CAS stands for Content Addressable Storage, which is a technology specifically designed for the storage of fixed content data. CAS uses a unique identifier or address to store and retrieve data, making it ideal for storing data that does not change frequently or at all. This technology ensures data integrity and immutability, making it suitable for compliance and regulatory requirements. Unlike other storage technologies like DAS, NAS, and SAN, CAS provides a secure and efficient way to store and manage fixed content data.

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  • 8. 

    In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed?

    • Hard Zoning

    • Mixed Zoning

    • Port Zoning

    • WWN Zoning

    Correct Answer
    A. WWN Zoning
    Explanation
    WWN zoning should be employed if the primary concern in a SAN is cabling flexibility. WWN (World Wide Name) zoning is a method of zoning that uses the unique identifier of each device's WWN to control access to specific zones. This allows for more flexibility in cabling because devices can be easily moved or added without the need to reconfigure the zoning. Hard zoning, mixed zoning, and port zoning are other methods of zoning in a SAN, but they do not prioritize cabling flexibility as effectively as WWN zoning.

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  • 9. 

    A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk?

    • 0 - 49,999

    • 0 - 99,999

    • 1 - 50,000

    • 1 - 100,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0 - 99,999
    Explanation
    The CHS values represent the maximum number of cylinders (1000), heads (4), and sectors (25) that the disk can have. To calculate the LBA address range, we multiply these values together: 1000 * 4 * 25 = 100,000. However, since LBA values start from 0, the address range will be from 0 to 99,999.

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  • 10. 

    Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? 

    • Availability

    • Manageability

    • Performance

    • Scalability

    Correct Answer
    A. Availability
    Explanation
    The key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure that addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7 is Availability. Availability ensures that the storage systems are always accessible and operational, allowing users to access their data at any time without any interruptions or downtime. This requirement is crucial for organizations that rely on continuous access to their data for critical operations and business continuity.

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  • 11. 

    What is the protocol used by a Windows client to communicate with a NAS device? 

    • CIFS

    • FCP

    • NFS

    • SCSI

    Correct Answer
    A. CIFS
    Explanation
    CIFS, which stands for Common Internet File System, is the protocol used by a Windows client to communicate with a NAS (Network Attached Storage) device. CIFS allows the Windows client to access and share files and folders over a network with the NAS device. It is a widely used protocol for file sharing and provides a seamless integration between Windows clients and NAS devices.

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  • 12. 

    What are two parts of cache? 

    • Bitmap Store and dirty store

    • Data-store and dirty store

    • Data-store and tag ram

    • Tag Ram and dirty store

    Correct Answer
    A. Data-store and tag ram
    Explanation
    The two parts of a cache are the data-store and the tag ram. The data-store holds the actual data that is being cached, while the tag ram holds the memory addresses or tags that are associated with the data in the cache. The tag ram is used to quickly determine if a requested memory address is present in the cache, and if so, the corresponding data can be retrieved from the data-store. The combination of the data-store and tag ram allows for faster access to frequently used data, improving overall system performance.

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  • 13. 

    Which Data Center element stores customer and product information when the server is connected to an array? 

    • Application

    • Database

    • Server

    • Storage Array

    Correct Answer
    A. Database
    Explanation
    When a server is connected to an array, the element responsible for storing customer and product information is the database. A database is a structured collection of data that is organized, managed, and accessed in a way that allows for efficient storage, retrieval, and modification. It is specifically designed to handle large volumes of data and provide a reliable and secure storage solution. Therefore, in this scenario, the database would be the most suitable element for storing customer and product information.

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  • 14. 

    What do you monitor as part of server performance? 

    • File system utilization

    • HBA status

    • Memory utilization

    • Power supply status

    Correct Answer
    A. Memory utilization
    Explanation
    As part of monitoring server performance, memory utilization is an important factor to consider. Memory is a crucial resource for running applications and processes on a server. Monitoring memory utilization helps to ensure that the server has enough memory available to handle the workload efficiently. By tracking memory usage, administrators can identify any potential memory leaks or excessive memory consumption that may lead to performance issues or system crashes. Monitoring memory utilization allows for proactive management and optimization of server resources, ensuring smooth and uninterrupted operation.

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  • 15. 

    What is the name of the drive subassembly containing the platters and R/W heads?

    • ATA

    • HBA

    • HDA

    • IDE

    Correct Answer
    A. HDA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HDA. HDA stands for Head Disk Assembly, which is the drive subassembly that contains the platters and Read/Write heads. This component is responsible for the actual reading and writing of data on the hard drive. ATA, HBA, and IDE are not the correct answers as they do not specifically refer to the subassembly containing the platters and R/W heads.

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  • 16. 
    Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit? - ProProfs

    Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit?

    • Direct

    • LAN

    • SAN

    • Mixed

    Correct Answer
    A. Mixed
    Explanation
    The exhibit does not provide any information or visual representation to determine the type of backup topology. Therefore, an explanation cannot be provided.

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  • 17. 

    What is a set of CLARiiON disks used to provide storage space to a host? 

    • Disk Array Enclosure

    • Disk Processor Enclosure

    • Logical Unit Number

    • RAID Group

    Correct Answer
    A. RAID Group
    Explanation
    A RAID Group is a set of CLARiiON disks used to provide storage space to a host. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a single logical unit, providing improved performance, fault tolerance, and increased storage capacity. A RAID Group allows for data to be distributed across multiple disks, providing redundancy and ensuring that if one disk fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining disks.

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  • 18. 

    What are replicated in storage array based remote replication? 

    • I/O's to source device

    • Read from source device

    • Writes to source device

    • Writes to remote device

    Correct Answer
    A. Writes to source device
    Explanation
    Replicated in storage array based remote replication refers to the process of duplicating data from a source device to a remote device. In this scenario, the correct answer is "Writes to source device." This means that any write operations performed on the source device will be replicated or copied to the remote device. This ensures that both devices have the same data and can be used for data recovery or backup purposes.

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  • 19. 

    An application uses ten 9 GB devices. A full volume local replica of the application is required every 6 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. How many replica devices are required?

    • 50

    • 10

    • 30

    • 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 40
    Explanation
    To calculate the number of replica devices required, we need to consider the size of each replica and the duration for which it needs to be kept. The application uses ten 9 GB devices, so each replica will also require ten 9 GB devices. Since a full volume local replica is required every 6 hours and each replica needs to be kept for 24 hours, we need to calculate the number of replicas that can be created within 24 hours. 24 hours divided by 6 hours gives us 4 replicas. Therefore, 4 replicas multiplied by 10 devices per replica gives us a total of 40 replica devices required.

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  • 20. 

    What best describes a Fibre Channel SAN?

    • Dedicated storage network

    • Global inter-connectivity network

    • Multi-protocol storage network

    • Multi-purpose systems network

    Correct Answer
    A. Dedicated storage network
    Explanation
    A Fibre Channel SAN is a dedicated storage network that is specifically designed for connecting storage devices to servers. It provides high-speed, reliable, and scalable connectivity for storage systems, allowing for efficient data transfer and storage management. Unlike other types of networks, such as global inter-connectivity networks or multi-purpose systems networks, a Fibre Channel SAN is solely focused on providing a dedicated infrastructure for storage purposes.

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  • 21. 

    Which storage method will make data most accessible?

    • JukeBox

    • Magnetic Disk

    • Optical Disk

    • Tape

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnetic Disk
    Explanation
    The magnetic disk is the most accessible storage method among the options given. This is because magnetic disks, such as hard disk drives (HDDs), provide fast and direct access to data. They have a low latency and high data transfer rate, allowing for quick retrieval and processing of information. Additionally, magnetic disks offer random access, meaning that data can be accessed in any order without the need to sequentially read through the entire storage medium. This makes magnetic disks highly efficient and suitable for applications that require frequent and immediate access to data.

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  • 22. 

    What is a feature of Internal DAS

    • File level I/O

    • High CPU I/O utilization

    • Local storage provisioning

    • Simultaneous volume level operating system accessibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Local storage provisioning
    Explanation
    Internal DAS (Direct Attached Storage) refers to the storage devices that are directly connected to a server or a computer system. It is a feature of Internal DAS to provide local storage provisioning, which means that the storage devices are dedicated to a specific server or system and are not shared with other devices. This allows for efficient and direct access to the storage, resulting in faster data transfer and reduced latency. Therefore, the correct answer is local storage provisioning.

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  • 23. 

    Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to predict the possible failure of FC Switch ports before the ports actually fail? 

    • Capacity

    • Health

    • Performance

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Performance
    Explanation
    Monitoring the performance of FC Switch ports will allow you to predict the possible failure of the ports before they actually fail. By closely monitoring the performance metrics such as latency, throughput, and error rates, you can identify any abnormalities or degradation in the performance of the ports. These indicators can be early warning signs of potential failures, allowing you to take proactive measures such as troubleshooting or replacing the ports before they completely fail.

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  • 24. 

    What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent? 

    • Installation, Config, Problem solving

    • Manageability, Integrity, Cost

    • Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting

    • Scalability, Accessibility, Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting
    Explanation
    Provisioning, monitoring, and reporting are three key data center management activities that are interdependent. Provisioning involves the process of setting up and configuring resources such as servers, storage, and networking equipment. Monitoring refers to continuously monitoring the performance and health of these resources to ensure they are functioning optimally. Reporting involves generating and analyzing reports on the data center's performance and resource utilization. These activities are interdependent as monitoring is necessary to identify any issues or bottlenecks, which can then be addressed through provisioning. Additionally, reporting provides valuable insights into the data center's performance and helps in making informed decisions for future provisioning and resource allocation.

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  • 25. 

    What is host memeory?

    • Connection for parallel communication devices

    • Control point for all host activities and resources

    • High speed interconnect between CPU and memory

    • Temporary location for commands and data

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporary location for commands and data
    Explanation
    Host memory refers to a temporary location where commands and data are stored. This memory is used by the host system to store instructions and data that are currently being processed. It serves as a temporary storage space for the CPU to access and manipulate the data as required. The host memory is essential for the functioning of the system as it allows for efficient execution of commands and retrieval of data during the operation of the host system.

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  • 26. 

    Which remote replication method is most affected by the distance between source and target

    • Asynchronous

    • Disk Buffering

    • Log Shipping

    • Synchronous

    Correct Answer
    A. Synchronous
    Explanation
    Synchronous remote replication is the method most affected by the distance between the source and target. In synchronous replication, data is written to both the source and target simultaneously, ensuring consistency between the two locations. However, the distance between the two locations can introduce latency or delays in data transmission. This means that the farther the distance, the longer it takes for the data to be replicated, potentially impacting the performance of the replication process. Therefore, synchronous replication is more sensitive to distance compared to other methods like asynchronous, disk buffering, or log shipping.

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  • 27. 

    Which Celerra component is used to manage and configure the NAS solution?

    • Control Station

    • Data Mover

    • Disk Array Enclosure

    • Storage Processor

    Correct Answer
    A. Control Station
    Explanation
    The Control Station is the component used to manage and configure the NAS solution. It provides a user interface and management tools to control and monitor the Celerra system. It allows administrators to configure network settings, create and manage file systems, set up user access controls, and perform various administrative tasks. The Control Station plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the NAS solution efficiently.

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  • 28. 

    When is it necessary to hold application I/O to ensure a consistent copy

    • Just after creating a point in time replica

    • Just before creating a point in time replica

    • Only when an app spans multiple hosts

    • Only when an app spans multiple storage arrays

    Correct Answer
    A. Just before creating a point in time replica
    Explanation
    When creating a point in time replica, it is necessary to hold application I/O just before the creation to ensure a consistent copy. This is because any ongoing I/O operations during the creation process can lead to inconsistencies in the replica. By holding the application I/O, any changes made to the data will be completed, and the replica will accurately reflect the state of the application at that specific point in time.

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  • 29. 

    Which statement is true about iSCSI names? 

    • Every initiator or target has a unique iSCSI name

    • ISCSI name is derived from the IP address

    • Only the target requires and iSCSI name

    • Only an initiator requires an iSCSI name

    Correct Answer
    A. Every initiator or target has a unique iSCSI name
    Explanation
    Every initiator or target in an iSCSI network is assigned a unique iSCSI name. This unique identifier helps in distinguishing and addressing each initiator or target device in the network. The iSCSI name is not derived from the IP address, and both initiators and targets require an iSCSI name. Therefore, the statement that every initiator or target has a unique iSCSI name is true.

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  • 30. 

    What is a standard layer that resides between managed objects and management software?

    • CIFS

    • FC-SW

    • HDA

    • SMI-S

    Correct Answer
    A. SMI-S
    Explanation
    SMI-S stands for Storage Management Initiative Specification. It is a standard layer that resides between managed objects (such as storage devices) and management software. SMI-S provides a common language and set of protocols for storage management, allowing different vendors' storage devices to be managed by a single management software. This standardization simplifies the process of managing storage infrastructure and enables interoperability between different storage systems.

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  • 31. 

    What is an advantage of using tape over disk as the backup destination device?

    • Faster restore time

    • Portability

    • RAID Protection

    • Random Access

    Correct Answer
    A. Portability
    Explanation
    Tape is advantageous over disk as a backup destination device because of its portability. Unlike disks, tapes can be easily transported and stored offsite, providing an extra layer of protection against disasters or system failures. This allows for the creation of an effective disaster recovery plan, ensuring that data can be restored even in the event of a physical location being compromised. Additionally, tapes are typically more durable than disks, making them less susceptible to damage from physical mishaps or environmental factors.

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  • 32. 

    What is a requirement for a client initiated restore?

    • Backup Catalogs must be available

    • Backup device must be a disk

    • Must be initiated through CLI

    • Separate storage node must exist

    Correct Answer
    A. Backup Catalogs must be available
    Explanation
    In order for a client initiated restore to take place, the backup catalogs must be available. This is because the backup catalogs contain the necessary information about the backed up data, such as the location and timestamps. Without access to the backup catalogs, the client would not be able to identify and retrieve the specific data they want to restore.

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  • 33. 

    What is a reason for implementing single HBA zoning

    • Increases PLOGI efficiency

    • Minimizes impact to nodes after RSCN

    • Prevents host from seeing same volumes via multiple HBA's

    • Reduces the number of zone required in the SAN

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimizes impact to nodes after RSCN
    Explanation
    Implementing single HBA zoning minimizes the impact to nodes after RSCN (Registered State Change Notification). RSCN is a notification sent by a Fibre Channel switch to all affected devices when a change in the fabric occurs, such as a device being added or removed. By implementing single HBA zoning, only the affected node will receive the RSCN, reducing the impact on other nodes in the SAN. This ensures that the nodes are not overwhelmed with unnecessary notifications and allows for more efficient and streamlined communication within the SAN.

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  • 34. 

    What is a key management task that applies to all data center elements? 

    • Capacity management

    • Interval Management

    • Server Management

    • Switch Management

    Correct Answer
    A. Capacity management
    Explanation
    Capacity management is a key management task that applies to all data center elements. It involves monitoring and planning the resources required to meet the demands of the data center, such as storage, processing power, and network bandwidth. By effectively managing capacity, data center operators can ensure that there is enough resources available to support the workload and avoid any performance issues or downtime. This task is essential for maintaining the efficiency and reliability of the data center infrastructure.

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  • 35. 

    What is the advantage of using multiple ISLs between two FC switches? 

    • Availability

    • Manageability

    • Scalability

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Availability
    Explanation
    Using multiple Inter-Switch Links (ISLs) between two Fibre Channel (FC) switches provides an advantage in terms of availability. By having multiple ISLs, it creates redundancy and ensures that if one link fails, the other links can still carry the traffic, preventing any disruption in communication between the switches. This enhances the overall availability of the network and reduces the chances of downtime or loss of connectivity.

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  • 36. 

    What is the basic unit of storage in a CAS implementation

    • Block

    • File

    • Frame

    • Object

    Correct Answer
    A. Object
    Explanation
    In a CAS (Content Addressable Storage) implementation, the basic unit of storage is an object. CAS is a data storage architecture that stores and retrieves data based on its content rather than its location. In this system, each object is assigned a unique identifier based on its content, and this identifier is used to retrieve the object when needed. Therefore, an object is the fundamental unit of storage in a CAS implementation.

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  • 37. 

    A five disk set is configured as RAID 5. Each disk has a Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) of 500,000 hours. What is the MTBF of the set? 

    • 100,000 hours

    • 125,000 hours

    • 1,000,000 hours

    • 2,500,000 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 100,000 hours
    Explanation
    The Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) of a RAID 5 set is calculated by taking the MTBF of a single disk and dividing it by the number of disks in the set. In this case, each disk has an MTBF of 500,000 hours and there are five disks in the set. Therefore, the MTBF of the set is 500,000 hours divided by 5, which equals 100,000 hours.

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  • 38. 

    What is a cache dirty bit flag? 

    • Changed data not yet written to disk

    • Changed data written to disk

    • Data read from disk but not yet accessed by the host

    • Data requested by the host but not yet fetched

    Correct Answer
    A. Changed data not yet written to disk
    Explanation
    A cache dirty bit flag is a marker that indicates whether the data in the cache has been modified since it was last written to disk. In this case, the correct answer is "Changed data not yet written to disk." This means that the data in the cache has been modified, but those changes have not been saved to the disk yet.

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  • 39. 

    What is a disadvantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other methods of remote replication?

    • Need to disk buffer space

    • Need for time stamping writes

    • Potential for data loss

    • Response time elongation

    Correct Answer
    A. Response time elongation
    Explanation
    Synchronous remote replication is a method of replicating data in real-time to a remote location. However, one disadvantage of this method is that it can cause response time elongation. This means that the time it takes for a system to respond to a request or command may increase, leading to slower performance. This can be a drawback compared to other methods of remote replication that may not have this issue.

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  • 40. 

    Which component in an EMC Symmetrix Array provides physical connectivity to hosts

    • Back-end adapter

    • Cache

    • Front-end adapter

    • Storage Processor

    Correct Answer
    A. Front-end adapter
    Explanation
    The front-end adapter in an EMC Symmetrix Array is responsible for providing physical connectivity to hosts. It acts as an interface between the storage processor and the host, allowing data to be transferred between them. The front-end adapter handles the communication protocols and ensures that the data is transmitted accurately and efficiently.

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  • 41. 

    Which feature applies only to an integrated NAS device

    • Allows external hosts access to storage devices

    • Manages storage devices via NAS software

    • Utilizes external switch access to storage devices

    • Manages storage devices via NAS software

    Correct Answer
    A. Manages storage devices via NAS software
    Explanation
    An integrated NAS device is a storage device that combines the functionality of a network-attached storage (NAS) system with other features, such as a server or switch. The feature that applies only to an integrated NAS device is the ability to manage storage devices via NAS software. This means that the device can control and manipulate the storage devices connected to it using specialized software designed for NAS management. This feature is unique to integrated NAS devices and differentiates them from other types of storage devices.

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  • 42. 

    What failure does RAID protect against 

    • Disk Loss

    • Host Bus Adapter failures

    • Host failures

    • Switch Failures

    Correct Answer
    A. Disk Loss
    Explanation
    RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a data storage technology that protects against disk loss. It achieves this by distributing data across multiple disks, so that if one disk fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining disks. RAID provides fault tolerance and data redundancy, ensuring that data is not lost in the event of a disk failure. Therefore, it protects against the failure of individual disks within a storage system.

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  • 43. 

    A local replica of an application was created with pointer based replication technology. What is a requirement to perform a successful restore? 

    • Save location must be bigger than the size of all source devices.

    • Save location size must be = to the size of all source devices

    • Source devices must be healthy

    • Source devices must be larger than the target devices

    Correct Answer
    A. Source devices must be healthy
    Explanation
    To perform a successful restore of a local replica created with pointer-based replication technology, it is necessary for the source devices to be healthy. This means that the source devices should be in proper working condition without any issues or errors. If the source devices are not healthy, it may lead to data corruption or loss during the restore process. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure the health and stability of the source devices before proceeding with the restore operation.

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  • 44. 

    What is a benefit of SAN? 

    • Provides file level access to data

    • Provides secure access to data

    • Uses CIFS for transport, ensuring high performance

    • Uses objects as storage units

    Correct Answer
    A. Provides secure access to data
    Explanation
    SAN (Storage Area Network) provides secure access to data. SANs are designed to provide a dedicated network for storage devices, allowing multiple servers to access the same storage resources. By separating the storage network from the regular network, SANs offer enhanced security for data access. SANs often incorporate features like zoning and LUN masking to control access to specific storage resources and ensure data security. This benefit makes SANs a preferred choice for organizations that require high levels of data security and privacy.

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  • 45. 

    What is a factor in performance for DAS?

    • Bus type

    • Disk capacity

    • LUN number

    • Power consumption

    Correct Answer
    A. Bus type
    Explanation
    A factor in performance for DAS (Direct-Attached Storage) is the bus type. The bus type refers to the interface used to connect the storage device to the computer system. Different bus types, such as SATA, SAS, or USB, have varying data transfer speeds and capabilities. Therefore, the bus type directly affects the performance of the DAS system, as it determines the maximum speed at which data can be transferred between the storage device and the computer.

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  • 46. 

    You have five disks in a RAID 0 set, and have assigned a stripe depth of 128 blocks (64 kB). What is the STRIPE size (kB)?

    • 64

    • 128

    • 320

    • 256

    Correct Answer
    A. 320
    Explanation
    The stripe size in a RAID 0 set is determined by the number of disks in the set and the stripe depth. In this case, there are five disks and a stripe depth of 128 blocks (64 kB). To calculate the stripe size, we multiply the stripe depth by the block size. Since each block is 64 kB, the stripe size would be 128 blocks * 64 kB = 8192 kB, which is equal to 320 kB.

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  • 47. 

    What is a physical component of a storage environment

    • App

    • BUS

    • Operating System

    • Protocol

    Correct Answer
    A. BUS
    Explanation
    A physical component of a storage environment is a BUS. A BUS refers to a communication system that allows different components of a computer system to transfer data between each other. In the context of a storage environment, a BUS is responsible for connecting storage devices, such as hard drives or solid-state drives, to the rest of the computer system. It provides a pathway for data to be transferred to and from the storage devices, allowing the operating system and other components to access and manipulate the stored data.

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  • 48. 

    What is a SAN availability management task

    • Configuring redundant fabrics

    • LUN Masking

    • Monitoring port status

    • Replicating logical volumes

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuring redundant fabrics
    Explanation
    Configuring redundant fabrics is a SAN availability management task because it involves setting up duplicate fabrics or network switches in a storage area network (SAN) infrastructure. This redundancy ensures high availability and fault tolerance in case one fabric or switch fails. By configuring redundant fabrics, data can continue to flow smoothly and uninterrupted, minimizing downtime and ensuring that the SAN remains available and accessible to users.

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  • 49. 

    Why do array based local replication technologies track changes made to source and target devices after the creation of a replica?

    • Faster initial synchronization

    • Faster re-synchronization

    • To allow multiple replicas

    • To lower RTO

    Correct Answer
    A. Faster re-synchronization
    Explanation
    Array based local replication technologies track changes made to source and target devices after the creation of a replica to enable faster re-synchronization. By tracking these changes, the replication technology can identify and replicate only the modified data, rather than replicating the entire dataset. This significantly reduces the time and resources required for re-synchronization, allowing for quicker recovery and minimizing downtime.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 03, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Jmiller

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