Embraer 190 - Flight Controls

In the normal mode, when the airspeed increases, the rudder gain is reduced by the FCM. This is done to compensate for the increase in rudder effectiveness caused by the higher airspeed. By reducing the rudder gain, the FCM ensures that the rudder surface is protected from excessive forces that could potentially damage it.

In this failure scenario, if the S/F Lever is commanded beyond position 2, the SF-ACE limits the Flap deflection to 10° and the SLAT-FLAP LEVER DISAG message displays. This means that the system automatically protects certain slat/flap combinations that would result in poor airplane controllability. Therefore, the SF-ACE does not command the Flaps beyond 10° when the Slats are below 15°. If the Slats are at or above 15°, the SF-ACE allows the Flaps to be commanded beyond 10°.

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The correct answer is that HAGL (Height Above Ground Level) is calculated via two radio altimeters. This means that the altitude above the ground is determined using two radio altimeters, which measure the distance between the aircraft and the ground. This method is more accurate and reliable compared to estimating HAGL by means of the vertical speed.

The Flight Control Module (FCM) uses an electrical servo-motor to actuate the Horizontal Stabilizer Actuator (HSA) for autopilot trim and speed brake auto trim. The servo-motor is controlled by the FCM to make adjustments to the position of the HSA, which in turn affects the trim and speed brake settings of the aircraft. The PCU may be another component involved in the system, but it is not specifically mentioned in the given statement.

The deployment of both slats and flaps surfaces is commanded by two SF-ACEs and operated using Power Driver Units (PDUs). Since the SF-ACEs are dual channel units, with one channel for flap control and one channel for slat control, it suggests that the deployment is done using electrical means rather than hydraulic.

The correct answer is 2 or above. This means that if the speed brakes are extended while approaching the aircraft, they will automatically retract when the slat/flap is selected at a speed of 2 or above. This is a safety feature to ensure that the speed brakes do not interfere with the operation of the slat/flap system during landing or takeoff.

When the elevator system is powered up, the P-ACE (Primary Actuator Control Electronics) automatically alternates the active actuator on each surface. This means that one actuator is active while the other is in standby mode. In the event of a loss of hydraulic supply, the standby Power Control Unit (PCU) becomes active to ensure the continued operation of the elevator system.

The feel units consist of a preloaded spring, which returns the columns to the neutral position. This means that even if the control columns commands separate, the feel system will still be active for the non-jammed column. The preloaded spring helps maintain stability and control in the aircraft's control system.

When the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) is the only source of electrical power, the SF-ACE (Slats and Flaps - Alternate Control Electronics) system operates at half speed because only one channel is available. In this situation, the SF-ACE also restricts the deployment of slats and flaps beyond position three. This limitation is imposed to ensure that there is sufficient airspeed for the RAT to function effectively.

The correct answer is three modes of operation: ROLL CONTROL, SPEED BRAKES AND GROUND SPOILERS. This means that Panels L3, R3, L4, R4, L5 and R5 can be used for roll control, speed brakes, and ground spoilers. These panels have the capability to perform multiple functions depending on the mode of operation selected.

After touchdown, the FCM (Flight Control Module) will command all multifunction spoiler surfaces to the 40 degrees extended position and the ground spoiler surfaces to 60 degrees.

The TSA function will be enabled for landing at estimated altitudes less than 70 ft. This means that the aircraft's Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) function will activate when the aircraft is descending below 70 ft, providing a warning if there is potential terrain or obstacle conflict. Additionally, it is necessary to have the flaps at position 5 or full for the TSA function to be enabled during landing.

The P-ACEs (Primary Air Data Computers) in the flight control system will switch to Direct mode with a fixed gain if there is a loss of airspeed information. In this mode, there are two fixed gains that are chosen based on the position of the flaps/slats.

The correct answer is that the LOW-SPEED FIXED GAIN is selected for Flaps/Slats extended. This is because during approach and landing, the pilot needs maximum authority over the rudder to control the aircraft effectively. By setting the rudder at maximum authority, the pilot can maintain control during low-speed operations.

The correct answer for both fill in the blanks spaces is "two" or "2". This means that after two unsuccessful attempts to select a position, the affected surface is de-energized. This is because the strike protection actuates and cuts the power to the affected surface if it fails to respond after two attempts.

The secondary flight control system consists of the horizontal stabilizer, flaps and slats, the multi-function spoiler (when used as speed brakes or ground spoilers), and dedicated ground spoilers. These components are responsible for controlling the aircraft's roll, pitch, and yaw axes, as well as providing additional lift and drag during various flight phases.

The correct answer is "nine Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs) and four Flight Control Modules (FCMs)". This means that the EMBRAER FBW system consists of nine ACEs and four FCMs. The ACEs are responsible for controlling the actuators, while the FCMs are responsible for controlling the overall flight control system. This configuration allows for redundancy and ensures that the system can continue to function even if some of the components fail.

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The correct answer is an electromechanical system. This means that the control of the horizontal stabilizer is achieved through a combination of electrical and mechanical components. These components work together to adjust the position of the stabilizer, allowing the pilot to control the pitch and stability of the aircraft. This system is commonly used in aviation to provide precise and reliable control over the aircraft's flight characteristics.

The correct answer is "Two". The explanation for this answer is that the rudder control system moves a single rudder surface attached to the vertical stabilizer. In order to control this rudder surface, there are two actuators, or PCUs, connected to it. These actuators are both electrically commanded and hydraulically powered. They receive signals from the rudder control's Fly By Wire system (FBW) to move the rudder surface and control the aircraft's yaw.

In case of an extremely improbable failure that would render complete loss of normal and emergency electrical power to the FBW, the backup power system will keep the appropriate number of elevator and rudder actuators operating for at least 15 minutes. This means that even if there is a failure in the electrical power system, the backup system will ensure that the necessary controls for the elevator and rudder are still functioning for a minimum of 15 minutes. There is no dedicated message to indicate the failure of this system, so the flight crew does not need to take any action if this happens.

The correct answer is "hydraulically". This means that the elevator surfaces are controlled and operated using hydraulic power.

Four flap actuators per side provide the actuation force to extend and retract the flap panels mounted on the trailing edge of each wing. The double-slotted flap consists of a main flap panel and an aft flap panel for both inboard and outboard flaps.

Electronic skew sensors monitor the differential movement between neighboring panels of the flap (slat). If the movement of a panel exceeds acceptable limits, the SF-ACES system shuts down the flap (slat) system. This is done to prevent any further damage or potential failure of the flap (slat) system.

The FCM units are connected to the P-ACE via the Controller Area Network Bus (CAN BUS), providing digital inputs to the P-ACE. This allows the FCM units to communicate with the P-ACE and share information such as airspeed and pilot inputs. The CAN BUS is used to combine pilot inputs with the digital inputs from the FCM units, augmenting pilot inputs for different airspeeds. Additionally, the CAN BUS enables high-level functions such as Angle-of-attack (AOA) limiting to be implemented by the P-ACE units.

The Avionics Standard Communication Bus (ASCB) provides data exchange between all FCMs (Flight Control Modules), and with other components of the avionic system. The FCMs are responsible for controlling various aspects of the aircraft's flight, such as navigation, autopilot, and engine management. The ASCB facilitates communication between these modules, allowing them to share data and coordinate their actions effectively.

The Electrical PBIT is a test that is automatically performed during power up after the airplane is powered by any AC source. It takes approximately 3 minutes to complete. If the FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED message is displayed, it means that the hydraulic built-in test must be performed.

Pitch axis control refers to the control of the aircraft's movement around its lateral axis, which affects its pitch or nose-up/nose-down attitude. This control is achieved through the use of electro-hydraulic commanded elevators, which are responsible for changing the aircraft's pitch by moving the horizontal stabilizer. The horizontal stabilizer itself is operated by an electro-mechanical system. Therefore, the correct answer is that pitch axis control is achieved through the use of both electro-hydraulic commanded elevators and an electro-mechanical horizontal stabilizer.

When the columns or a single AFU (Anti-Friction Unit) is disconnected, the feel loads on the column are reduced to one half of the normal loads. This means that there is less resistance or force exerted on the column, making it easier to move or manipulate.

The correct answer is "left & right inboard PCU." The power control units (PCUs) in this hydraulic system are driven by the left and right inboard PCUs. This means that the left and right inboard PCUs are responsible for controlling the power in this hydraulic system. The left and right outboard PCUs are not involved in driving this particular hydraulic system.

The correct answer is "Three." This suggests that there are three primary Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs) being referred to in the question. However, without further context or information, it is not possible to provide a more detailed explanation.

B is correct because the Flight Control System (FCS) in the EMBRAER 190 automatically adjusts control surfaces to optimize aerodynamics and prevent structural overload during high-speed flight. This helps maintain stability and performance as the aircraft encounters different flight conditions.

The aileron control system actuator is equipped with a timer that limits a single trim command to three seconds. This means that when the trim command is activated, the actuator will only adjust the aileron position for a maximum of three seconds before stopping. This helps prevent excessive or continuous trimming, ensuring that the ailerons are properly adjusted without causing any potential issues or imbalances in the aircraft's roll control.

The TSA function will be enabled for takeoff at estimated altitudes less than 20 ft. This means that the TSA function, which is likely a safety feature or protocol, will only be activated when the aircraft is at an altitude lower than 20 ft. It is important to have this function enabled at lower altitudes to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft during takeoff.

In GO AROUND scenarios, the TSA (Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption) calculation assumes that the airplane is in landing configuration. However, the elevator command authority, which controls the movement of the elevator, remains the same as the takeoff configuration. This means that even though the airplane is in landing configuration, the elevator command authority is set as if it were in the takeoff configuration.

The correct answer is Weight on wheels on ground, Wheel speed is above 45 kt or airspeed is above 60 KIAS and Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) below 26 degrees. This is because the multifunction spoiler surfaces are commanded to the full extended position only when all three conditions are met simultaneously. The weight on wheels on the ground indicates that the aircraft has landed, the wheel speed or airspeed being above certain values ensures that the aircraft is moving with sufficient speed, and the thrust lever angle below 26 degrees indicates that the engines are at a low power setting.

The correct answer is "electro-hydraulic or electro-mechanical actuators." This means that both the Primary Actuator Control Electronics (P-ACE) and/or Flight Control Modules (FCM) can be used to operate either electro-hydraulic or electro-mechanical actuators. These actuators are essential for controlling the movement of various components in a system, and they can be operated using either electrical or hydraulic mechanisms.

If any electric hydraulic pump is turned ON, if the FCP switches are cycled, or if AC power is interrupted while the test is running, the Electrical PBIT will be interrupted.

In normal or direct mode, the pilot's inputs to the elevators are directly transmitted through the cockpit control columns. This means that the pilot has direct control over the elevators and can manually adjust them as needed. Additionally, in this mode, the elevators can also be controlled automatically through the Flight Control Module (FCM) via the autopilot.

The correct answer is the main landing gear wheel. The explanation for this is that the TSA function controls the pitch angle of the airplane to avoid tail strikes during takeoffs and landings. The maximum pitch angle that can be achieved is determined by the height above ground level (HAGL) measured at the main landing gear wheel, not the nose landing gear wheel. Therefore, the main landing gear wheel is the correct answer.

When the pitch rate is negative, it means the aircraft is already pitching down. In this situation, there is no need for further pitch up elevator deflection. Therefore, the maximum pitch up elevator deflection is limited to 0°.

The function maximum pitch down authority is limited to 8° of elevator deflection, while pitch up is limited to Normal Mode commands generated by other fly-by-wire functionalities.

The spoiler deploys as a function of airspeed, reducing spoiler deployment with increasing airspeeds. This means that as the airspeed increases, the spoiler deployment decreases.

The aileron control is accomplished through a conventional cable system that transmits control wheel and autopilot inputs to the ailerons power control units. This means that the control inputs from the pilot or autopilot are transmitted through the cable system to the power control units, which then actuate the ailerons accordingly. The ailerons power control units are responsible for converting the control inputs into physical movements of the ailerons, allowing for precise control of the aircraft's roll motion.

The Power Up Built in Test (PBIT) is a feature that checks the functionality of various system components during power-up. In the context of the given question, the PBIT specifically reduces the exposure of the flight control system to latent faults. This means that the PBIT ensures that the flight control system remains capable of executing its functions by detecting and addressing any potential faults or issues.

The Hydraulic PBIT is a test that is performed automatically on the ground when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized. This test takes 1 minute to complete. It is important to note that if any flight control surface is moved during the test, it will be interrupted.

The hydraulic system responsible for powering the left outboard actuator is Hydraulic System 1.

The system uses electrical power to move the surfaces.

The primary flight control system consists of a combination of different components that are responsible for controlling the aircraft's movement along different axes. The ailerons and multi-function roll spoilers work together to control the roll axis, allowing the aircraft to bank left or right. The rudder is used for controlling the yaw axis, enabling the aircraft to turn left or right. The elevators are responsible for controlling the pitch axis, allowing the aircraft to climb or descend. These components are essential for maintaining stability and control during flight.

The correct answer is 1st: Backup switches, 2nd: Captain, 3rd: First Officer, 4th: FCM (auto-trim) commands. This means that the HS-ACE (Horizontal Stabilizer Augmentation and Control Electronics) system prioritizes the trim commands in the following order: first, it responds to the input from the Backup switches, then it responds to the input from the Captain, followed by the input from the First Officer, and finally, it responds to the auto-trim commands from the FCM (Flight Control Module).

The correct answer is 45 kt for at least 5 seconds. This means that after rollout, the spoilers will automatically retract if the wheel speed is below 45 kt for at least 5 seconds. Additionally, if the throttles are moved beyond 35 degrees after landing, the spoiler panels will also automatically retract.

The correct answer is left & right inboard actuators. This means that the hydraulic system 2 is responsible for powering the left and right inboard actuators. It does not power the left outboard or right outboard actuators.

The ETC function in the FCM (Flight Control Module) calculates the elevator thrust compensation based on the aircraft's N1 (engine speed), mach (airspeed), and pressure altitude. The elevator command is restricted to a maximum of 5°, both in the upward and downward direction. This limitation ensures that the elevator response is proportional to the deviation of engine thrust from the reference setting.

The maximum pitch down elevator deflection is limited to 8° in order to correct the airplane attitude by reducing its pitch rate. This means that the elevator can only move downwards by a maximum of 8° to adjust the pitch of the airplane and bring it back to the desired attitude. Going beyond this limit could potentially lead to instability or other undesirable effects.

B is correct because the Fly-by-Wire (FBW) system in the EMBRAER 190 replaces traditional mechanical linkages with electronic controls, enhancing stability, precision, and efficiency in flight control. 

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The spoiler control system deploys all six multi function spoiler panels symmetrically up to the in-flight limit of 30 degrees following the speed brake handle position.

The speed brakes will automatically retract anytime the thrust levers are advanced beyond 70 degrees of Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) in order to prevent inadvertent operation during a go-around maneuver.

The correct answer is estimated HAGL by means of the vertical speed. This means that the calculation of HAGL (Height Above Ground Level) is done using the vertical speed. This suggests that the aircraft's altitude above the ground is estimated based on the rate at which it is ascending or descending. This method is likely used when the radio altimeters are not available or not functioning properly.

In the event of a FCM failure, only the spoiler associated with the FCM turns to the direct mode. The other spoilers, however, remain in the normal mode.

The "Mode Selection" switch is used to reset the flight control system to Normal Mode when it defaults to Direct Mode or to manually default the system to Direct Mode when there is an incorrect gain computed by the FCMs. In this case, the switch toggles the Normal Channel of the active P-ACE to the Direct Channel of the standby P-ACE. This allows for a smooth transition between the two modes and ensures that the flight control system remains operational and responsive.

The correct answer is "electrical and hydraulic PBIT are in progress." This means that both the electrical and hydraulic Power-On Built-In Test (PBIT) are currently being conducted. The FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG status message is displayed to indicate that these tests are ongoing.

When the TOGA (Takeoff/Go-Around) mode is selected and the Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) is greater than 70°, it indicates that the pilot has chosen to initiate a go-around procedure. Additionally, the positive rate of climb being attained confirms that the aircraft is successfully climbing after the go-around is initiated. Therefore, the correct answer is that the TSA mode changes from landing to go-around when TOGA is selected (TLA greater than 70°) and positive rate of climb is attained.

The SLAT-FLAP LEVER DISAG warning indicates that one of the slat or flap surfaces has not reached the position selected on the lever. However, the non-affected surface continues to operate normally. This means that while one surface may be inoperative for the remainder of the flight, the other surface is still able to function as intended.

The given correct answer states that each SF-ACE unit has two channels, one for flap and one for slat. This means that there is a separate channel dedicated to controlling the movement of the flap and another channel dedicated to controlling the movement of the slat. Additionally, it is mentioned that one channel is active while the other is on standby, suggesting that there is redundancy in the system to ensure continuous operation even if one channel fails.

The correct answer is four. This means that a total of four P-ACE channels are used to independently control each of the PCUs. The P-ACE units implement the analog elevator control functions.

The slat/flap interlock is disabled on the ground.

The spoiler control system consists of ten spoiler panels numbered inboard to outboard.

In the direct mode, speed brakes are not available. This means that the pilot cannot use the speed brakes to slow down the aircraft during landing or other maneuvers. The speed brakes are a crucial component for controlling the speed of the aircraft, and their absence in the direct mode can limit the pilot's ability to safely operate the aircraft.

The correct answer is FCMs, P-ACEs and SF-ACEs. The Electrical PBIT is responsible for detecting out-of-tolerance conditions and failures in the FCMs (Fuel Control Modules), P-ACEs (Power Amplifier Control Electronics), and SF-ACEs (Signal Filter Amplifier Control Electronics). These components are crucial in the electrical system and their proper functioning is essential for the overall performance and safety of the system.

During normal operation, the backup battery is charged by the DC ESS 3 bus. The backup battery is made up of sealed lead acid cells that have built-in-test capability and an internal heater to ensure that the battery maintains a minimum temperature.

In such cases, when an excessive load is detected and the power to the respective PDU is stopped, the affected surface can be commanded in the opposite direction. This means that the surface can be moved back to its previous position or moved in the opposite direction to correct the issue. The FLAP (SLAT) FAIL message and the SLAT-FLAP LEVER DISAG indication are displayed because the affected surface has not reached the selected position due to the power being stopped.

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The correct answer is pair #5. This means that the Captain retains control of the left aileron and the right half of multi-function spoilers will remain available with normal artificial feel. This suggests that there is a problem with the First Officer's half of the system, but the Captain still has control over the left aileron and some of the spoilers.

If a disconnection of the trim actuator occurs, it means that the trim actuator is no longer functioning or connected. The trim actuator is responsible for adjusting the trim of the aircraft, which affects the lateral control and stability. Therefore, if the trim actuator is disconnected, the ability to adjust the trim and maintain proper lateral control will be lost.

Tail Strike Avoidance (TSA) commands are limited to a certain elevator deflection (in this case, 8°), which does not fully prevent tail strikes during takeoff or landing. To ensure adequate clearance and avoid tail strikes, pitch angles should be maintained below 15°, especially during takeoff rotation or landing flare. Exceeding this angle increases the risk of the aircraft's tail contacting the runway.