Practice Exam III

149 Questions

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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

A 150 question practice exam covering all subjects


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      The type of computer system in use

    • B. 

      The size of the hospital

    • C. 

      Consistent communication

    • D. 

      Clearer printing on all paper work

  • 2. 
    Preoperative diagnostic studies are performed by the ____.
    • A. 

      Medical laboratory

    • B. 

      Diagnostic imaging department

    • C. 

      Pathology department

    • D. 

      Emergency department

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Medical laboratory

    • B. 

      Diagnostic imaging department

    • C. 

      ICU

    • D. 

      Central supply department

  • 4. 
    When wWhen was the first national certifying exam for the surgical technologist offered?
    • A. 

      Dec. 1970

    • B. 

      Jan. 1954

    • C. 

      Sept. 1992

    • D. 

      Mar. 1981

  • 5. 
    The needs or activities related to one’s identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being?
    • A. 

      Social

    • B. 

      Psychological

    • C. 

      Physical

    • D. 

      Physiological

  • 6. 
    A uterine fibroid is an example of what type of factor causing surgical intervention?
    • A. 

      Trauma

    • B. 

      Genetic malformation

    • C. 

      Nonmalignant neoplasm

    • D. 

      Metabolic disease

  • 7. 
    One of O One of the advantages to the life stage approach is that it ____.
    • A. 

      Focuses on sexual development

    • B. 

      Explains cognitive development

    • C. 

      Does not require advanced levels of education to apply

    • D. 

      Explains affective learning

  • 8. 
    Which of the following considerations may be more relevant to the elderly patient than to an adolescent?
    • A. 

      Patient’s skin condition

    • B. 

      Informed consent

    • C. 

      Environmental safety

    • D. 

      Anesthetic agent

  • 9. 
    When positioning the elderly patient, the team must be especially aware of ____.
    • A. 

      The patient’s need to do things independently

    • B. 

      An overly modest attitude

    • C. 

      The need for speed

    • D. 

      Loss of mobility in joints

  • 10. 
    Which of the following cannot be performed by the child of less than 6 months of age?
    • A. 

      Shiver

    • B. 

      Cry loudly

    • C. 

      Urinate

    • D. 

      Vomit

  • 11. 
    Wha The What is the number of air exchanges required to keep the amount of airborne contamination in the OR to a minimum?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      120

  • 12. 
    The area where patients wait within the department before entering the OR is called____.
    • A. 

      Anesthesia holding

    • B. 

      Same day surgery

    • C. 

      Postoperative holding

    • D. 

      Preoperative holding

  • 13. 
    The abse The Absence of microbes or infection is called ____. The a
    • A. 

      Sterile

    • B. 

      Surgically clean

    • C. 

      Decontamination

    • D. 

      Disinfection

  • 14. 
    The abs TThe contamination of a person or object by another person or object is called ____.
    • A. 

      Cross contamination

    • B. 

      Infection

    • C. 

      Sepsis

    • D. 

      Pathogenesis

  • 15. 
    Methods used to prevent contamination of the sterile field are referred to as ____.
    • A. 

      sporicidal

    • B. 

      Sterile technique

    • C. 

      Antisepsis

    • D. 

      surgical conscience

  • 16. 
    Escherichia coli normally resides in the lumen of the ____.
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Trachea

    • C. 

      Intestine

    • D. 

      Urethra

  • 17. 
    The primary source of airborne bacteria transmission in the operating room is the ____.
    • A. 

      Patient

    • B. 

      Anesthesia equipment

    • C. 

      Surgical team

    • D. 

      Electrocautery

  • 18. 
    Nonsterile items and individuals may ____.
    • A. 

      Only contact nonsterile items

    • B. 

      NOT contact any other item

    • C. 

      Contact sterile items

    • D. 

      Contact disinfected items

  • 19. 
    The basis for the practice of strict adherence to sterile technique is called ____.
    • A. 

      Microbiology

    • B. 

      A positive care approach

    • C. 

      Surgical conscience

    • D. 

      Liability

  • 20. 
    The process that assures that all microorganisms including spores are killed is called ____.
    • A. 

      High-level disinfection

    • B. 

      Antisepsis

    • C. 

      Virucidal

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 21. 
    Filtered air from the decontamination room is exhausted to the ____.
    • A. 

      Operating room

    • B. 

      Patient’s room

    • C. 

      Outside of the health care facility

    • D. 

      Air filter system

  • 22. 
    A catalyst used to aid in the breakdown of organic material such as blood and tissue is a/an ____.
    • A. 

      Iodine solution

    • B. 

      Quaternary solution

    • C. 

      Enzyme

    • D. 

      Antiseptic

  • 23. 
    The ultrasonic washer is an example of a/an
    • A. 

      Sterilizer

    • B. 

      Mechanical decontamination unit

    • C. 

      physical decontamination method

    • D. 

      Bioburden

  • 24. 
    The ____ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.
    • A. 

      Ultrasonic washer

    • B. 

      CUSA

    • C. 

      Wire brush

    • D. 

      Gas sterilizer

  • 25. 
    An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for ____.
    • A. 

      Semicritical items

    • B. 

      Critical items

    • C. 

      Microsurgical instruments

    • D. 

      GI instruments

  • 26. 
    Low-level disinfection may be appropriate for ____.
    • A. 

      Semicritical items

    • B. 

      Noncritical items

    • C. 

      critical items

    • D. 

      Low use items

  • 27. 
    To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins (double basin) what must be done?
    • A. 

      Separate with towel

    • B. 

      Do not nest

    • C. 

      Ensure metal to metal contact

    • D. 

      Separate with plastic sheet

  • 28. 
    The informed consent cannot be signed by the patient after ____.
    • A. 

      Taking preoperative medications

    • B. 

      Admission to the hospital

    • C. 

      Preoperative education

    • D. 

      preoperative shave

  • 29. 
    The presence of food or fluid in the stomach during surgery increases the danger of ____.
    • A. 

      Postoperative infection

    • B. 

      Increased blood pressure

    • C. 

      Aspiration

    • D. 

      Heart attack

  • 30. 
    The Kraske position is sometimes referred to as the ____ position.
    • A. 

      Lateral kidney

    • B. 

      Prone

    • C. 

      Knee-chest

    • D. 

      Jackknife

  • 31. 
    When utilizing the lateral kidney position, where should the kidney rest be positioned?
    • A. 

      Under iliac crest

    • B. 

      Under pelvic girdle

    • C. 

      Under acetabulum

    • D. 

      Under 12th rib

  • 32. 
    Approximately 60% of all surgical patients are affected by ____.
    • A. 

      Surgical site infection

    • B. 

      preoperative hypertension

    • C. 

      Hypothermia

    • D. 

      Dehydration

  • 33. 
    A heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute may indicate NOT pathology but ____.
    • A. 

      Heart attack

    • B. 

      Hemorrhage

    • C. 

      Fit athlete

    • D. 

      Angina

  • 34. 
    The ____ provides a ray and concentrated beam of light that is able to cut and coagulate tissues at the same time.
    • A. 

      Cryo unit

    • B. 

      Laser

    • C. 

      Electrocautery

    • D. 

      CUSA

  • 35. 
    When using a tourniquet, the surgeon should be notified when the tourniquet has been inflated for ____.
    • A. 

      45 minutes

    • B. 

      1 hour

    • C. 

      90 minutes

    • D. 

      2 hours

  • 36. 
    A vasoconstrictor that is often mixed with local anesthetics is ____.
    • A. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Cocaine

    • D. 

      Bacitracin

  • 37. 
    Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological and/or physical dependence and abuse are called ____.
    • A. 

      Over the counter

    • B. 

      Chemical

    • C. 

      Prescription

    • D. 

      Controlled substances

  • 38. 
    The transport of the drug substance that occurs once it enters the circulatory system is ____.
    • A. 

      Binding

    • B. 

      Distribution

    • C. 

      Barrier

    • D. 

      Absorption

  • 39. 
    What organ is primarily responsible for the excretion of a drug?
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Lungs

    • C. 

      Kidneys

    • D. 

      Intestines

  • 40. 
    Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain?
    • A. 

      Opioids

    • B. 

      Dissociative

    • C. 

      Induction

    • D. 

      Tranquilizers

  • 41. 
    Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ____.
    • A. 

      Opioids

    • B. 

      Dissociative agents

    • C. 

      Narcotic antagonists

    • D. 

      Hypnotic agents

  • 42. 
    Patient position, and agent baricity can influence the effect of ____.
    • A. 

      Nerve plexus

    • B. 

      Local anesthetic

    • C. 

      Spinal anesthetic

    • D. 

      Caudal block

  • 43. 
    Lane, Kern, Lowman, and Lewin are examples of ____.
    • A. 

      Grasping instruments

    • B. 

      Tissue forceps

    • C. 

      Bone-holding clamps

    • D. 

      Hemostats

  • 44. 
    Instruments used to hold a curved suture needle for suturing are called ____.
    • A. 

      Dilators

    • B. 

      Probes

    • C. 

      Retractors

    • D. 

      Needle holders

  • 45. 
    General abdominal procedures typically require a(an) ____ instrument set.
    • A. 

      OB-GYN

    • B. 

      Laparotomy

    • C. 

      Otorhinolaryngology

    • D. 

      Peripheral vascular

  • 46. 
    What surgical specialty requires an instrument set specifically for dilatation and curettage?
    • A. 

      Abdominal

    • B. 

      OB-GYN

    • C. 

      Orthopedic

    • D. 

      Cardiac

  • 47. 
    Sets that include instruments for exposure of the heart and great vessels are used for ____ procedures.
    • A. 

      genitourinary

    • B. 

      Orthopedic

    • C. 

      Coronary bypass

    • D. 

      OB-GYN

  • 48. 
    Scopes typically used for cystoscopy, laparoscopy, and thoracoscopy are called ____.
    • A. 

      Rigid

    • B. 

      Semiflexible

    • C. 

      Flexible

    • D. 

      Lensed

  • 49. 
    The scope used for exploration of the biliary system is called a(an) ____.
    • A. 

      Choledochoscope

    • B. 

      Mediastinoscope

    • C. 

      Ureteroscope

    • D. 

      Angioscope

  • 50. 
    An intentional cut through intact tissue for the purpose of exposing or excising underlying structures is called a/an ____.
    • A. 

      Excision

    • B. 

      Incision

    • C. 

      Laceration

    • D. 

      Cut

  • 51. 
    Which of the following involves irrigation to wash out contaminants and removal of devitalized tissue?
    • A. 

      draining

    • B. 

      Debridement

    • C. 

      Incision

    • D. 

      Closure

  • 52. 
    Healing where the wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inner layer to the outside surface is ____.
    • A. 

      first intention

    • B. 

      Second intention

    • C. 

      Third intention

    • D. 

      Primary union

  • 53. 
    Raised, thickened scar due to excessive collagen formation is called ____.
    • A. 

      Cicatrix

    • B. 

      keloid

    • C. 

      Proud flesh

    • D. 

      Tensile strength

  • 54. 
    The partial or total separation of a layer or layers of tissue after closure is called ____.
    • A. 

      Dehiscence

    • B. 

      Evisceration

    • C. 

      Herniation

    • D. 

      Fistula

  • 55. 
    A primary suture line consisting of a single strand of suture placed as a series of stitches is called ____.
    • A. 

      Interlocking

    • B. 

      Looped

    • C. 

      Continuous

    • D. 

      Interrupted

  • 56. 
    Sutures placed into an anatomical structure to retract to the side are called ____.
    • A. 

      traction

    • B. 

      Purse-string

    • C. 

      Secondary

    • D. 

      Retention

  • 57. 
    The suture is attached to the needle at the ____.
    • A. 

      Eye

    • B. 

      Point

    • C. 

      Body

    • D. 

      End

  • 58. 
    Needles manufactured with suture strands inserted into one end are ____.
    • A. 

      Closed eye

    • B. 

      French eye

    • C. 

      Swaged

    • D. 

      trocar

  • 59. 
    The needle used for tough tissue that is difficult to penetrate is called ____.
    • A. 

      tapered

    • B. 

      Cutting

    • C. 

      Blunt

    • D. 

      Pointed

  • 60. 
    The method in which hands and arms are scrubbed for a prescribed length of time is called ____.
    • A. 

      Timed

    • B. 

      Counted brush stroke

    • C. 

      Peripheral

    • D. 

      Inspection

  • 61. 
    The closed-glove technique is used ____.
    • A. 

      Before the surgical scrub

    • B. 

      Before the sterile gown is donned

    • C. 

      After the sterile gown has been donned

    • D. 

      After mask is donned

  • 62. 
    Angiography is used to ____.
    • A. 

      Evaluate the heart

    • B. 

      Assess peripheral vascular disease

    • C. 

      Detect ureteral stones

    • D. 

      Image soft tissue

  • 63. 
    Cholangiography is a radiographic study of the ____.
    • A. 

      Colon

    • B. 

      Gall bladder

    • C. 

      Stomach

    • D. 

      Brain

  • 64. 
    The normal percentage of oxygen saturation in arterial blood is ____.
    • A. 

      96% to 100% of capacity

    • B. 

      90% to 95% of capacity

    • C. 

      85% to 89% of capacity

    • D. 

      80% to 84% of capacity

  • 65. 
    The ____ is the physician who will provide a biopsy report.
    • A. 

      General surgeon

    • B. 

      Family practitioner

    • C. 

      Pathologist

    • D. 

      Oncologist

  • 66. 
    The gram stain is a technique used to identify a ____.
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Bacteria

    • C. 

      Mold

    • D. 

      Prion

  • 67. 
    Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of ____.
    • A. 

      Pulse oximetry

    • B. 

      Capnography

    • C. 

      Spirometry

    • D. 

      Plethysmography

  • 68. 
    An otoscope is used for viewing the ____.
    • A. 

      Peritoneal cavity

    • B. 

      eye

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Ear

  • 69. 
    For which portion of the body is Renografin most often used?
    • A. 

      urinary system

    • B. 

      biliary tree

    • C. 

      Ureters

    • D. 

      Cerebral portal

  • 70. 
    Which vein is frequently used for insertion of an angiographic catheter?
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Subclavian

    • C. 

      Cephalic

    • D. 

      Saphenous

  • 71. 
    Which of the following is a function of the omenta?
    • A. 

      Synthesize vitamins

    • B. 

      Limit peritoneal infection

    • C. 

      Aid in digestion

    • D. 

      Synthesize blood-clotting factors

  • 72. 
    In what position is the patient placed when McBurney’s incision will be used?
    • A. 

      supine

    • B. 

      Prone

    • C. 

      Lateral

    • D. 

      Lithotomy

  • 73. 
    A diaphragmatic hernia is located ____.
    • A. 

      On the ventral body surface

    • B. 

      Around the umbilicus

    • C. 

      In the diaphragm

    • D. 

      In the groin

  • 74. 
    Which type of hernia is located within Hesselbach’s triangle?
    • A. 

      Indirect

    • B. 

      Congenital

    • C. 

      Epigastric

    • D. 

      Direct

  • 75. 
    Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed to correct a/an ____.
    • A. 

      Gastric ulcer

    • B. 

      Inguinal hernia

    • C. 

      Hiatal hernia

    • D. 

      Ruptured tubal pregnancy

  • 76. 
    An end ileostomy is created from the ____.
    • A. 

      Transverse colon

    • B. 

      Descending colon

    • C. 

      Terminal ileum

    • D. 

      Sigmoid colon

  • 77. 
    Removal of the gallbladder is called ____.
    • A. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • B. 

      Choledochojejunostomy

    • C. 

      Cholelithiasis

    • D. 

      Colectomy

  • 78. 
    The condition of gallstones is called ____.
    • A. 

      Pyelolithiasis

    • B. 

      Cholelithiasis

    • C. 

      Cystolithiasis

    • D. 

      Ureterolithiasis

  • 79. 
    What position is used to displace the abdominal contents to enhance the surgeon’s view of the lower abdominal region?
    • A. 

      Trendelenburg

    • B. 

      Lateral

    • C. 

      Fowler’s

    • D. 

      Reverse Trendelenburg

  • 80. 
    Whipple pancreaticoduodenectomy involves removal of the ____.
    • A. 

      Head of the pancreas, distal one-third of the stomach, duodenum, proximal 10 cm of jejunum, gallbladder, cystic and common bile ducts, and peripancreatic and hepatoduodenal lymph nodes

    • B. 

      Tail of the pancreas, proximal one-third of the stomach, duodenum, distal 10 cm of jejunum, gallbladder, cystic and hepatic ducts, and peripancreatic and hepatoduodenal lymph nodes

    • C. 

      Pancreas, stomach, cecum, ileum, bladder, hepatic and cystic ducts, and periaortic lymph nodes

    • D. 

      islets of Langerhans, spleen, stomach, duodenum, colon, cystic and common bile ducts, and peripancreatic and hepatoduodenal lymph nodes

  • 81. 
    Bartholin’s glands are located ____.
    • A. 

      Just inside the urethral meatus

    • B. 

      within the vestibule

    • C. 

      in the labia majora

    • D. 

      At the hymenal ring

  • 82. 
    What causes the descent of the fetus through the pelvic canal?
    • A. 

      Gravity

    • B. 

      Uterine contractions

    • C. 

      Size of the fetus

    • D. 

      Manual compressions

  • 83. 
    All of the following are parts of the uterus except the ____.
    • A. 

      Fundus

    • B. 

      Fimbriae

    • C. 

      Corpus

    • D. 

      Cervix

  • 84. 
    A fibroid is a benign tumor of the ____.
    • A. 

      Ovary

    • B. 

      Myometrium

    • C. 

      Endometrium

    • D. 

      Bartholin’s gland

  • 85. 
    Indigo carmine is used following tuboplasty to demonstrate ____.
    • A. 

      Tubal patency

    • B. 

      Ectopic pregnancy

    • C. 

      Adhesion formation

    • D. 

      Continued infertility

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      Remove powder from gloves

    • B. 

      Ensure saline is available for irrigation

    • C. 

      Provide saline soaked lap sponges

    • D. 

      Ensure drain is available for placement

  • 87. 
    The anterior chamber is the space ____.
    • A. 

      Bound anteriorly by the cornea and posteriorly by the front of the iris

    • B. 

      Bound by the lens, ciliary body, and the retina

    • C. 

      Occupied by the crystalline lens

    • D. 

      Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the crystalline lens

  • 88. 
    Which term refers to complete removal of the eye?
    • A. 

      Vitrectomy

    • B. 

      Enucleation

    • C. 

      Lensectomy

    • D. 

      Evisceration

  • 89. 
    The posterior chamber is the space ____.
    • A. 

      Bound anteriorly by the cornea and posteriorly by the front of the iris

    • B. 

      Bound by the lens, ciliary body, and the retina

    • C. 

      Occupied by the crystalline lens

    • D. 

      Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the crystalline lens

  • 90. 
    The trigeminal nerve is also known as the ____.
    • A. 

      Fifth cranial nerve

    • B. 

      optic nerve

    • C. 

      Third cranial nerve

    • D. 

      Oculomotor nerve

  • 91. 
    The process of accommodation is described as ____.
    • A. 

      Light refraction

    • B. 

      Focus

    • C. 

      Formation of tears

    • D. 

      Dark adaptation

  • 92. 
    The nasolacrimal duct drains into the ____.
    • A. 

      Lacrimal sac

    • B. 

      Puncta lachrymalia

    • C. 

      Inferior meatus of the nose

    • D. 

      Lacrimal canals

  • 93. 
    What does the term dacryocystitis mean?
    • A. 

      Obstruction of the lacrimal duct

    • B. 

      Inflammation of the lacrimal sac

    • C. 

      Opacity of the crystalline lens

    • D. 

      Small lump on the surface of the eyelid

  • 94. 
    Cryotherapy involves the utilization of ____.
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Heat

    • C. 

      Cold

    • D. 

      Electrocautery

  • 95. 
    What is the superior opening into the larynx called?
    • A. 

      Carina

    • B. 

      Palate

    • C. 

      Cochlea

    • D. 

      Glottis

  • 96. 
    Name the three sections of the pharynx.
    • A. 

      Nasopharynx, trachea, tonsil

    • B. 

      nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx

    • C. 

      Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

    • D. 

      pharyngeal tonsils, laryngopharynx, nasopharynx

  • 97. 
    The organs of Corti are located along the length of the ____ membrane.
    • A. 

      Tectorial

    • B. 

      tonsilar

    • C. 

      Basilar

    • D. 

      Vestibular

  • 98. 
    What structures are removed during UPPP?
    • A. 

      Tonsils, adenoids, uvula, portion of the soft palate

    • B. 

      Adenoids, tongue, lingual tonsils, portion of the soft palate

    • C. 

      Tonsils, adenoids, nasal cartilage, all of the soft palate

    • D. 

      Adenoids, tonsils, tonsillar fossa, nasal cartilage

  • 99. 
    What fluid fills the spaces of the bony labyrinth?
    • A. 

      Endolymph

    • B. 

      Lymph

    • C. 

      Perilymph

    • D. 

      Periosteum

  • 100. 
    The seventh cranial nerve is also called the ____.
    • A. 

      Vestibulocochlear nerve

    • B. 

      Facial nerve

    • C. 

      Recurrent laryngeal nerve

    • D. 

      Vagus nerve

  • 101. 
    Another name for the malar bone is ____.
    • A. 

      Orbital

    • B. 

      Ethmoid

    • C. 

      Zygomatic

    • D. 

      Sphenoid

  • 102. 
    A craniotome with perforator attachment is used to ____.
    • A. 

      Harvest a rib graft

    • B. 

      Open the dura

    • C. 

      Create a burr hole

    • D. 

      Repair cranial defects

  • 103. 
    Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?
    • A. 

      bronchodilation

    • B. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • C. 

      Analgesia

    • D. 

      Anticoagulant

  • 104. 
    The skin is a ____.
    • A. 

      mucous membrane

    • B. 

      cutaneous membrane

    • C. 

      Synovial membrane

    • D. 

      Serous membrane

  • 105. 
    If skin is taken from an unburned area of the patient and used as a transplant, it is called a/an ____.
    • A. 

      Autograft

    • B. 

      Homograft

    • C. 

      Heterograft

    • D. 

      Dermagraft

  • 106. 
    Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist?
    • A. 

      Abductor pollicis brevis

    • B. 

      Extensor digitorum

    • C. 

      Palmaris longus

    • D. 

      Adductor pollicis

  • 107. 
    What medical term refers to the condition in which the digits of the hands or feet fail to separate?
    • A. 

      Radial dysplasia

    • B. 

      Polydactyly

    • C. 

      Syndactyly

    • D. 

      Clubhand

  • 108. 
    The condition causing the contraction of palmar fascia is known as ____.
    • A. 

      De Quervain's disease

    • B. 

      Dupuytren's disease

    • C. 

      Trigger finger

    • D. 

      Carpal tunnel

  • 109. 
    A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is a ____.
    • A. 

      Blepharoplasty

    • B. 

      Suction lipectomy

    • C. 

      Rhinoplasty

    • D. 

      Augmentation

  • 110. 
    Which procedure is not typically done under local anesthetic?
    • A. 

      Blepharoplasty

    • B. 

      Rhytidectomy

    • C. 

      Rhinoplasty

    • D. 

      Breast augmentation

  • 111. 
    Which of the following is a synovial fluid filled cyst that can arise from a tendon sheath or wrist joint?
    • A. 

      Ganglion cyst

    • B. 

      Trigger finger

    • C. 

      Dupuytren’s disease

    • D. 

      Carpal tunnel syndrome

  • 112. 
    The main reason for using mineral oil during procurement of a skin graft using a dermatome is to ____.
    • A. 

      Reduce microbial contamination

    • B. 

      Minimize friction

    • C. 

      Provide traction on the donor site

    • D. 

      Lubricate the dermatome

  • 113. 
    Which type of suture is most often used to close the skin in plastic surgery to achieve a cosmetic closure?
    • A. 

      Polyester

    • B. 

      Nylon

    • C. 

      Silk

    • D. 

      Mersilene

  • 114. 
    Which statement regarding the aging process is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Decrease in the production of sweat and sebum results in the drying of the skin

    • B. 

      Loss of elastic fibers in the skin results in sagging and wrinkling of the skin

    • C. 

      Aging process is slowed by exposure to the sun

    • D. 

      results of the aging process can be treated both surgically and nonsurgically

  • 115. 
    Which renal filtration structure restricts the movement of blood, cells, and large molecules?
    • A. 

      Bowman’s capsule

    • B. 

      Glomerular basement membrane

    • C. 

      Glomerular capillary endothelium

    • D. 

      Renal tubule

  • 116. 
    Which outer portion of the kidney contains the glomeruli?
    • A. 

      Cortex

    • B. 

      Hilum

    • C. 

      Medulla

    • D. 

      Minor calyces

  • 117. 
    Which congenital condition is marked by the absence of the anterior wall of the urethra?
    • A. 

      Cryptorchism

    • B. 

      Epispadias

    • C. 

      Hypospadias

    • D. 

      Phimosis

  • 118. 
    Which extraperitoneal incisional option can be used to access the lower portion of the ureter?
    • A. 

      Flank

    • B. 

      Gibson

    • C. 

      McBurney

    • D. 

      Pfannenstiel

  • 119. 
    Which incisional option requires the patient to be placed in the lateral position?
    • A. 

      Flank

    • B. 

      Gibson

    • C. 

      McBurney

    • D. 

      Pfannenstiel

  • 120. 
    • A. 

      Subtotal nephrectomy involves the excision of either pole of the kidney.

    • B. 

      Subtotal nephrectomy can be performed to excise small cancers of the kidney.

    • C. 

      radical nephrectomy involves excision of the kidney only.

    • D. 

      Simple nephrectomy can be performed for excision of a kidney to be used for transplant.

  • 121. 
    Which surgical procedure involves diverting urine flow through an isolated loop of bowel?
    • A. 

      ileal conduit

    • B. 

      ileal reservoir

    • C. 

      Cystostomy

    • D. 

      Koch pouch

  • 122. 
    What surgical instrument is used to remove tissue fragments from within the bladder during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)?
    • A. 

      Resectoscope

    • B. 

      Urethrotome

    • C. 

      Ellik evacuator

    • D. 

      Urethral forceps

  • 123. 
    Which prostatectomy procedure involves an incision into the bladder to remove the prostate en bloc?
    • A. 

      Perineal

    • B. 

      Retropubic

    • C. 

      Suprapubic

    • D. 

      transurethral

  • 124. 
    Which statement regarding bladder tumors is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Malignant tumors occur only in young adults.

    • B. 

      Malignant tumors usually occur in persons over the age of 50 years.

    • C. 

      Common symptom of malignant tumors is hematuria

    • D. 

      Malignant tumors have a tendency to recur

  • 125. 
    Which of the following fluids is acceptable when doing a TURP?
    • A. 

      Water

    • B. 

      Glycine

    • C. 

      Saline

    • D. 

      Ringer’s lactate

  • 126. 
    The term working element refers to the ____.
    • A. 

      Cystoscope

    • B. 

      Lens

    • C. 

      resectoscope

    • D. 

      Ellik evacuator

  • 127. 
    At its distal end, the tibia expands to form a prominence on the inner ankle called the ____.
    • A. 

      tibial tuberosity

    • B. 

      Medial malleolus

    • C. 

      Lateral malleolus

    • D. 

      Calcaneous

  • 128. 
    Which of the following constitutes the anterior portion of the coxal bone?
    • A. 

      Ischium

    • B. 

      Ilium

    • C. 

      Sacrum

    • D. 

      Pubis

  • 129. 
    What is the name of the second cervical vertebra?
    • A. 

      Atlas

    • B. 

      Axis

    • C. 

      Thoracic

    • D. 

      Lumbar

  • 130. 
    Which of the following is a clinical sign and symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome?
    • A. 

      Paralysis of the hand

    • B. 

      Atrophy of the forearm muscles

    • C. 

      Numbness of fingers

    • D. 

      Peripheral vascular diseas

  • 131. 
    Which of the following muscles is NOT a part of the rotator cuff?
    • A. 

      Supraspinatus

    • B. 

      Infraspinatus

    • C. 

      Deltoid

    • D. 

      Subscapularis

  • 132. 
    What is the correct patient surgical position for a total-hip arthroplasty?
    • A. 

      Supine

    • B. 

      Prone

    • C. 

      Lateral

    • D. 

      Fowler’s

  • 133. 
    The primary bronchus divides into ____.
    • A. 

      Alveolar duct

    • B. 

      Terminal bronchiole

    • C. 

      Bronchiole

    • D. 

      Lobar bronchi

  • 134. 
    The microscopic air sacs clustered at the end of the bronchiole are the ____.
    • A. 

      alveolar ducts

    • B. 

      Alveoli

    • C. 

      Alveolar pores

    • D. 

      bronchioles

  • 135. 
    All of the following statements are false for types of aneurysms EXCEPT ____.
    • A. 

      True aneurysm is a pulsatile hematoma contained by a fibrous capsule.

    • B. 

      Dissecting aneurysm involves the circumference of an artery.

    • C. 

      atherosclerotic aneurysms are classified as true aneurysms.

    • D. 

      Pseudoaneurysm involves a sac of one or more blood vessel wall layers.

  • 136. 
    Which arteries supply the neck and head outside of the skull with blood?
    • A. 

      Brachiocephalic

    • B. 

      External carotid

    • C. 

      Internal carotid

    • D. 

      External jugular

  • 137. 
    Which arteries communicate with the basilar artery to form the circle of Willis?
    • A. 

      brachiocephalic

    • B. 

      External carotid

    • C. 

      Internal carotid

    • D. 

      External jugular

  • 138. 
    • A. 

      Aorta

    • B. 

      Lumbar arteries

    • C. 

      Mesenteric arteries

    • D. 

      Phrenic arteries

  • 139. 
    Which of the following statements regarding arterial embolisms is NOT correct?
    • A. 

      Emboli can be in the form of air, blood, fat, or tumor.

    • B. 

      Emboli can lodge at bifurcations and vessel narrowing.

    • C. 

      The formation of emboli always causes immediate death.

    • D. 

      Some emboli can be treated with specialized enzymes or high doses of heparin.

  • 140. 
    Choose the correct statement regarding an endarterectomy.
    • A. 

      Extensive endarterectomy below the hypogastric level is normally a successful procedure.

    • B. 

      Endarterectomy is preformed to alleviate occlusion of an artery.

    • C. 

      Bypass grafting is more advantageous than an endarterectomy.

    • D. 

      The external carotid artery is the most common site for an endarterectomy.

  • 141. 
    Which procedure could necessitate the use of a Javid shunt?
    • A. 

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm

    • B. 

      Aortofemoral bypass

    • C. 

      Carotid endarterectomy

    • D. 

      femoral-popliteal bypass

  • 142. 
    With what instrument is an arteriotomy initiated?
    • A. 

      #11 blade on a #7 handle

    • B. 

      Metzenbaum scissors

    • C. 

      Potts scissors

    • D. 

      Tenotomy scissors

  • 143. 
    Which gauge suture is appropriate for closing a carotid arteriotomy?
    • A. 

      3-0

    • B. 

      4-0

    • C. 

      5-0

    • D. 

      6-0

  • 144. 
    Which artery supplies the upper portion of the digestive tube, the spleen, and the liver?
    • A. 

      Celiac

    • B. 

      Gonadal

    • C. 

      Phrenic

    • D. 

      Superior mesenteric

  • 145. 
    The suprarenal arteries feed the ____.
    • A. 

      adrenals

    • B. 

      Colon

    • C. 

      Diaphragm

    • D. 

      kidneys

  • 146. 
    Masses of gray matter located deep within the cerebral hemispheres are called the ____.
    • A. 

      Basal ganglia

    • B. 

      Ventricles

    • C. 

      Choroid plexuses

    • D. 

      Pineal gland

  • 147. 
    The structure that extends from the level of the foramen magnum to the pons is the ____.
    • A. 

      Midbrain

    • B. 

      Diencephalon

    • C. 

      Thalamus

    • D. 

      medulla oblongata

  • 148. 
    Leroy Raney clips are used on ____.
    • A. 

      The skull

    • B. 

      aneurysms

    • C. 

      Scalp edges

    • D. 

      Intracranial bleeders

  • 149. 
    For a laminectomy with discectomy, the appropriate specimen is ____.
    • A. 

      Bone

    • B. 

      Disk

    • C. 

      Ligament

    • D. 

      tendon