Embraer 190 - Standard Operating Procedures Manual (Sopm)

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GROUND OPERATIONS QUESTION MADE FROM S. O. P. M
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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In order to allow thermal stabilization of the engines, operate them at or near to IDLE for at least __________ before selecting higher thrust settings. 

    • A.

      1 minutes

    • B.

      2 minutes

    • C.

      3 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 minutes
    Explanation
    To allow thermal stabilization of the engines, it is necessary to operate them at or near to IDLE for a certain period of time before selecting higher thrust settings. The correct answer is 2 minutes, as this is the recommended duration for thermal stabilization. This allows the engines to reach a stable temperature and ensures that they are ready for higher thrust settings without any risk of overheating or damage.

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  • 2. 

    To avoid power interruptions, it is recommended to wait __________ after the N2 stabilizes before shutting the APU down or GPU disconnection, or to use the Electrical Synoptic Page to follow the power transfer.

    • A.

      30 seconds

    • B.

      1 minute

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 seconds
    Explanation
    Waiting for 30 seconds after the N2 stabilizes before shutting down the APU or disconnecting the GPU is recommended to avoid power interruptions. This allows for a smooth power transfer and ensures that the electrical systems are stable before making any changes. Using the Electrical Synoptic Page can also help monitor the power transfer process.

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  • 3. 

    During start with low oil temperatures, the oil pressure may drop below the minimum oil pressure levels temporarily after start. If the oil pressure remains below minimum levels for more than ___________, the engine must be shut down and the oil heated.

    • A.

      1 minutes

    • B.

      2 minutes

    • C.

      3 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 minutes
    Explanation
    During start with low oil temperatures, the oil pressure may drop below the minimum oil pressure levels temporarily after start. If the oil pressure remains below minimum levels for more than 2 minutes, the engine must be shut down and the oil heated. This is because low oil temperatures can cause the oil to become thicker and less viscous, leading to a drop in oil pressure. If the oil pressure remains low for an extended period of time, it could indicate a problem with the oil system or a lack of proper lubrication, which could potentially damage the engine. Therefore, it is important to shut down the engine and heat the oil if the oil pressure remains below minimum levels for more than 2 minutes.

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  • 4. 

    TO PREVENT DAMAGE TO NACELLE COMPONENTS, DO NOT ALLOW THE HOT AIR FROM THE GROUND CART TO EXCEED ...

    • A.

      100°C

    • B.

      200°C

    Correct Answer
    A. 100°C
    Explanation
    To prevent damage to the nacelle components, it is important to not allow the hot air from the ground cart to exceed 100°C. Exceeding this temperature could potentially cause harm to the components, leading to malfunctions or failures. Keeping the temperature below this threshold ensures the safe operation and longevity of the nacelle components.

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  • 5. 

    DURING COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS, OIL PRESSURE PEAKS TO FULL SCALE MAY OCCUR DUE TO __________________. OIL PRESSURE SHOULD DECREASE AS THE OIL TEMPERATURE INCREASES. IF THE OIL PRESSURE REMAINS ABOVE NORMAL OPERATING RANGE, THE ENGINE SHOULD BE SHUTDOWN AND THE CAUSE INVESTIGATED. 

    • A.

      LOW OIL VISCOSITY

    • B.

      HIGH OIL VISCOSITY

    Correct Answer
    B. HIGH OIL VISCOSITY
    Explanation
    During cold weather operations, oil pressure peaks to full scale may occur due to high oil viscosity. As the oil temperature increases, oil pressure should decrease. If the oil pressure remains above the normal operating range, it indicates that there may be a problem with the engine, and it should be shut down and investigated.

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  • 6. 

    With all three hydraulic systems pressurized the Hydraulic P-BIT starts and takes about ___________ to complete.

    • A.

      One minute

    • B.

      Two minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. One minute
    Explanation
    The correct answer is one minute. This means that it takes approximately one minute for the Hydraulic P-BIT to complete when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized.

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  • 7. 

    Recommended taxi speed: - Straight / DRY:

    • A.

      30 kt

    • B.

      10 kt

    • C.

      5kt

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 kt
    Explanation
    The recommended taxi speed is 30 kt. This means that when taxiing on a straight and dry surface, it is recommended to maintain a speed of 30 knots.

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  • 8. 

    Recommended taxi speed: - Straight / WET or CONTAMINATED:

    • A.

      30 kt

    • B.

      10 kt

    • C.

      5 kt

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 kt
    Explanation
    The recommended taxi speed in wet or contaminated conditions is 10 kt. This is because wet or contaminated surfaces can reduce the grip and traction of the tires, making it more difficult to maintain control of the aircraft during taxiing. Therefore, a lower speed is recommended to ensure safe and controlled movement on the ground.

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  • 9. 

    Recommended taxi speed: - Turns / DRY:

    • A.

      30 kt

    • B.

      10 kt

    • C.

      5 kt

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 kt
    Explanation
    The recommended taxi speed is 10 kt. This speed is typically used when making turns on a dry surface. It is important to maintain a slower speed during taxiing to ensure the safety of the aircraft and to prevent any potential damage or accidents.

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  • 10. 

    Recommended taxi speed: - Turns / WET or CONTAMINATED:

    • A.

      30 kt

    • B.

      10 kt

    • C.

      5 kt

    Correct Answer
    C. 5 kt
    Explanation
    The recommended taxi speed for turns in wet or contaminated conditions is 5 kt. This is because wet or contaminated surfaces can reduce traction and increase the risk of skidding or sliding during turns. By reducing the speed to 5 kt, the pilot can maintain better control of the aircraft and minimize the chances of accidents or mishaps while taxiing.

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  • 11. 

    For economic and environmental reasons, FOD prevention, damage to other airplane and equipment in close proximity of the airplane, etc., it is desirable to limit the thrust to _______ as much as possible and avoid rapid accelerations and decelerations. 

    • A.

      30% N1

    • B.

      40% N1

    Correct Answer
    B. 40% N1
    Explanation
    To limit the thrust as much as possible and avoid rapid accelerations and decelerations, it is desirable to limit the thrust to 40% N1. This is because operating at a lower thrust level helps to reduce fuel consumption and emissions, leading to better economic and environmental performance. Additionally, limiting the thrust can also help prevent foreign object damage (FOD) to other airplanes and equipment in close proximity, ensuring safety and preventing costly repairs. Therefore, 40% N1 is the preferred option for achieving these goals.

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  • 12. 

    For normal operations a setting around _______ will be enough for ground maneuvering.

    • A.

      30% N1

    • B.

      40% N1

    Correct Answer
    A. 30% N1
    Explanation
    For normal ground maneuvering, a setting around 30% N1 will be sufficient. This means that the engine's rotational speed (N1) should be set at approximately 30% of its maximum power output. This setting allows for smooth and controlled movement on the ground without excessive power or speed.

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  • 13. 

    For straight ahead taxiing or for small changes of direction, the use of rudder pedal steering mode may be used. The maximum steering angle of rudder pedal is ...

    • A.

      +/- 7°.

    • B.

      +/- 17°.

    Correct Answer
    A. +/- 7°.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is +/- 7°. This means that the maximum steering angle of the rudder pedal is 7 degrees in either direction. This steering mode is typically used for straight ahead taxiing or for making small changes of direction.

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  • 14. 

    The ________ has the largest arc while turning and determines the minimum obstruction clearance path.

    • A.

      Wing tip

    • B.

      Tail tip

    Correct Answer
    B. Tail tip
    Explanation
    The tail tip has the largest arc while turning and determines the minimum obstruction clearance path. This is because the tail of an aircraft extends further back than the wings, so it requires more space to maneuver without hitting obstacles. The tail tip is crucial in calculating the minimum path needed to avoid any obstructions during turns.

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  • 15. 

    During ground operations of more than 30 minutes (including taxi in and taxi out) in icing conditions or if increased fan vibration due to fan ice accumulation is present, the engine thrust level must be increased momentarily to a minimum of ______________________________  or until fan vibe level returns to normal.

    • A.

      54% N1 and held at that thrust level for 30 seconds

    • B.

      64% N1 and held at that thrust level for 45 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 54% N1 and held at that thrust level for 30 seconds
    Explanation
    During ground operations in icing conditions or if increased fan vibration due to fan ice accumulation is present, the engine thrust level must be momentarily increased to a minimum of 54% N1 and held at that thrust level for 30 seconds, or until the fan vibe level returns to normal.

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  • 16. 

      The minimum recommended bleed duct pressure prior to start is 40 minus _______ for every 1000 ft above sea level.

    • A.

      0.5 psi

    • B.

      1.5 psi

    • C.

      2.5 psi

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5 psi
    Explanation
    The minimum recommended bleed duct pressure prior to start is 40 minus 0.5 psi for every 1000 ft above sea level.

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  • 17. 

    Engine start using pneumatic cart usually presents ________ ITT values. Consider performing a crossbleed start on the second engine.

    • A.

      Lower

    • B.

      Higher

    Correct Answer
    B. Higher
    Explanation
    When starting an engine using a pneumatic cart, the ITT (Interstage Turbine Temperature) values are usually higher. This means that the temperature of the air entering the turbine is higher, which can result in a more efficient and faster engine start.

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  • 18. 

    Hydraulic System: Warm up must be accomplished before starting the engines in case of reservoir temperatures below ...

    • A.

      - 8°C.

    • B.

      -18°C.

    • C.

      -28°C.

    Correct Answer
    B. -18°C.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is -18°C. In a hydraulic system, warm-up is necessary before starting the engines if the reservoir temperatures are below a certain level. The specific temperature mentioned in this case is -18°C. This indicates that the hydraulic system needs to reach a minimum temperature of -18°C before the engines can be started safely.

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  • 19. 

    In order to improve the chances of a successful engine start, the oil temperature should be raised to at least ...

    • A.

      -0°C.

    • B.

      -10°C.

    • C.

      -20°C.

    Correct Answer
    C. -20°C.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is -20°C. Raising the oil temperature to at least -20°C improves the chances of a successful engine start. This is because at lower temperatures, the oil becomes thicker and less viscous, making it harder for the engine to start and for the oil to flow properly. By raising the oil temperature to -20°C or higher, the oil becomes thinner and more fluid, allowing it to lubricate the engine components more effectively and aiding in a successful start.

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  • 20. 

     For EMBRAER 190/195 at speeds between _____________, a slight vibration may occur. If this vibration occurs, accelerating or reducing the speed to exit this speed range will improve passenger comfort.

    • A.

      17 kt and 21 kt

    • B.

      20 kt and 25 kt

    • C.

      25 kt and 29 kt

    Correct Answer
    A. 17 kt and 21 kt
    Explanation
    At speeds between 17 kt and 21 kt, a slight vibration may occur in the EMBRAER 190/195 aircraft. If this vibration occurs, it is recommended to either accelerate or reduce the speed to exit this speed range. Doing so will improve passenger comfort by eliminating the vibration.

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  • 21. 

    For EMBRAER 190/195 during ground operations of more than 30 min (including taxi in and taxi out) in icing conditions or if increased fan vibration due to fan ice accumulation is present, the engine thrust level must be increased momentarily to a minimum of ___ N1 and held at  that thrust level for 30 s or until fan vibe level returns to normal. The engine must be run up momentarily at intervals not to exceed 30 min.

    • A.

      44%

    • B.

      54%

    • C.

      64%

    Correct Answer
    B. 54%
  • 22. 

    When operating with flex takeoff thrust, thrust setting parameters used to establish thrust for takeoff are not considered as operating limits; thrust may be restored to the maximum available level during the takeoff if REF ATTCS was set to ON during takeoff data setting and at least one of the following events occur:

    • A.

      Difference between both engine N1 values is greater than 15%;

    • B.

      OEI (One Engine Inoperative);

    • C.

      Associated Thrust Lever is moved to MAX detent;

    • D.

      Press TOGA Switch

    • E.

      Windshear is detected.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Difference between both engine N1 values is greater than 15%;
    B. OEI (One Engine Inoperative);
    C. Associated Thrust Lever is moved to MAX detent;
    E. Windshear is detected.
    Explanation
    When operating with flex takeoff thrust, the thrust setting parameters used to establish thrust for takeoff are not considered as operating limits. This means that the thrust may be increased to the maximum available level during takeoff under certain conditions. These conditions include: a difference between both engine N1 values greater than 15%, one engine being inoperative, the associated thrust lever being moved to the MAX detent, the TOGA switch being pressed, or windshear being detected.

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  • 23. 

    Make sure that the thrust levers are set to TOGA position before ____, when HOLD mode is activated.

    • A.

      40 kt

    • B.

      50 kt

    • C.

      60 kt

    Correct Answer
    C. 60 kt
    Explanation
    Before activating the HOLD mode, it is important to ensure that the thrust levers are set to the TOGA (Takeoff/Go Around) position. This is because the TOGA position provides maximum thrust, which is necessary for a successful takeoff or go-around maneuver. Therefore, the correct answer is 60 kt, indicating that the thrust levers should be set to TOGA before reaching a speed of 60 knots.

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  • 24. 

    During takeoff, the _____ callout has three main proposes: pilot incapacitation check, airspeed crosscheck and the transition from Low to High Energy speed

    • A.

      60 kt

    • B.

      80 kt

    • C.

      100 kt

    Correct Answer
    B. 80 kt
    Explanation
    During takeoff, the 80 kt callout serves three main purposes. Firstly, it is used to check for pilot incapacitation, ensuring that the pilot is conscious and able to continue the takeoff. Secondly, it is used as an airspeed crosscheck, verifying that the aircraft is accelerating properly. Finally, it signifies the transition from Low Energy speed to High Energy speed, indicating that the aircraft has reached a critical speed for takeoff.

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  • 25. 

    CROSSWIND TAKEOFF   In case of strong crosswind, small lateral control wheel input may be used. Control wheel displacement greater than ___ results in increase in drag due to spoilers deployment.

    • A.

    • B.

    • C.

      12°

    Correct Answer
    A. 4°
    Explanation
    In case of strong crosswind during takeoff, a small lateral control wheel input may be used to maintain the aircraft's alignment with the runway. However, if the control wheel displacement is greater than 4°, it will result in an increase in drag due to the deployment of spoilers. This means that the spoilers will create additional drag, which can affect the performance and stability of the aircraft during takeoff.

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  • 26. 

    Weather Conditions: recommended VFS + _____ to clear low altitude turbulence.  

    • A.

      30 kt

    • B.

      50 kt

    • C.

      80 kt

    Correct Answer
    B. 50 kt
    Explanation
    The recommended VFS (Vertical Flight Speed) of 50 kt is suggested to clear low altitude turbulence. This means that flying at a speed of 50 knots will help the aircraft maneuver through turbulent weather conditions at low altitudes more effectively and safely.

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  • 27. 

      The CF34 Engines have two modes of climb thrust: - CLB-1: Maximum Available Climb Thrust; - CLB-2: Reduced Climb Thrust at sea level, corresponding to approximately ____ of Maximum Climb Thrust at sea level.

    • A.

      90%

    • B.

      80%

    • C.

      70%

    Correct Answer
    A. 90%
    Explanation
    The CF34 Engines have two modes of climb thrust: CLB-1 and CLB-2. CLB-1 provides the maximum available climb thrust, while CLB-2 provides reduced climb thrust at sea level. The answer is 90% because it is the percentage of maximum climb thrust at sea level that CLB-2 corresponds to.

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  • 28. 

    CALL OUTS: Rate of descent in excess of ___________ – CALL OUT: “SINK RATE”.

    • A.

      900 ft/min

    • B.

      1000 ft/min

    • C.

      1100 ft/min

    • D.

      1400

    Correct Answer
    A. 900 ft/min
    Explanation
    When the rate of descent exceeds 900 ft/min, the system will generate a "SINK RATE" call out. This means that the aircraft is descending at a faster rate than normal and may indicate a potential issue or danger. The correct answer is 900 ft/min because it is the threshold at which the call out is triggered.

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  • 29. 

    CALL OUTS: Airspeed above Target Speed _____ – CALL OUT: “SPEED”.  

    • A.

      + 5 kt

    • B.

      + 10 kt

    • C.

      + 15 kt

    Correct Answer
    B. + 10 kt
    Explanation
    If the airspeed is above the target speed by 10 knots, the call out "SPEED" should be made.

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  • 30. 

     CALL OUTS: Airspeed below Target Speed _____ or below VRF, whichever is higher – “SPEED”.

    • A.

      - 5 kt

    • B.

      - 10 kt

    • C.

      - 15 kt

    Correct Answer
    A. - 5 kt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is - 5 kt. This means that the call out for airspeed below target speed or below VRF (Visual Reference Speed) will be made if the airspeed is 5 knots or more below the target speed or VRF, whichever is higher.

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  • 31. 

     STABILIZED APPROACH The airplane should be stabilized by ______ AFE if in IMC conditions

    • A.

      500 ft

    • B.

      1000 ft

    • C.

      1500 ft

    Correct Answer
    B. 1000 ft
    Explanation
    The airplane should be stabilized by 1000 ft AFE if in IMC conditions. This means that by the time the airplane reaches 1000 ft above field elevation, it should be in a stable condition, with the correct airspeed, altitude, and configuration for landing. This is important in IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) conditions where visibility may be limited, as a stabilized approach allows for better control and reduces the risk of accidents.

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  • 32. 

      STABILIZED APPROACH The airplane should be stabilized by 1000 ft AFE if in IMC conditions and no lower than _____ AFE if in VMC conditions.

    • A.

      500 ft

    • B.

      1000 ft

    • C.

      1500 ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 500 ft
    Explanation
    In IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) conditions, it is recommended to stabilize the approach by 1000 ft AFE (Above Field Elevation). In VMC (Visual Meteorological Conditions) conditions, the airplane should be stabilized no lower than 500 ft AFE. This means that in clear weather conditions, the airplane should be stabilized at a higher altitude compared to when flying in instrument conditions. This ensures a safe and controlled approach to the landing.

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  • 33. 

      VAP setting The following method may be used for wind additive corrections to define VAP: (Click correct answer)

    • A.

      VAP = VRF + 1/2 steady crosswind component + gust increment

    • B.

      VAP = VRF + 1/2 steady headwind component - gust increment

    • C.

      VAP = VRF + 1/2 steady headwind component + gust increment

    Correct Answer
    C. VAP = VRF + 1/2 steady headwind component + gust increment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is VAP = VRF + 1/2 steady headwind component + gust increment. This formula is used to calculate the VAP (Velocity Additive Parameter) for wind additive corrections. It takes into account the VRF (Velocity Reference Frame), the steady headwind component, and the gust increment.

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  • 34. 

    For far ILS captures, the gear extension and landing flaps can be delayed, however the airplane must be configured with gear down and landing flaps prior to FAF or _____ from the threshold, whichever comes first. 

    • A.

      5 NM

    • B.

      8 NM

    • C.

      10 NM

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 NM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5 NM. For far ILS captures, the gear extension and landing flaps can be delayed, but the airplane must be configured with gear down and landing flaps prior to reaching 5 NM from the threshold or the FAF (Final Approach Fix), whichever comes first. This ensures that the aircraft is properly configured for landing before reaching a certain distance from the runway.

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  • 35. 

      ENGINE FAILURE DURING FINAL APPROACH FLAPS 5 Landing:

    • A.

      In most cases a 10 kt (No Ice) or 5 kt (Ice) additive will be enough to comply with the speed requirement for an OEI approach

    • B.

      In most cases a 15 kt (No Ice) or 10 kt (Ice) additive will be enough to comply with the speed requirement for an OEI approach

    Correct Answer
    B. In most cases a 15 kt (No Ice) or 10 kt (Ice) additive will be enough to comply with the speed requirement for an OEI approach
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that in most cases, a 15 kt (No Ice) or 10 kt (Ice) additive will be enough to comply with the speed requirement for an OEI (One Engine Inoperative) approach. This suggests that when an engine fails during the final approach, adding 15 knots of airspeed (in non-icing conditions) or 10 knots of airspeed (in icing conditions) will help meet the necessary speed requirement for the approach.

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  • 36. 

      ENGINE FAILURE DURING FINAL APPROACH FLAPS FULL Landing: What does the SOP says about this situation?

    • A.

      When landing with flaps FULL the airplane will already be in the required configuration for an OEI landing. Only a speed adjustment is necessary to continue the approach.

    • B.

      Usually it is recommended to go around, unless there is plenty of time to reconfigure the airplane, or if the crew judges that the safest course of action is to continue the approach in the same configuration.

    Correct Answer
    B. Usually it is recommended to go around, unless there is plenty of time to reconfigure the airplane, or if the crew judges that the safest course of action is to continue the approach in the same configuration.
    Explanation
    The SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) states that when landing with flaps FULL, the airplane is already in the required configuration for an OEI (One Engine Inoperative) landing. Therefore, only a speed adjustment is necessary to continue the approach. However, it is usually recommended to go around (abort the landing and make another approach) unless there is plenty of time to reconfigure the airplane, or if the crew judges that continuing the approach in the same configuration is the safest course of action.

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  • 37. 

      Full reverse thrust should be used when landing over wet, slippery and contaminated runways. Maintain maximum reverse thrust until the airspeed is approximately ____. Then smoothly reduce thrust reverse to MIN REV at 60 kt and idle thrust at 30 kt.

    • A.

      60 kt

    • B.

      80 kt

    • C.

      100 kt

    Correct Answer
    B. 80 kt
    Explanation
    Full reverse thrust should be used when landing over wet, slippery, and contaminated runways. This helps to maximize braking effectiveness and reduce the risk of hydroplaning. The aircraft should maintain maximum reverse thrust until the airspeed is approximately 80 kt. At this point, the thrust reverse should be smoothly reduced to MIN REV at 60 kt and then to idle thrust at 30 kt. This gradual reduction in reverse thrust allows for a smooth transition to normal braking and helps maintain control of the aircraft during landing.

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  • 38. 

    Rudder control is effective to approximately ...

    • A.

      40 kt.

    • B.

      60 kt.

    • C.

      80 kt.

    Correct Answer
    B. 60 kt.
    Explanation
    Rudder control is effective up to approximately 60 kt. This means that the rudder can effectively steer the aircraft up to a speed of 60 knots. Beyond this speed, the rudder may become less effective in controlling the aircraft's direction.

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  • 39. 

    LANDING ROLL At ___ press the brakes pedal to disengage the autobrake and use the necessary braking force to reach a safe taxi speed.

    • A.

      40 kt

    • B.

      55 kt

    • C.

      80 kt

    Correct Answer
    C. 80 kt
    Explanation
    At 80 kt, the pilot should press the brakes pedal to disengage the autobrake and use the necessary braking force to reach a safe taxi speed. This indicates that the correct speed at which the brakes should be engaged is 80 kt.

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