Practice Exam III
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A 150 question practice exam covering all subjects
- 1.
- A.
The type of computer system in use
- B.
The size of the hospital
- C.
Consistent communication
- D.
Clearer printing on all paper work
- 2.Preoperative diagnostic studies are performed by the ____.
- A.
Medical laboratory
- B.
Diagnostic imaging department
- C.
Pathology department
- D.
Emergency department
- 3.
- A.
Medical laboratory
- B.
Diagnostic imaging department
- C.
ICU
- D.
Central supply department
- 4.When wWhen was the first national certifying exam for the surgical technologist offered?
- A.
Dec. 1970
- B.
Jan. 1954
- C.
Sept. 1992
- D.
Mar. 1981
- 5.The needs or activities related to one’s identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being?
- A.
Social
- B.
Psychological
- C.
Physical
- D.
Physiological
- 6.A uterine fibroid is an example of what type of factor causing surgical intervention?
- A.
Trauma
- B.
Genetic malformation
- C.
Nonmalignant neoplasm
- D.
Metabolic disease
- 7.One of O One of the advantages to the life stage approach is that it ____.
- A.
Focuses on sexual development
- B.
Explains cognitive development
- C.
Does not require advanced levels of education to apply
- D.
Explains affective learning
- 8.Which of the following considerations may be more relevant to the elderly patient than to an adolescent?
- A.
Patient’s skin condition
- B.
Informed consent
- C.
Environmental safety
- D.
Anesthetic agent
- 9.When positioning the elderly patient, the team must be especially aware of ____.
- A.
The patient’s need to do things independently
- B.
An overly modest attitude
- C.
The need for speed
- D.
Loss of mobility in joints
- 10.Which of the following cannot be performed by the child of less than 6 months of age?
- A.
Shiver
- B.
Cry loudly
- C.
Urinate
- D.
Vomit
- 11.Wha The What is the number of air exchanges required to keep the amount of airborne contamination in the OR to a minimum?
- A.
20
- B.
30
- C.
60
- D.
120
- 12.The area where patients wait within the department before entering the OR is called____.
- A.
Anesthesia holding
- B.
Same day surgery
- C.
Postoperative holding
- D.
Preoperative holding
- 13.The abse The Absence of microbes or infection is called ____. The a
- A.
Sterile
- B.
Surgically clean
- C.
Decontamination
- D.
Disinfection
- 14.The abs TThe contamination of a person or object by another person or object is called ____.
- A.
Cross contamination
- B.
Infection
- C.
Sepsis
- D.
Pathogenesis
- 15.Methods used to prevent contamination of the sterile field are referred to as ____.
- A.
sporicidal
- B.
Sterile technique
- C.
Antisepsis
- D.
surgical conscience
- 16.Escherichia coli normally resides in the lumen of the ____.
- A.
Esophagus
- B.
Trachea
- C.
Intestine
- D.
Urethra
- 17.The primary source of airborne bacteria transmission in the operating room is the ____.
- A.
Patient
- B.
Anesthesia equipment
- C.
Surgical team
- D.
Electrocautery
- 18.Nonsterile items and individuals may ____.
- A.
Only contact nonsterile items
- B.
NOT contact any other item
- C.
Contact sterile items
- D.
Contact disinfected items
- 19.The basis for the practice of strict adherence to sterile technique is called ____.
- A.
Microbiology
- B.
A positive care approach
- C.
Surgical conscience
- D.
Liability
- 20.The process that assures that all microorganisms including spores are killed is called ____.
- A.
High-level disinfection
- B.
Antisepsis
- C.
Virucidal
- D.
Sterilization
- 21.Filtered air from the decontamination room is exhausted to the ____.
- A.
Operating room
- B.
Patient’s room
- C.
Outside of the health care facility
- D.
Air filter system
- 22.A catalyst used to aid in the breakdown of organic material such as blood and tissue is a/an ____.
- A.
Iodine solution
- B.
Quaternary solution
- C.
Enzyme
- D.
Antiseptic
- 23.The ultrasonic washer is an example of a/an
- A.
Sterilizer
- B.
Mechanical decontamination unit
- C.
physical decontamination method
- D.
Bioburden
- 24.The ____ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.
- A.
Ultrasonic washer
- B.
CUSA
- C.
Wire brush
- D.
Gas sterilizer
- 25.An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for ____.
- A.
Semicritical items
- B.
Critical items
- C.
Microsurgical instruments
- D.
GI instruments
- 26.Low-level disinfection may be appropriate for ____.
- A.
Semicritical items
- B.
Noncritical items
- C.
critical items
- D.
Low use items
- 27.To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins (double basin) what must be done?
- A.
Separate with towel
- B.
Do not nest
- C.
Ensure metal to metal contact
- D.
Separate with plastic sheet
- 28.The informed consent cannot be signed by the patient after ____.
- A.
Taking preoperative medications
- B.
Admission to the hospital
- C.
Preoperative education
- D.
preoperative shave
- 29.The presence of food or fluid in the stomach during surgery increases the danger of ____.
- A.
Postoperative infection
- B.
Increased blood pressure
- C.
Aspiration
- D.
Heart attack
- 30.The Kraske position is sometimes referred to as the ____ position.
- A.
Lateral kidney
- B.
Prone
- C.
Knee-chest
- D.
Jackknife
- 31.When utilizing the lateral kidney position, where should the kidney rest be positioned?
- A.
Under iliac crest
- B.
Under pelvic girdle
- C.
Under acetabulum
- D.
Under 12th rib
- 32.Approximately 60% of all surgical patients are affected by ____.
- A.
Surgical site infection
- B.
preoperative hypertension
- C.
Hypothermia
- D.
Dehydration
- 33.A heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute may indicate NOT pathology but ____.
- A.
Heart attack
- B.
Hemorrhage
- C.
Fit athlete
- D.
Angina
- 34.The ____ provides a ray and concentrated beam of light that is able to cut and coagulate tissues at the same time.
- A.
Cryo unit
- B.
Laser
- C.
Electrocautery
- D.
CUSA
- 35.When using a tourniquet, the surgeon should be notified when the tourniquet has been inflated for ____.
- A.
45 minutes
- B.
1 hour
- C.
90 minutes
- D.
2 hours
- 36.A vasoconstrictor that is often mixed with local anesthetics is ____.
- A.
Hyaluronidase
- B.
Epinephrine
- C.
Cocaine
- D.
Bacitracin
- 37.Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological and/or physical dependence and abuse are called ____.
- A.
Over the counter
- B.
Chemical
- C.
Prescription
- D.
Controlled substances
- 38.The transport of the drug substance that occurs once it enters the circulatory system is ____.
- A.
Binding
- B.
Distribution
- C.
Barrier
- D.
Absorption
- 39.What organ is primarily responsible for the excretion of a drug?
- A.
Liver
- B.
Lungs
- C.
Kidneys
- D.
Intestines
- 40.Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain?
- A.
Opioids
- B.
Dissociative
- C.
Induction
- D.
Tranquilizers
- 41.Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ____.
- A.
Opioids
- B.
Dissociative agents
- C.
Narcotic antagonists
- D.
Hypnotic agents
- 42.Patient position, and agent baricity can influence the effect of ____.
- A.
Nerve plexus
- B.
Local anesthetic
- C.
Spinal anesthetic
- D.
Caudal block
- 43.Lane, Kern, Lowman, and Lewin are examples of ____.
- A.
Grasping instruments
- B.
Tissue forceps
- C.
Bone-holding clamps
- D.
Hemostats
- 44.Instruments used to hold a curved suture needle for suturing are called ____.
- A.
Dilators
- B.
Probes
- C.
Retractors
- D.
Needle holders
- 45.General abdominal procedures typically require a(an) ____ instrument set.
- A.
OB-GYN
- B.
Laparotomy
- C.
Otorhinolaryngology
- D.
Peripheral vascular
- 46.What surgical specialty requires an instrument set specifically for dilatation and curettage?
- A.
Abdominal
- B.
OB-GYN
- C.
Orthopedic
- D.
Cardiac
- 47.Sets that include instruments for exposure of the heart and great vessels are used for ____ procedures.
- A.
genitourinary
- B.
Orthopedic
- C.
Coronary bypass
- D.
OB-GYN
- 48.Scopes typically used for cystoscopy, laparoscopy, and thoracoscopy are called ____.
- A.
Rigid
- B.
Semiflexible
- C.
Flexible
- D.
Lensed
- 49.The scope used for exploration of the biliary system is called a(an) ____.
- A.
Choledochoscope
- B.
Mediastinoscope
- C.
Ureteroscope
- D.
Angioscope
- 50.An intentional cut through intact tissue for the purpose of exposing or excising underlying structures is called a/an ____.
- A.
Excision
- B.
Incision
- C.
Laceration
- D.
Cut
- 51.Which of the following involves irrigation to wash out contaminants and removal of devitalized tissue?
- A.
draining
- B.
Debridement
- C.
Incision
- D.
Closure
- 52.Healing where the wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inner layer to the outside surface is ____.
- A.
first intention
- B.
Second intention
- C.
Third intention
- D.
Primary union
- 53.Raised, thickened scar due to excessive collagen formation is called ____.
- A.
Cicatrix
- B.
keloid
- C.
Proud flesh
- D.
Tensile strength
- 54.The partial or total separation of a layer or layers of tissue after closure is called ____.
- A.
Dehiscence
- B.
Evisceration
- C.
Herniation
- D.
Fistula
- 55.A primary suture line consisting of a single strand of suture placed as a series of stitches is called ____.
- A.
Interlocking
- B.
Looped
- C.
Continuous
- D.
Interrupted
- 56.Sutures placed into an anatomical structure to retract to the side are called ____.
- A.
traction
- B.
Purse-string
- C.
Secondary
- D.
Retention
- 57.The suture is attached to the needle at the ____.
- A.
Eye
- B.
Point
- C.
Body
- D.
End
- 58.Needles manufactured with suture strands inserted into one end are ____.
- A.
Closed eye
- B.
French eye
- C.
Swaged
- D.
trocar
- 59.The needle used for tough tissue that is difficult to penetrate is called ____.
- A.
tapered
- B.
Cutting
- C.
Blunt
- D.
Pointed
- 60.The method in which hands and arms are scrubbed for a prescribed length of time is called ____.
- A.
Timed
- B.
Counted brush stroke
- C.
Peripheral
- D.
Inspection
- 61.The closed-glove technique is used ____.
- A.
Before the surgical scrub
- B.
Before the sterile gown is donned
- C.
After the sterile gown has been donned
- D.
After mask is donned
- 62.Angiography is used to ____.
- A.
Evaluate the heart
- B.
Assess peripheral vascular disease
- C.
Detect ureteral stones
- D.
Image soft tissue
- 63.Cholangiography is a radiographic study of the ____.
- A.
Colon
- B.
Gall bladder
- C.
Stomach
- D.
Brain
- 64.The normal percentage of oxygen saturation in arterial blood is ____.
- A.
96% to 100% of capacity
- B.
90% to 95% of capacity
- C.
85% to 89% of capacity
- D.
80% to 84% of capacity
- 65.The ____ is the physician who will provide a biopsy report.
- A.
General surgeon
- B.
Family practitioner
- C.
Pathologist
- D.
Oncologist
- 66.The gram stain is a technique used to identify a ____.
- A.
Virus
- B.
Bacteria
- C.
Mold
- D.
Prion
- 67.Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of ____.
- A.
Pulse oximetry
- B.
Capnography
- C.
Spirometry
- D.
Plethysmography
- 68.An otoscope is used for viewing the ____.
- A.
Peritoneal cavity
- B.
eye
- C.
Brain
- D.
Ear
- 69.For which portion of the body is Renografin most often used?
- A.
urinary system
- B.
biliary tree
- C.
Ureters
- D.
Cerebral portal
- 70.Which vein is frequently used for insertion of an angiographic catheter?
- A.
Radial
- B.
Subclavian
- C.
Cephalic
- D.
Saphenous
- 71.Which of the following is a function of the omenta?
- A.
Synthesize vitamins
- B.
Limit peritoneal infection
- C.
Aid in digestion
- D.
Synthesize blood-clotting factors
- 72.In what position is the patient placed when McBurney’s incision will be used?
- A.
supine
- B.
Prone
- C.
Lateral
- D.
Lithotomy
- 73.A diaphragmatic hernia is located ____.
- A.
On the ventral body surface
- B.
Around the umbilicus
- C.
In the diaphragm
- D.
In the groin
- 74.Which type of hernia is located within Hesselbach’s triangle?
- A.
Indirect
- B.
Congenital
- C.
Epigastric
- D.
Direct
- 75.Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed to correct a/an ____.
- A.
Gastric ulcer
- B.
Inguinal hernia
- C.
Hiatal hernia
- D.
Ruptured tubal pregnancy
- 76.An end ileostomy is created from the ____.
- A.
Transverse colon
- B.
Descending colon
- C.
Terminal ileum
- D.
Sigmoid colon
- 77.Removal of the gallbladder is called ____.
- A.
Cholecystectomy
- B.
Choledochojejunostomy
- C.
Cholelithiasis
- D.
Colectomy
- 78.The condition of gallstones is called ____.
- A.
Pyelolithiasis
- B.
Cholelithiasis
- C.
Cystolithiasis
- D.
Ureterolithiasis
- 79.What position is used to displace the abdominal contents to enhance the surgeon’s view of the lower abdominal region?
- A.
Trendelenburg
- B.
Lateral
- C.
Fowler’s
- D.
Reverse Trendelenburg
- 80.Whipple pancreaticoduodenectomy involves removal of the ____.
- A.
Head of the pancreas, distal one-third of the stomach, duodenum, proximal 10 cm of jejunum, gallbladder, cystic and common bile ducts, and peripancreatic and hepatoduodenal lymph nodes
- B.
Tail of the pancreas, proximal one-third of the stomach, duodenum, distal 10 cm of jejunum, gallbladder, cystic and hepatic ducts, and peripancreatic and hepatoduodenal lymph nodes
- C.
Pancreas, stomach, cecum, ileum, bladder, hepatic and cystic ducts, and periaortic lymph nodes
- D.
islets of Langerhans, spleen, stomach, duodenum, colon, cystic and common bile ducts, and peripancreatic and hepatoduodenal lymph nodes
- 81.Bartholin’s glands are located ____.
- A.
Just inside the urethral meatus
- B.
within the vestibule
- C.
in the labia majora
- D.
At the hymenal ring
- 82.What causes the descent of the fetus through the pelvic canal?
- A.
Gravity
- B.
Uterine contractions
- C.
Size of the fetus
- D.
Manual compressions
- 83.All of the following are parts of the uterus except the ____.
- A.
Fundus
- B.
Fimbriae
- C.
Corpus
- D.
Cervix
- 84.A fibroid is a benign tumor of the ____.
- A.
Ovary
- B.
Myometrium
- C.
Endometrium
- D.
Bartholin’s gland
- 85.Indigo carmine is used following tuboplasty to demonstrate ____.
- A.
Tubal patency
- B.
Ectopic pregnancy
- C.
Adhesion formation
- D.
Continued infertility
- 86.
- A.
Remove powder from gloves
- B.
Ensure saline is available for irrigation
- C.
Provide saline soaked lap sponges
- D.
Ensure drain is available for placement
- 87.The anterior chamber is the space ____.
- A.
Bound anteriorly by the cornea and posteriorly by the front of the iris
- B.
Bound by the lens, ciliary body, and the retina
- C.
Occupied by the crystalline lens
- D.
Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the crystalline lens
- 88.Which term refers to complete removal of the eye?
- A.
Vitrectomy
- B.
Enucleation
- C.
Lensectomy
- D.
Evisceration
- 89.The posterior chamber is the space ____.
- A.
Bound anteriorly by the cornea and posteriorly by the front of the iris
- B.
Bound by the lens, ciliary body, and the retina
- C.
Occupied by the crystalline lens
- D.
Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the crystalline lens
- 90.The trigeminal nerve is also known as the ____.
- A.
Fifth cranial nerve
- B.
optic nerve
- C.
Third cranial nerve
- D.
Oculomotor nerve
- 91.The process of accommodation is described as ____.
- A.
Light refraction
- B.
Focus
- C.
Formation of tears
- D.
Dark adaptation
- 92.The nasolacrimal duct drains into the ____.
- A.
Lacrimal sac
- B.
Puncta lachrymalia
- C.
Inferior meatus of the nose
- D.
Lacrimal canals
- 93.What does the term dacryocystitis mean?
- A.
Obstruction of the lacrimal duct
- B.
Inflammation of the lacrimal sac
- C.
Opacity of the crystalline lens
- D.
Small lump on the surface of the eyelid
- 94.Cryotherapy involves the utilization of ____.
- A.
Radiation
- B.
Heat
- C.
Cold
- D.
Electrocautery
- 95.What is the superior opening into the larynx called?
- A.
Carina
- B.
Palate
- C.
Cochlea
- D.
Glottis
- 96.Name the three sections of the pharynx.
- A.
Nasopharynx, trachea, tonsil
- B.
nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx
- C.
Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
- D.
pharyngeal tonsils, laryngopharynx, nasopharynx
- 97.The organs of Corti are located along the length of the ____ membrane.
- A.
Tectorial
- B.
tonsilar
- C.
Basilar
- D.
Vestibular
- 98.What structures are removed during UPPP?
- A.
Tonsils, adenoids, uvula, portion of the soft palate
- B.
Adenoids, tongue, lingual tonsils, portion of the soft palate
- C.
Tonsils, adenoids, nasal cartilage, all of the soft palate
- D.
Adenoids, tonsils, tonsillar fossa, nasal cartilage
- 99.What fluid fills the spaces of the bony labyrinth?
- A.
Endolymph
- B.
Lymph
- C.
Perilymph
- D.
Periosteum
- 100.The seventh cranial nerve is also called the ____.
- A.
Vestibulocochlear nerve
- B.
Facial nerve
- C.
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
- D.
Vagus nerve
- 101.Another name for the malar bone is ____.
- A.
Orbital
- B.
Ethmoid
- C.
Zygomatic
- D.
Sphenoid
- 102.A craniotome with perforator attachment is used to ____.
- A.
Harvest a rib graft
- B.
Open the dura
- C.
Create a burr hole
- D.
Repair cranial defects
- 103.Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?
- A.
bronchodilation
- B.
Vasoconstriction
- C.
Analgesia
- D.
Anticoagulant
- 104.The skin is a ____.
- A.
mucous membrane
- B.
cutaneous membrane
- C.
Synovial membrane
- D.
Serous membrane
- 105.If skin is taken from an unburned area of the patient and used as a transplant, it is called a/an ____.
- A.
Autograft
- B.
Homograft
- C.
Heterograft
- D.
Dermagraft
- 106.Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist?
- A.
Abductor pollicis brevis
- B.
Extensor digitorum
- C.
Palmaris longus
- D.
Adductor pollicis
- 107.What medical term refers to the condition in which the digits of the hands or feet fail to separate?
- A.
Radial dysplasia
- B.
Polydactyly
- C.
Syndactyly
- D.
Clubhand
- 108.The condition causing the contraction of palmar fascia is known as ____.
- A.
De Quervain's disease
- B.
Dupuytren's disease
- C.
Trigger finger
- D.
Carpal tunnel
- 109.A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is a ____.
- A.
Blepharoplasty
- B.
Suction lipectomy
- C.
Rhinoplasty
- D.
Augmentation
- 110.Which procedure is not typically done under local anesthetic?
- A.
Blepharoplasty
- B.
Rhytidectomy
- C.
Rhinoplasty
- D.
Breast augmentation
- 111.Which of the following is a synovial fluid filled cyst that can arise from a tendon sheath or wrist joint?
- A.
Ganglion cyst
- B.
Trigger finger
- C.
Dupuytren’s disease
- D.
Carpal tunnel syndrome
- 112.The main reason for using mineral oil during procurement of a skin graft using a dermatome is to ____.
- A.
Reduce microbial contamination
- B.
Minimize friction
- C.
Provide traction on the donor site
- D.
Lubricate the dermatome
- 113.Which type of suture is most often used to close the skin in plastic surgery to achieve a cosmetic closure?
- A.
Polyester
- B.
Nylon
- C.
Silk
- D.
Mersilene
- 114.Which statement regarding the aging process is NOT true?
- A.
Decrease in the production of sweat and sebum results in the drying of the skin
- B.
Loss of elastic fibers in the skin results in sagging and wrinkling of the skin
- C.
Aging process is slowed by exposure to the sun
- D.
results of the aging process can be treated both surgically and nonsurgically
- 115.Which renal filtration structure restricts the movement of blood, cells, and large molecules?
- A.
Bowman’s capsule
- B.
Glomerular basement membrane
- C.
Glomerular capillary endothelium
- D.
Renal tubule
- 116.Which outer portion of the kidney contains the glomeruli?
- A.
Cortex
- B.
Hilum
- C.
Medulla
- D.
Minor calyces
- 117.Which congenital condition is marked by the absence of the anterior wall of the urethra?
- A.
Cryptorchism
- B.
Epispadias
- C.
Hypospadias
- D.
Phimosis
- 118.Which extraperitoneal incisional option can be used to access the lower portion of the ureter?
- A.
Flank
- B.
Gibson
- C.
McBurney
- D.
Pfannenstiel
- 119.Which incisional option requires the patient to be placed in the lateral position?
- A.
Flank
- B.
Gibson
- C.
McBurney
- D.
Pfannenstiel
- 120.
- A.
Subtotal nephrectomy involves the excision of either pole of the kidney.
- B.
Subtotal nephrectomy can be performed to excise small cancers of the kidney.
- C.
radical nephrectomy involves excision of the kidney only.
- D.
Simple nephrectomy can be performed for excision of a kidney to be used for transplant.
- 121.Which surgical procedure involves diverting urine flow through an isolated loop of bowel?
- A.
ileal conduit
- B.
ileal reservoir
- C.
Cystostomy
- D.
Koch pouch
- 122.What surgical instrument is used to remove tissue fragments from within the bladder during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)?
- A.
Resectoscope
- B.
Urethrotome
- C.
Ellik evacuator
- D.
Urethral forceps
- 123.Which prostatectomy procedure involves an incision into the bladder to remove the prostate en bloc?
- A.
Perineal
- B.
Retropubic
- C.
Suprapubic
- D.
transurethral
- 124.Which statement regarding bladder tumors is NOT true?
- A.
Malignant tumors occur only in young adults.
- B.
Malignant tumors usually occur in persons over the age of 50 years.
- C.
Common symptom of malignant tumors is hematuria
- D.
Malignant tumors have a tendency to recur
- 125.Which of the following fluids is acceptable when doing a TURP?
- A.
Water
- B.
Glycine
- C.
Saline
- D.
Ringer’s lactate
- 126.The term working element refers to the ____.
- A.
Cystoscope
- B.
Lens
- C.
resectoscope
- D.
Ellik evacuator
- 127.At its distal end, the tibia expands to form a prominence on the inner ankle called the ____.
- A.
tibial tuberosity
- B.
Medial malleolus
- C.
Lateral malleolus
- D.
Calcaneous
- 128.Which of the following constitutes the anterior portion of the coxal bone?
- A.
Ischium
- B.
Ilium
- C.
Sacrum
- D.
Pubis
- 129.What is the name of the second cervical vertebra?
- A.
Atlas
- B.
Axis
- C.
Thoracic
- D.
Lumbar
- 130.Which of the following is a clinical sign and symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome?
- A.
Paralysis of the hand
- B.
Atrophy of the forearm muscles
- C.
Numbness of fingers
- D.
Peripheral vascular diseas
- 131.Which of the following muscles is NOT a part of the rotator cuff?
- A.
Supraspinatus
- B.
Infraspinatus
- C.
Deltoid
- D.
Subscapularis
- 132.What is the correct patient surgical position for a total-hip arthroplasty?
- A.
Supine
- B.
Prone
- C.
Lateral
- D.
Fowler’s
- 133.The primary bronchus divides into ____.
- A.
Alveolar duct
- B.
Terminal bronchiole
- C.
Bronchiole
- D.
Lobar bronchi
- 134.The microscopic air sacs clustered at the end of the bronchiole are the ____.
- A.
alveolar ducts
- B.
Alveoli
- C.
Alveolar pores
- D.
bronchioles
- 135.All of the following statements are false for types of aneurysms EXCEPT ____.
- A.
True aneurysm is a pulsatile hematoma contained by a fibrous capsule.
- B.
Dissecting aneurysm involves the circumference of an artery.
- C.
atherosclerotic aneurysms are classified as true aneurysms.
- D.
Pseudoaneurysm involves a sac of one or more blood vessel wall layers.
- 136.Which arteries supply the neck and head outside of the skull with blood?
- A.
Brachiocephalic
- B.
External carotid
- C.
Internal carotid
- D.
External jugular
- 137.Which arteries communicate with the basilar artery to form the circle of Willis?
- A.
brachiocephalic
- B.
External carotid
- C.
Internal carotid
- D.
External jugular
- 138.
- A.
Aorta
- B.
Lumbar arteries
- C.
Mesenteric arteries
- D.
Phrenic arteries
- 139.Which of the following statements regarding arterial embolisms is NOT correct?
- A.
Emboli can be in the form of air, blood, fat, or tumor.
- B.
Emboli can lodge at bifurcations and vessel narrowing.
- C.
The formation of emboli always causes immediate death.
- D.
Some emboli can be treated with specialized enzymes or high doses of heparin.
- 140.Choose the correct statement regarding an endarterectomy.
- A.
Extensive endarterectomy below the hypogastric level is normally a successful procedure.
- B.
Endarterectomy is preformed to alleviate occlusion of an artery.
- C.
Bypass grafting is more advantageous than an endarterectomy.
- D.
The external carotid artery is the most common site for an endarterectomy.
- 141.Which procedure could necessitate the use of a Javid shunt?
- A.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
- B.
Aortofemoral bypass
- C.
Carotid endarterectomy
- D.
femoral-popliteal bypass
- 142.With what instrument is an arteriotomy initiated?
- A.
#11 blade on a #7 handle
- B.
Metzenbaum scissors
- C.
Potts scissors
- D.
Tenotomy scissors
- 143.Which gauge suture is appropriate for closing a carotid arteriotomy?
- A.
3-0
- B.
4-0
- C.
5-0
- D.
6-0
- 144.Which artery supplies the upper portion of the digestive tube, the spleen, and the liver?
- A.
Celiac
- B.
Gonadal
- C.
Phrenic
- D.
Superior mesenteric
- 145.The suprarenal arteries feed the ____.
- A.
adrenals
- B.
Colon
- C.
Diaphragm
- D.
kidneys
- 146.Masses of gray matter located deep within the cerebral hemispheres are called the ____.
- A.
Basal ganglia
- B.
Ventricles
- C.
Choroid plexuses
- D.
Pineal gland
- 147.The structure that extends from the level of the foramen magnum to the pons is the ____.
- A.
Midbrain
- B.
Diencephalon
- C.
Thalamus
- D.
medulla oblongata
- 148.Leroy Raney clips are used on ____.
- A.
The skull
- B.
aneurysms
- C.
Scalp edges
- D.
Intracranial bleeders
- 149.For a laminectomy with discectomy, the appropriate specimen is ____.
- A.
Bone
- B.
Disk
- C.
Ligament
- D.
tendon
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