Practice Exam III

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Practice Exam III - Quiz

A 150 question practice exam covering all subjects


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Patient safety and hospital efficiency and effectiveness are related to ____.

    • A.

      The type of computer system in use

    • B.

      The size of the hospital

    • C.

      Consistent communication

    • D.

      Clearer printing on all paper work

    Correct Answer
    C. Consistent communication
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 1—ORIENTATION TO SURGICAL TECHNOLOGY

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  • 2. 

    Preoperative diagnostic studies are performed by the ____.

    • A.

      Medical laboratory

    • B.

      Diagnostic imaging department

    • C.

      Pathology department

    • D.

      Emergency department

    Correct Answer
    B. Diagnostic imaging department
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 1—ORIENTATION TO SURGICAL TECHNOLOGY

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  • 3. 

    Treatment that might provide assistance for stereotactic surgery is the ____.

    • A.

      Medical laboratory

    • B.

      Diagnostic imaging department

    • C.

      ICU

    • D.

      Central supply department

    Correct Answer
    B. Diagnostic imaging department
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 1—ORIENTATION TO SURGICAL TECHNOLOGY

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  • 4. 

    When wWhen was the first national certifying exam for the surgical technologist offered?

    • A.

      Dec. 1970

    • B.

      Jan. 1954

    • C.

      Sept. 1992

    • D.

      Mar. 1981

    Correct Answer
    A. Dec. 1970
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 1—ORIENTATION TO SURGICAL TECHNOLOGY

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  • 5. 

    The needs or activities related to one’s identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being?

    • A.

      Social

    • B.

      Psychological

    • C.

      Physical

    • D.

      Physiological

    Correct Answer
    A. Social
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENT

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  • 6. 

    A uterine fibroid is an example of what type of factor causing surgical intervention?

    • A.

      Trauma

    • B.

      Genetic malformation

    • C.

      Nonmalignant neoplasm

    • D.

      Metabolic disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Nonmalignant neoplasm
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENT

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  • 7. 

    One of O One of the advantages to the life stage approach is that it ____.

    • A.

      Focuses on sexual development

    • B.

      Explains cognitive development

    • C.

      Does not require advanced levels of education to apply

    • D.

      Explains affective learning

    Correct Answer
    C. Does not require advanced levels of education to apply
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENT

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following considerations may be more relevant to the elderly patient than to an adolescent?

    • A.

      Patient’s skin condition

    • B.

      Informed consent

    • C.

      Environmental safety

    • D.

      Anesthetic agent

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient’s skin condition
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENT

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  • 9. 

    When positioning the elderly patient, the team must be especially aware of ____.

    • A.

      The patient’s need to do things independently

    • B.

      An overly modest attitude

    • C.

      The need for speed

    • D.

      Loss of mobility in joints

    Correct Answer
    D. Loss of mobility in joints
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENT

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following cannot be performed by the child of less than 6 months of age?

    • A.

      Shiver

    • B.

      Cry loudly

    • C.

      Urinate

    • D.

      Vomit

    Correct Answer
    A. Shiver
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENT

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  • 11. 

    Wha The What is the number of air exchanges required to keep the amount of airborne contamination in the OR to a minimum?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    A. 20
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENT

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  • 12. 

    The area where patients wait within the department before entering the OR is called____.

    • A.

      Anesthesia holding

    • B.

      Same day surgery

    • C.

      Postoperative holding

    • D.

      Preoperative holding

    Correct Answer
    D. Preoperative holding
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 5—PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENT AND SAFETY STANDARDS

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  • 13. 

    The abse The Absence of microbes or infection is called ____. The a

    • A.

      Sterile

    • B.

      Surgically clean

    • C.

      Decontamination

    • D.

      Disinfection

    Correct Answer
    A. Sterile
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 14. 

    The abs TThe contamination of a person or object by another person or object is called ____.

    • A.

      Cross contamination

    • B.

      Infection

    • C.

      Sepsis

    • D.

      Pathogenesis

    Correct Answer
    A. Cross contamination
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 15. 

    Methods used to prevent contamination of the sterile field are referred to as ____.

    • A.

      sporicidal

    • B.

      Sterile technique

    • C.

      Antisepsis

    • D.

      surgical conscience

    Correct Answer
    B. Sterile technique
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 16. 

    Escherichia coli normally resides in the lumen of the ____.

    • A.

      Esophagus

    • B.

      Trachea

    • C.

      Intestine

    • D.

      Urethra

    Correct Answer
    C. Intestine
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 17. 

    The primary source of airborne bacteria transmission in the operating room is the ____.

    • A.

      Patient

    • B.

      Anesthesia equipment

    • C.

      Surgical team

    • D.

      Electrocautery

    Correct Answer
    C. Surgical team
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 18. 

    Nonsterile items and individuals may ____.

    • A.

      Only contact nonsterile items

    • B.

      NOT contact any other item

    • C.

      Contact sterile items

    • D.

      Contact disinfected items

    Correct Answer
    A. Only contact nonsterile items
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 19. 

    The basis for the practice of strict adherence to sterile technique is called ____.

    • A.

      Microbiology

    • B.

      A positive care approach

    • C.

      Surgical conscience

    • D.

      Liability

    Correct Answer
    C. Surgical conscience
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 20. 

    The process that assures that all microorganisms including spores are killed is called ____.

    • A.

      High-level disinfection

    • B.

      Antisepsis

    • C.

      Virucidal

    • D.

      Sterilization

    Correct Answer
    D. Sterilization
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 21. 

    Filtered air from the decontamination room is exhausted to the ____.

    • A.

      Operating room

    • B.

      Patient’s room

    • C.

      Outside of the health care facility

    • D.

      Air filter system

    Correct Answer
    C. Outside of the health care facility
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 22. 

    A catalyst used to aid in the breakdown of organic material such as blood and tissue is a/an ____.

    • A.

      Iodine solution

    • B.

      Quaternary solution

    • C.

      Enzyme

    • D.

      Antiseptic

    Correct Answer
    C. Enzyme
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 23. 

    The ultrasonic washer is an example of a/an

    • A.

      Sterilizer

    • B.

      Mechanical decontamination unit

    • C.

      physical decontamination method

    • D.

      Bioburden

    Correct Answer
    B. Mechanical decontamination unit
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 24. 

    The ____ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.

    • A.

      Ultrasonic washer

    • B.

      CUSA

    • C.

      Wire brush

    • D.

      Gas sterilizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Ultrasonic washer
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 25. 

    An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for ____.

    • A.

      Semicritical items

    • B.

      Critical items

    • C.

      Microsurgical instruments

    • D.

      GI instruments

    Correct Answer
    A. Semicritical items
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 26. 

    Low-level disinfection may be appropriate for ____.

    • A.

      Semicritical items

    • B.

      Noncritical items

    • C.

      critical items

    • D.

      Low use items

    Correct Answer
    B. Noncritical items
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 27. 

    To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins (double basin) what must be done?

    • A.

      Separate with towel

    • B.

      Do not nest

    • C.

      Ensure metal to metal contact

    • D.

      Separate with plastic sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. Separate with towel
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUES

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  • 28. 

    The informed consent cannot be signed by the patient after ____.

    • A.

      Taking preoperative medications

    • B.

      Admission to the hospital

    • C.

      Preoperative education

    • D.

      preoperative shave

    Correct Answer
    A. Taking preoperative medications
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETY

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  • 29. 

    The presence of food or fluid in the stomach during surgery increases the danger of ____.

    • A.

      Postoperative infection

    • B.

      Increased blood pressure

    • C.

      Aspiration

    • D.

      Heart attack

    Correct Answer
    C. Aspiration
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETY

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  • 30. 

    The Kraske position is sometimes referred to as the ____ position.

    • A.

      Lateral kidney

    • B.

      Prone

    • C.

      Knee-chest

    • D.

      Jackknife

    Correct Answer
    D. Jackknife
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETY

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  • 31. 

    When utilizing the lateral kidney position, where should the kidney rest be positioned?

    • A.

      Under iliac crest

    • B.

      Under pelvic girdle

    • C.

      Under acetabulum

    • D.

      Under 12th rib

    Correct Answer
    A. Under iliac crest
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETY

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  • 32. 

    Approximately 60% of all surgical patients are affected by ____.

    • A.

      Surgical site infection

    • B.

      preoperative hypertension

    • C.

      Hypothermia

    • D.

      Dehydration

    Correct Answer
    C. Hypothermia
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETY

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  • 33. 

    A heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute may indicate NOT pathology but ____.

    • A.

      Heart attack

    • B.

      Hemorrhage

    • C.

      Fit athlete

    • D.

      Angina

    Correct Answer
    C. Fit athlete
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETY

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  • 34. 

    The ____ provides a ray and concentrated beam of light that is able to cut and coagulate tissues at the same time.

    • A.

      Cryo unit

    • B.

      Laser

    • C.

      Electrocautery

    • D.

      CUSA

    Correct Answer
    B. Laser
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETY

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  • 35. 

    When using a tourniquet, the surgeon should be notified when the tourniquet has been inflated for ____.

    • A.

      45 minutes

    • B.

      1 hour

    • C.

      90 minutes

    • D.

      2 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 hour
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETY

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  • 36. 

    A vasoconstrictor that is often mixed with local anesthetics is ____.

    • A.

      Hyaluronidase

    • B.

      Epinephrine

    • C.

      Cocaine

    • D.

      Bacitracin

    Correct Answer
    B. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETY

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  • 37. 

    Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological and/or physical dependence and abuse are called ____.

    • A.

      Over the counter

    • B.

      Chemical

    • C.

      Prescription

    • D.

      Controlled substances

    Correct Answer
    D. Controlled substances
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIA

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  • 38. 

    The transport of the drug substance that occurs once it enters the circulatory system is ____.

    • A.

      Binding

    • B.

      Distribution

    • C.

      Barrier

    • D.

      Absorption

    Correct Answer
    B. Distribution
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIA

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  • 39. 

    What organ is primarily responsible for the excretion of a drug?

    • A.

      Liver

    • B.

      Lungs

    • C.

      Kidneys

    • D.

      Intestines

    Correct Answer
    C. Kidneys
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIA

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  • 40. 

    Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain?

    • A.

      Opioids

    • B.

      Dissociative

    • C.

      Induction

    • D.

      Tranquilizers

    Correct Answer
    B. Dissociative
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIA

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  • 41. 

    Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ____.

    • A.

      Opioids

    • B.

      Dissociative agents

    • C.

      Narcotic antagonists

    • D.

      Hypnotic agents

    Correct Answer
    A. Opioids
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIA

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  • 42. 

    Patient position, and agent baricity can influence the effect of ____.

    • A.

      Nerve plexus

    • B.

      Local anesthetic

    • C.

      Spinal anesthetic

    • D.

      Caudal block

    Correct Answer
    C. Spinal anesthetic
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIA

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  • 43. 

    Lane, Kern, Lowman, and Lewin are examples of ____.

    • A.

      Grasping instruments

    • B.

      Tissue forceps

    • C.

      Bone-holding clamps

    • D.

      Hemostats

    Correct Answer
    C. Bone-holding clamps
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIES

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  • 44. 

    Instruments used to hold a curved suture needle for suturing are called ____.

    • A.

      Dilators

    • B.

      Probes

    • C.

      Retractors

    • D.

      Needle holders

    Correct Answer
    D. Needle holders
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIES

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  • 45. 

    General abdominal procedures typically require a(an) ____ instrument set.

    • A.

      OB-GYN

    • B.

      Laparotomy

    • C.

      Otorhinolaryngology

    • D.

      Peripheral vascular

    Correct Answer
    B. Laparotomy
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIES

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  • 46. 

    What surgical specialty requires an instrument set specifically for dilatation and curettage?

    • A.

      Abdominal

    • B.

      OB-GYN

    • C.

      Orthopedic

    • D.

      Cardiac

    Correct Answer
    B. OB-GYN
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIES

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  • 47. 

    Sets that include instruments for exposure of the heart and great vessels are used for ____ procedures.

    • A.

      genitourinary

    • B.

      Orthopedic

    • C.

      Coronary bypass

    • D.

      OB-GYN

    Correct Answer
    C. Coronary bypass
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIES

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  • 48. 

    Scopes typically used for cystoscopy, laparoscopy, and thoracoscopy are called ____.

    • A.

      Rigid

    • B.

      Semiflexible

    • C.

      Flexible

    • D.

      Lensed

    Correct Answer
    A. Rigid
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIES

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  • 49. 

    The scope used for exploration of the biliary system is called a(an) ____.

    • A.

      Choledochoscope

    • B.

      Mediastinoscope

    • C.

      Ureteroscope

    • D.

      Angioscope

    Correct Answer
    A. Choledochoscope
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIES

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  • 50. 

    An intentional cut through intact tissue for the purpose of exposing or excising underlying structures is called a/an ____.

    • A.

      Excision

    • B.

      Incision

    • C.

      Laceration

    • D.

      Cut

    Correct Answer
    B. Incision
    Explanation
    CHAPTER 11—WOUND HEALING, SUTURES, NEEDLES, AND STAPLING DEVICES

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  • Current Version
  • Nov 23, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 09, 2008
    Quiz Created by
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