CT 1

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Computed Tomography Quizzes & Trivia

CT1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the recommended processor speed for basic Windows 2008 installation?

    • A.

      1 GHz.

    • B.

      2 GHz.

    • C.

      3 GHz.

    • D.

      4 GHz.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 GHz.
    Explanation
    The recommended processor speed for a basic Windows 2008 installation is 2 GHz. This speed is sufficient for running the operating system smoothly and handling basic tasks. Higher processor speeds like 3 GHz or 4 GHz may provide better performance for more demanding applications, but they are not necessary for a basic installation.

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  • 2. 

    Which one of the following statements is TRUE for service provider licensing agreement?

    • A.

      It is designed for educational institutions.

    • B.

      It is designed for companies that provide hosting services to other organizations.

    • C.

      It is designed to include Microsoft Office, desktop operating system and client access licenses.

    • D.

      It is designed to allows the user to pay a discounted fee for products used based on a 3 year forecast.

    Correct Answer
    B. It is designed for companies that provide hosting services to other organizations.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "It is designed for companies that provide hosting services to other organizations." A service provider licensing agreement is specifically tailored for companies that offer hosting services to other organizations. This type of agreement allows the service provider to legally use and distribute software products to their clients. It ensures that the service provider has the necessary licenses to offer these services and provides guidelines on how the software can be used and distributed. This agreement is not designed for educational institutions or for including specific software products like Microsoft Office. Additionally, it does not involve a discounted fee based on a 3-year forecast.

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  • 3. 

    Which one of the following general licenses is the best option for large organization like eBay in terms of cost-effectiveness?

    • A.

      Retail.

    • B.

      OEM.

    • C.

      3-users license.

    • D.

      Volume license.

    Correct Answer
    D. Volume license.
    Explanation
    A volume license is the best option for a large organization like eBay in terms of cost-effectiveness. This type of license allows for the purchase of a large number of software licenses at a discounted price. It is designed for organizations that need to install software on multiple devices or for a large number of users. By purchasing a volume license, eBay can save money compared to buying individual licenses for each user or device. This makes it the most cost-effective option for a large organization like eBay.

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  • 4. 

    Which one of the following is TRUE about running non-64-bit applications on a 64-bit Windows Server 2008?

    • A.

      It allows 16-bit applications to run only.

    • B.

      It allows 32-bit applications to run only.

    • C.

      It allows 16-bit and 32-bit applications to run.

    • D.

      It does not allow non-64-bit applications to run.

    Correct Answer
    B. It allows 32-bit applications to run only.
    Explanation
    Running non-64-bit applications on a 64-bit Windows Server 2008 allows only 32-bit applications to run. This means that any application that is not specifically designed for 64-bit architecture can still be executed on a 64-bit Windows Server 2008 as long as it is a 32-bit application. However, 16-bit applications cannot be run on this platform.

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  • 5. 

    Which one of the following group scopes cannot be assigned to user group?

    • A.

      Global.

    • B.

      Private.

    • C.

      Universal.

    • D.

      Domain local.

    Correct Answer
    B. Private.
    Explanation
    Private group scope cannot be assigned to a user group. Group scope determines the extent of the group's influence and visibility within a domain. The global scope allows the group to be used in any domain within the entire forest. The universal scope allows the group to be used in any domain within the forest, including trusted external domains. The domain local scope restricts the group's usage to the specific domain where it is created. However, the private scope does not exist in Active Directory and is not a valid group scope option.

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  • 6. 

    Which group type is security-enabled?

    • A.

      Open.

    • B.

      Public.

    • C.

      Security.

    • D.

      Distribution.

    Correct Answer
    C. Security.
    Explanation
    The group type "security" is the correct answer because it indicates that the group has security features enabled. This means that the group has access controls and permissions in place to protect its resources and data from unauthorized access. The "open" and "public" group types do not necessarily have these security measures in place, while the "distribution" group type is typically used for email distribution lists rather than security purposes.

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  • 7. 

    Which one of the following is TRUE about the command dsmod ?

    • A.

      It is used to create a new user in the Active directory.

    • B.

      It is used to delete an existing group in Active directory.

    • C.

      It is used to reset the password of an existing user in Active Directory.

    • D.

      It is used to create a new OU( Organizational Unit) in Active Directory.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is used to reset the password of an existing user in Active Directory.
    Explanation
    The command dsmod is used to modify existing objects in Active Directory, including resetting the password of an existing user. It does not create new users, delete groups, or create new OUs.

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  • 8. 

    Why internet-based routers do not forward packets that originate from machine that is assigned with the IP address 192.168.1.1/24?

    • A.

      Routers do not support classfull addressing.

    • B.

      Routers recognize that 192.168.1.1 is a private IP address.

    • C.

      Routers don’t forward packets originates from class C addresses.

    • D.

      Routers don’t forward packets from this IP address because of wrong subnet mask.

    Correct Answer
    B. Routers recognize that 192.168.1.1 is a private IP address.
    Explanation
    Internet-based routers do not forward packets that originate from a machine assigned with the IP address 192.168.1.1/24 because routers recognize that 192.168.1.1 is a private IP address. Private IP addresses are reserved for use within private networks and are not intended to be routed over the internet. Routers are designed to block the forwarding of packets from private IP addresses to ensure that private network traffic remains within the local network and does not interfere with public internet traffic.

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  • 9. 

    What can you conclude from the IP address 130.145.168.10 and subnet mask 255.255.248.0?

    • A.

      The size of the host portion is 8 bits.

    • B.

      The size of the host portion is 16 bits.

    • C.

      The size of the network portion is 21 bits.

    • D.

      The size of the network portion is 24 bits.

    Correct Answer
    C. The size of the network portion is 21 bits.
    Explanation
    The given IP address is 130.145.168.10 and the subnet mask is 255.255.248.0. The subnet mask determines the size of the network portion and the host portion of an IP address. In this case, the subnet mask has 21 consecutive 1s followed by 11 consecutive 0s. This means that the first 21 bits of the IP address are used for the network portion, while the remaining 11 bits are used for the host portion. Therefore, the size of the network portion is 21 bits.

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following is NOT the purpose of creating subnets in a network?

    • A.

      Increase the total number of hosts in a network.

    • B.

      Using a single class A, B or C network across multiple physical locations.

    • C.

      Reduce network congestion by segmenting traffic and reducing broadcasts on each segment.

    • D.

      Overcome limitations of exceeding the maximum number of hosts that each segment can accommodate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the total number of hosts in a network.
    Explanation
    The purpose of creating subnets in a network is not to increase the total number of hosts in a network. Subnetting is used to divide a large network into smaller subnetworks, known as subnets, which helps in reducing network congestion, improving network performance, and enhancing security. Subnets also allow for better management and organization of network resources. Increasing the total number of hosts in a network can be achieved by other means such as implementing network address translation (NAT) or using larger IP address ranges.

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  • 11. 

    Which DHCP packet is not part of the DHCP protocol lease-generation process?

    • A.

      DHCPACK

    • B.

      DHCPREQUEST

    • C.

      DHCPAVAILABLE

    • D.

      DHCPDISCOVER

    Correct Answer
    C. DHCPAVAILABLE
    Explanation
    The DHCPAVAILABLE packet is not part of the DHCP protocol lease-generation process. The DHCPACK packet is used by the DHCP server to acknowledge the lease request from the client. The DHCPREQUEST packet is sent by the client to accept the offered IP address. The DHCPDISCOVER packet is sent by the client to discover DHCP servers on the network. However, there is no DHCPAVAILABLE packet in the DHCP protocol.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following server services is to assign IP address dynamically in a network?

    • A.

      DSN

    • B.

      DHCP

    • C.

      NAT

    • D.

      SMB

    Correct Answer
    B. DHCP
    Explanation
    DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a server service that assigns IP addresses dynamically in a network. DHCP allows devices to automatically obtain an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and other network configuration settings from a DHCP server. This eliminates the need for manual IP address assignment and simplifies network management.

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  • 13. 

    What is ICANN?

    • A.

      Internet Consortium for Assigned Names and Numbers.

    • B.

      Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers.

    • C.

      Internet Community for Automatic Names and Numbers.

    • D.

      Internet Consultation for Auto-generation of Names and Numbers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers.
    Explanation
    ICANN stands for Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers. It is a non-profit organization responsible for coordinating and managing the domain name system (DNS) and IP address allocation. ICANN ensures the stable and secure operation of the internet by overseeing the distribution of unique identifiers, such as domain names and IP addresses. It also plays a crucial role in developing and implementing policies that promote competition, innovation, and accessibility in the global internet community.

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  • 14. 

    Why WINS is necessary on most networks?

    • A.

      It is the only way to resolve the hostnames.

    • B.

      All newer server operating systems require WINS.

    • C.

      WINS works well in a multi-platform network environment.

    • D.

      Users may rely on Network Neighborhood or My Network Places features on windows operating system.

    Correct Answer
    D. Users may rely on Network Neighborhood or My Network Places features on windows operating system.
    Explanation
    WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) is necessary on most networks because users may rely on Network Neighborhood or My Network Places features on the Windows operating system. These features allow users to easily browse and access shared resources on the network, such as files and printers. WINS helps resolve the hostnames of devices on the network, allowing users to access these resources by their names rather than their IP addresses. Additionally, WINS works well in a multi-platform network environment, making it a reliable choice for network name resolution.

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  • 15. 

    What is the top-level domain in the FQDN server1.research.east.digitalzoom.com?

    • A.

      Com

    • B.

      Server1

    • C.

      Research

    • D.

      Digitalzoom

    Correct Answer
    A. Com
    Explanation
    The top-level domain in the FQDN server1.research.east.digitalzoom.com is "com". The top-level domain is the last part of a domain name and represents the highest level of the domain hierarchy. In this case, "com" indicates that the domain is a commercial organization.

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  • 16. 

    How many subnets can be obtained from the network address 192.168.1.0/24 given that each subnet must support at least 75 hosts?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    The network address 192.168.1.0/24 has a subnet mask of 24 bits, which means it has 256 available IP addresses. However, each subnet must support at least 75 hosts, so we need to find the number of subnets that can accommodate at least 75 hosts. The closest power of 2 that is greater than or equal to 75 is 128, which requires 7 bits. Therefore, we can borrow 7 bits from the host portion of the IP address to create subnets. By doing so, we will have 2 subnets: one subnet with the network address 192.168.1.0/25 and another subnet with the network address 192.168.1.128/25.

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  • 17. 

    Which one of the following is an option that can be configured with the DHCP service?

    • A.

      Scope options.

    • B.

      User Accounts.

    • C.

      Domain controllers.

    • D.

      Network connections.

    Correct Answer
    A. Scope options.
    Explanation
    Scope options are configuration settings that can be customized within the DHCP service. These options define parameters such as IP address range, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS servers, and other network settings for the clients that receive IP addresses from the DHCP server. By configuring scope options, administrators can control and manage the network settings distributed to DHCP clients, ensuring proper network connectivity and functionality.

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  • 18. 

    Installation of WINS is done using the Server Manager and under the add ________ option.

    • A.

      Roles

    • B.

      Features

    • C.

      Configuration

    • D.

      Storage

    Correct Answer
    B. Features
    Explanation
    The installation of WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) is done using the Server Manager and under the "add Features" option. This means that in order to install WINS, one needs to go to the Server Manager, select the "add Features" option, and then proceed with the installation process.

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  • 19. 

    Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the default gateway of a host computer?

    • A.

      It is same as the IP address.

    • B.

      It is used for the loop-back testing.

    • C.

      It is the address of the administrator’s computer.

    • D.

      It is part of the IP address information a host receive from the DHCP server.

    Correct Answer
    D. It is part of the IP address information a host receive from the DHCP server.
    Explanation
    The default gateway of a host computer is part of the IP address information that the host receives from the DHCP server. The default gateway is the IP address of the router or network device that allows the host to connect to other networks outside of its own. It serves as the entry and exit point for network traffic from the host.

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  • 20. 

    _______ provide users with the access to files and folders over a network?

    • A.

      Database

    • B.

      Shared folder

    • C.

      Shared printer

    • D.

      Shared scanner

    Correct Answer
    B. Shared folder
    Explanation
    Shared folders provide users with the access to files and folders over a network. By sharing a folder, users can easily access and collaborate on files and folders stored on another computer or server. This allows for efficient file sharing and improves productivity in a networked environment.

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  • 21. 

    What role should you add-in through Server Manager console, before you run a Windows Server 2008 server as a print server?

    • A.

      File Services.

    • B.

      Web Services.

    • C.

      Print Services.

    • D.

      Email Services.

    Correct Answer
    C. Print Services.
    Explanation
    Before running a Windows Server 2008 server as a print server, you should add the "Print Services" role through the Server Manager console. This role enables the server to function as a print server, allowing it to manage and distribute printing services to client computers on the network. Adding the Print Services role ensures that the necessary components and features required for printing are installed and configured on the server.

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  • 22. 

    Which one of the following role should be installed before Windows Server 2008 can be used as a File Server?

    • A.

      File Service role.

    • B.

      Web Service role.

    • C.

      Telnet Service role.

    • D.

      DHCP Service role.

    Correct Answer
    A. File Service role.
    Explanation
    Before Windows Server 2008 can be used as a File Server, the File Service role needs to be installed. This role allows the server to provide file storage and sharing capabilities to network users. Without this role, the server would not have the necessary functionality to serve as a File Server.

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  • 23. 

    The device driver that converts the print jobs generated by applications into an appropriate string of commands for a specific print device is called ________.

    • A.

      LPR driver.

    • B.

      PCL driver.

    • C.

      HMS driver.

    • D.

      Printer driver.

    Correct Answer
    D. Printer driver.
    Explanation
    The device driver that converts print jobs generated by applications into an appropriate string of commands for a specific print device is called a printer driver.

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  • 24. 

    Which one of the following simplifies the process of locating files and folders on networked servers?

    • A.

      System Registry.

    • B.

      Remote File Services.

    • C.

      Distributed File System.

    • D.

      Distributed Server Manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Distributed File System.
    Explanation
    Distributed File System simplifies the process of locating files and folders on networked servers by providing a unified and transparent view of multiple file servers. It allows users to access files and folders from different servers as if they were stored on a single server. This eliminates the need for users to know the exact location of files and folders, making it easier and more efficient to navigate and manage files across a network.

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  • 25. 

    Administrator of large enterprise wants to keep track of print devices, which one of the following could help him do the job well?

    • A.

      Printer pool.

    • B.

      Internet Printing role.

    • C.

      Server Manager console.

    • D.

      Print Management Console.

    Correct Answer
    D. Print Management Console.
    Explanation
    The Print Management Console is a tool that allows the administrator to effectively manage and keep track of print devices in a large enterprise. It provides a centralized interface to monitor and control print queues, printers, and print servers. With this console, the administrator can easily view printer status, manage print jobs, configure printer settings, and troubleshoot any printing issues. This tool offers comprehensive functionality to ensure efficient print device management in the enterprise.

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  • 26. 

    What is the maximum size of database for SQL server 2008 Express edition?

    • A.

      1 GB.

    • B.

      4 GB.

    • C.

      8 GB.

    • D.

      12 GB.

    Correct Answer
    B. 4 GB.
    Explanation
    The maximum size of a database for SQL Server 2008 Express edition is 4 GB. This limitation is set by Microsoft for the Express edition of the software. If a database exceeds this size, it will not be able to grow any further. This limitation is in place to encourage users to upgrade to a higher edition of SQL Server if they require larger database sizes.

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  • 27. 

    How many CPUs does SQL Server 2008 Standard Edition supports?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    SQL Server 2008 Standard Edition supports up to 4 CPUs. This means that the software is designed to effectively utilize and manage the processing power of up to 4 CPU cores. Having more than 4 CPUs may not provide any additional performance benefits in the Standard Edition of SQL Server 2008.

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  • 28. 

    While installing SQL server 2008, which file format is recommended for formatting the hard disk?

    • A.

      NTFS.

    • B.

      FAT16.

    • C.

      FAT32.

    • D.

      HPFS.

    Correct Answer
    A. NTFS.
    Explanation
    NTFS (New Technology File System) is the recommended file format for formatting the hard disk while installing SQL server 2008. NTFS provides better security, reliability, and performance compared to other file systems like FAT16, FAT32, and HPFS. It supports larger file sizes, better file compression, and encryption. It also has built-in features like file and folder permissions, disk quotas, and disk compression. Therefore, NTFS is the preferred choice for formatting the hard disk when installing SQL server 2008.

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  • 29. 

    An existing user wants to change the email address of his account in a software application. Which SQL command will be used at the database of this application, in-order to perform this operation?

    • A.

      INSERT.

    • B.

      DELETE.

    • C.

      SELECT.

    • D.

      UPDATE.

    Correct Answer
    D. UPDATE.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UPDATE. The UPDATE command in SQL is used to modify existing records in a database table. In this scenario, the user wants to change the email address associated with their account, so the UPDATE command would be used to update the email address column in the user table with the new email address provided by the user.

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  • 30. 

    Database administrator wants to transfer data between databases, what tool can he use to perform this task?

    • A.

      Notepad.

    • B.

      Netbeans.

    • C.

      Dreamweaver.

    • D.

      SQL Server Management Studio.

    Correct Answer
    D. SQL Server Management Studio.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SQL Server Management Studio. SQL Server Management Studio is a tool specifically designed for managing and administering SQL Server databases. It provides various features and functionalities to perform tasks like transferring data between databases, creating and modifying database objects, writing and executing queries, and monitoring database performance. Notepad, Netbeans, and Dreamweaver are text editors and development environments that are not specifically designed for managing databases. Therefore, SQL Server Management Studio is the appropriate tool for the given task.

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  • 31. 

    List down 4 steps required before installing a NOS (Network Operating System).

    Correct Answer
    Determine disk partitioning option
    Plan user licensing
    Determine domain or workgroup
    Choose a computer name
    Explanation
    Before installing a NOS (Network Operating System), there are four steps that need to be completed. The first step is to determine the disk partitioning option, which involves deciding how the hard drive will be divided into separate sections. The second step is to plan user licensing, which involves determining how many users will be allowed to access the network and what permissions they will have. The third step is to determine whether the network will be set up as a domain or a workgroup, which affects how users and resources are managed. The final step is to choose a computer name, which is the unique identifier for the computer on the network.

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  • 32. 

    Which partition style is suitable for a boot-disk of a 64-bit Windows 2008 server operating system?

    Correct Answer
    GPT
    Explanation
    GPT (GUID Partition Table) is the suitable partition style for a boot-disk of a 64-bit Windows 2008 server operating system. GPT supports larger disk sizes and allows for more partitions compared to the older MBR (Master Boot Record) partition style. It is recommended for systems with UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) firmware, which is commonly found in modern computers. GPT also provides better data protection and reliability through its redundant partition table and checksum features.

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  • 33. 

    List 5 common editions of Windows Server 2008.

    Correct Answer
    Windows Web Server 2008
    Windows Server 2008 Foundation
    Windows Server 2008 Standard
    Windows Server 2008 Enterprise
    Windows Server 2008 Datacenter
    Windows Server 2008 for Itanium-Based Systems
    Windows Server 2008 HPC Edition
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes a list of 7 common editions of Windows Server 2008. These editions are Windows Web Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 Foundation, Windows Server 2008 Standard, Windows Server 2008 Enterprise, Windows Server 2008 Datacenter, Windows Server 2008 for Itanium-Based Systems, and Windows Server 2008 HPC Edition. These editions offer different features and capabilities to meet the needs of various organizations and users.

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  • 34. 

    State the range of the 3 classes of Private IP addresses.

    Correct Answer
    10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255
    172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255
    192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255
    Explanation
    Private IP addresses are used within a private network and are not routable over the internet. The range for the three classes of private IP addresses are as follows: 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255. These ranges are reserved for use in private networks and are not accessible from the public internet. They allow for a large number of unique IP addresses to be used within a private network without conflicting with public IP addresses.

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  • 35. 

    Calculate the maximum number of host IP addresses that can be obtained from the network address 192.168.30.0/24.

    Correct Answer
    254
    Explanation
    The given network address is in the form of 192.168.30.0/24, where /24 represents the subnet mask. In this case, the subnet mask is 24 bits, which means that the first 24 bits of the IP address are used to identify the network, and the remaining 8 bits are available for host addresses. Since there are 8 bits available for host addresses, the maximum number of host IP addresses that can be obtained is 2^8 - 2, where 2^8 represents the total number of possible combinations of 8 bits (256), and 2 is subtracted to account for the network address and the broadcast address. Therefore, the maximum number of host IP addresses that can be obtained is 254.

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  • 36. 

    What are the two types of Name Resolutions used in Windows Server 2008?

    Correct Answer
    NetBIOS resolution
    Host name resolution
    Explanation
    NetBIOS resolution and Host name resolution are the two types of Name Resolutions used in Windows Server 2008. NetBIOS resolution is used to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses, while Host name resolution is used to resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses. NetBIOS resolution is typically used in older Windows environments, while Host name resolution is the preferred method in modern Windows environments.

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  • 37. 

    What is the function of the Reverse Lookup Zone in a DNS Server?

    Correct Answer
    It is used to resolve an IP-address to a domain name
    Explanation
    The Reverse Lookup Zone in a DNS Server is used to resolve an IP address to a domain name. This means that when a user enters an IP address, the Reverse Lookup Zone allows the DNS server to provide the corresponding domain name associated with that IP address. This is particularly useful when troubleshooting network issues or when trying to identify the owner of a specific IP address.

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  • 38. 

    Database administrator of a company needs to install SQL server 2008. During installation he needs to select the authentication-mode. What are the two authentication modes available for him to choose?

    Correct Answer
    Windows authentication
    Mixed authentication
    Explanation
    The two authentication modes available for the database administrator to choose during the installation of SQL Server 2008 are Windows authentication and Mixed authentication. Windows authentication allows users to connect to the SQL Server using their Windows credentials, while Mixed authentication allows users to connect using either their Windows credentials or a SQL Server login and password.

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