CPSGT Practice Quiz 2020 Aasm

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CPSGT Practice Quiz 2020 Aasm - Quiz

Updated CPSGT Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    • regular or irregular beat?
    • QRS complex narrow or wide?
    • P waves present?
    • duration of P-R interval?
    The P:QRS is a 1:1 ratio

  • 2. 

    • Sinus Bradycardis:
    HR< 40 bpm for ages 6-adult
    • Sinus tachycardia
    HR > 9 bpm
    • Asystole Cardiac Pauses
    > 3 sec in duration call 911 if seen, unless patient is moving
    • Wide Complex
    - how we see the electrical impulse wide = longer * 3 consecutive beats at a rate of > 1-- bpm with a QRS duration > 0.12 sec narrow = fast/shortened * 3 consecutive beats at a rate of > 100 bpm with a QRS < 0.12
    • Atrial Flutter - think shark tooth
    - no round shape/aggressive - HR 220-430 bpm - no PR interval

  • 3. 

    PLM Index:   # of movements / TST(hour) PLM Arousal Index:    # of PLM arousald / TST(hour)

  • 4. 

    TRT: Total Recording Time
    • From lights out to lights on
    TST: Total Sleep Time
    • Total recording time minuse total wake time
    • TRT - wake total = TST
    Sleep Latency, or Sleep Onset
    • Lights out epoch to first epoch of any sleep stage (not wake)
    REM Larency - REM Onset
    • From sleep onset to first epoch of REM Sleep
    WASO - Wake after sleep onset
    • Number of epochs awake from sleep onset until lights on
    Sleep Stage Distribution = % in sleep stage
    • time in each sleep stage divided by TST
    • TST / TRT = SSD X 100 = %
    Sleep Efficiency
    • TST / TRT 
    • looking for over 80% for a good sleep

  • 5. 

    What is Ventilation?

    • A.

      The exchange of CO2 and O2

    • B.

      The act of air entering and exiting the lungs

    • C.

      Muscle relaxation to allow air to passively flow out

    • D.

      When your air conditioning kicks on

    Correct Answer
    B. The act of air entering and exiting the lungs
    Explanation
    Ventilation refers to the act of air entering and exiting the lungs. It involves the process of inhaling oxygen and exhaling carbon dioxide. This exchange of gases is essential for maintaining proper oxygen levels in the body and removing waste gases. Ventilation is facilitated by the contraction and relaxation of respiratory muscles, which enable the movement of air in and out of the lungs.

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  • 6. 

    What is Respiration?

    • A.

      The exhalation of CO2

    • B.

      The exhalation of O2

    • C.

      The exchange of gasses (CO2 & O2) at the alveolar capillary level of the lung

    • D.

      Breathing humidity

    Correct Answer
    C. The exchange of gasses (CO2 & O2) at the alveolar capillary level of the lung
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the exchange of gases (CO2 & O2) at the alveolar capillary level of the lung. Respiration refers to the process of exchanging gases between the body and the environment. In the lungs, oxygen from the inhaled air enters the bloodstream through the alveoli, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, is removed from the bloodstream and exhaled. This exchange of gases occurs at the alveolar capillary level, where oxygen is taken up by red blood cells and carbon dioxide is released into the alveoli to be exhaled.

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  • 7. 

    What is hypercapnea?

    • A.

      Increased levels of 02

    • B.

      Increased levels of CO2

    • C.

      Increased levels of SPO2

    • D.

      Decreased levels of CO2

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased levels of CO2
    Explanation
    Hypercapnea refers to increased levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the bloodstream. This condition can occur due to various factors such as hypoventilation, impaired lung function, or respiratory disorders. When there is an excess of CO2 in the body, it can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath, confusion, and increased heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is "Increased levels of CO2."

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  • 8. 

    What is hypoxia?

    • A.

      Increased levels of CO2

    • B.

      Increased respiration

    • C.

      Decreased and shallow breathing

    • D.

      Decreased levels of 02

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased levels of 02
    Explanation
    Hypoxia refers to a condition where there is a decrease in the levels of oxygen (O2) in the body. This can occur due to various reasons such as high altitudes, lung diseases, or respiratory problems. When there is a decrease in the levels of oxygen, it can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath, confusion, dizziness, and even loss of consciousness. Therefore, the answer "Decreased levels of O2" accurately describes hypoxia as it highlights the main characteristic of this condition.

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  • 9. 

    How many total electrodes are there placed on the body during a PSG?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      26 + ground

    • C.

      29

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    B. 26 + ground
    Explanation
    During a PSG (Polysomnography), a total of 26 electrodes are placed on the body. These electrodes are used to monitor and record various physiological activities such as brain waves, eye movements, muscle activity, heart rate, and breathing patterns. Additionally, there is also a ground electrode that is placed to ensure proper electrical grounding and minimize interference. Therefore, the total number of electrodes placed on the body during a PSG is 26 + ground.

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  • 10. 

    What must be included in HSAT Level 3 testing for it to be validated?

    • A.

      Effort and SPO2

    • B.

      Head gear and belts

    • C.

      Airflow and effort channels

    • D.

      Snoring mic and effort

    Correct Answer
    C. Airflow and effort channels
    Explanation
    To validate HSAT Level 3 testing, it is necessary to include airflow and effort channels. These parameters are crucial in monitoring and evaluating the respiratory function of the individual undergoing the test. Airflow channels measure the flow of air in and out of the respiratory system, providing insights into any breathing abnormalities. Effort channels, on the other hand, measure the effort exerted during breathing, helping to identify any respiratory muscle weakness or inefficiency. Including both airflow and effort channels ensures a comprehensive assessment of the patient's respiratory function, making the HSAT Level 3 testing more accurate and reliable.

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  • 11. 

    When is HSAT testing INAPPROPRIATE?

    • A.

      Central Sleep Apnea

    • B.

      Neuromuscular disorders

    • C.

      Other Sleep Disorders - Narcolepsy, Parasomnias, PLMD

    • D.

      Pediatrics

    • E.

      Cardio-Pulmonary Comorbidities

    • F.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    F. All of the above
    Explanation
    HSAT testing is inappropriate in all the mentioned conditions. Central sleep apnea, neuromuscular disorders, other sleep disorders (narcolepsy, parasomnias, PLMD), pediatrics, and cardio-pulmonary comorbidities can all affect the accuracy and reliability of the results obtained from HSAT testing. Therefore, it is not recommended to use HSAT testing in these cases.

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  • 12. 

    What is the "10-20" system?

    • A.

      The standard method used to describe the location of scalp glue.

    • B.

      The only method to read your mind.

    • C.

      The amount of time used to sleep with EEG electrodes.

    • D.

      The standard method used to describe the location of scalp electrodes. 

    Correct Answer
    D. The standard method used to describe the location of scalp electrodes. 
    Explanation
    The "10-20" system is a standard method used to describe the location of scalp electrodes. This system is commonly used in electroencephalography (EEG) to ensure consistent and accurate electrode placement across different individuals. The system divides the scalp into regions based on percentages of specific anatomical landmarks, such as the nasion (the midpoint between the forehead and the bridge of the nose) and the inion (the external occipital protuberance at the back of the head). The "10-20" system allows for precise and standardized electrode placement, which is essential for accurate interpretation of EEG data.

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  • 13. 

    Where is the nasian located?

    • A.

      The point between pre irricular to pre irricular

    • B.

      The point between the nape of the neck

    • C.

      The point between your left and right hip

    • D.

      The point between the forehead and nose

    Correct Answer
    D. The point between the forehead and nose
    Explanation
    The nasian is located between the forehead and nose. This is the area where the bridge of the nose meets the forehead.

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  • 14. 

    Where is the inian located?

    • A.

      The lowest point of the skull from the back of the head as indicated by a prominent bump

    • B.

      The point between the forehead and nose

    • C.

      The point between your upper lip and lower lip

    • D.

      The point between your left and right eye

    Correct Answer
    A. The lowest point of the skull from the back of the head as indicated by a prominent bump
  • 15. 

    What 2 anatomical landmarks are used for essential EEG electrode positioning?

    • A.

      The pre irricular to pre irricular

    • B.

      Left to right eye

    • C.

      From top lip to bottom lip

    • D.

      The nasian and inian

    Correct Answer
    D. The nasian and inian
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the nasian and inian. These two anatomical landmarks are commonly used for essential EEG electrode positioning. The nasian refers to the nasion, which is the depression between the forehead and the bridge of the nose. The inian refers to the inion, which is the external occipital protuberance at the back of the skull. These landmarks help in accurately placing the EEG electrodes on the scalp for recording brain activity.

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  • 16. 

    What is the ground electrode, and why is it important?

    • A.

      3 prong plug, placed at Fpz

    • B.

      Used to protect the patient

    • C.

      Stops any stray current from shocking the patient

    • D.

      Must be on, or electrodes will not be read

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The ground electrode is an important component in medical settings as it serves multiple purposes. Firstly, it is a 3 prong plug that is typically placed at Fpz (a specific location on the head) to ensure proper grounding. This helps protect the patient from any stray current that could potentially shock them. Additionally, the ground electrode must be on for the electrodes to be read accurately, ensuring accurate readings and measurements. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for the importance of the ground electrode.

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  • 17. 

    What are the 5 sleep stages?

    • A.

      Stage W

    • B.

      Stage R

    • C.

      Stage N3

    • D.

      Stage N2

    • E.

      Stage N1

    • F.

      Stage 4

    • G.

      Stage 5

    • H.

      There are not 5 sleep stages

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Stage W
    B. Stage R
    C. Stage N3
    D. Stage N2
    E. Stage N1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Stage W, Stage R, Stage N3, Stage N2, Stage N1. These are the five sleep stages according to the standard classification system. Stage W refers to the wakefulness stage, where the person is fully awake. Stage R is the rapid eye movement (REM) stage, characterized by rapid eye movements and vivid dreaming. Stage N3 is the deep sleep stage, also known as slow-wave sleep. Stage N2 is a lighter stage of sleep, and Stage N1 is the transition between wakefulness and sleep.

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  • 18. 

    EMG activity is muscle movement

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    EMG stands for electromyography, which is a technique used to measure and record the electrical activity produced by muscles. This electrical activity is generated during muscle contraction and is directly related to muscle movement. Therefore, it is correct to say that EMG activity is muscle movement.

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  • 19. 

    EOG activity is eye movement.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    EOG activity refers to the measurement of eye movements. It is used to study various aspects of eye movement, such as saccades, fixations, and smooth pursuit. By measuring the electrical activity around the eyes, researchers can gain insights into how the eyes move and track objects. Therefore, the statement that EOG activity is eye movement is true.

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  • 20. 

    EEG is brain activity.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true because EEG (Electroencephalography) is a technique used to measure and record the electrical activity of the brain. It involves placing electrodes on the scalp to detect and amplify the electrical signals produced by the brain's neurons. EEG is commonly used in medical and research settings to study brain function, diagnose neurological disorders, and monitor brain activity during sleep or anesthesia. Therefore, it can be concluded that EEG is indeed a measure of brain activity.

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  • 21. 

    What is the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN) and what does it do?

    • A.

      A small region in the CNS that is responsible for storing sleep debt.

    • B.

      A small region in the pons that is responsible for most brain activity. 

    • C.

      A small region in the hypothalamus that is responsible for controlling every hormone released in the brain.

    • D.

      A small region in the hypothalamus that is responsible for controlling circadian rhythms. Also known as the pacemaker of the sleep/wake cycle.

    Correct Answer
    D. A small region in the hypothalamus that is responsible for controlling circadian rhythms. Also known as the pacemaker of the sleep/wake cycle.
    Explanation
    The Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN) is a small region in the hypothalamus that controls circadian rhythms, which are the body's internal clock that regulates sleep and wake cycles. It acts as the pacemaker for the sleep/wake cycle, coordinating the timing of various physiological and behavioral processes throughout the day. This region helps synchronize the body's functions with the external environment, such as light and darkness, to maintain a regular sleep schedule.

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  • 22. 

    The circadian clock regulates the timing of sleep.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The circadian clock is an internal biological clock that regulates various physiological processes, including sleep-wake cycles. It helps to regulate the timing of sleep by signaling the body to feel sleepy at night and awake during the day. This internal clock is influenced by external cues such as light and darkness, helping to synchronize our sleep patterns with the natural day-night cycle. Therefore, the statement "The circadian clock regulates the timing of sleep" is true.

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  • 23. 

    What does the homeostatic mechanism do?

    • A.

      Regulates sleep duration.

    • B.

      Regulates sleep hormones.

    • C.

      Regulates seratonin.

    • D.

      Regulates sleep intensity.

    Correct Answer
    D. Regulates sleep intensity.
    Explanation
    The homeostatic mechanism refers to the body's ability to regulate and maintain a stable internal environment. In the context of sleep, it is responsible for regulating sleep intensity. This means that it helps to ensure that the quality and depth of sleep are maintained at an appropriate level. The homeostatic mechanism works in conjunction with other factors, such as the circadian rhythm, to regulate sleep-wake cycles and ensure that the body gets the right amount and quality of sleep needed for optimal functioning.

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  • 24. 

    What frequency is Delta activity?

    • A.

      .5 Hz - 2 Hz

    • B.

      4 Hz - 7 Hz

    • C.

      2 Hz - 4 Hz

    • D.

      8 Hz - 13 Hz

    Correct Answer
    C. 2 Hz - 4 Hz
    Explanation
    Delta activity refers to the brain waves that are associated with deep sleep and unconsciousness. These brain waves have a frequency range of 0.5 Hz to 4 Hz, which means they oscillate at a rate of 2 to 4 cycles per second. This frequency range is characteristic of the slowest and highest amplitude brain waves, indicating a state of deep relaxation and rest.

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  • 25. 

    What frequency is Theta activity?

    • A.

      4 Hz - 7 Hz

    • B.

      8 Hz - 13 Hz

    • C.

      > 13 Hz

    • D.

      2 Hz - 4 Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 Hz - 7 Hz
    Explanation
    Theta activity refers to a specific frequency range of brain waves that occur during certain states of consciousness, such as deep relaxation or meditation. The correct answer, 4 Hz - 7 Hz, falls within this frequency range and is commonly associated with the theta state. This frequency range is also associated with increased creativity, intuition, and access to subconscious information.

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  • 26. 

    What frequency is Alpha activity?

    • A.

      >13 Hz

    • B.

      4 Hz - 8 hz

    • C.

      8 Hz - 13 Hz

    • D.

      2 Hz - 5 Hz

    Correct Answer
    C. 8 Hz - 13 Hz
    Explanation
    Alpha activity refers to the brain waves that occur when a person is in a relaxed but awake state. These brain waves have a frequency range of 8 Hz to 13 Hz. This frequency range is associated with a calm and relaxed mental state, often observed during meditation or when a person is daydreaming.

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  • 27. 

    What types of medications can increase Beta activity?

    • A.

      Xanax

    • B.

      Rispordal

    • C.

      Valium

    • D.

      Pentasa

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Xanax
    C. Valium
    Explanation
    Xanax and Valium are medications that can increase beta activity. These drugs belong to the class of benzodiazepines, which are known to have a stimulating effect on the brain's beta waves. Beta waves are associated with alertness, concentration, and active thinking. Xanax and Valium work by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), which helps to regulate the excitability of neurons in the brain. By increasing the activity of beta waves, these medications can potentially improve cognitive function and promote wakefulness. Rispordal and Pentasa, on the other hand, are not known to have any direct effect on beta activity.

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  • 28. 

    What frequency is Beta activity?

    • A.

      2 Hz - 4 Hz

    • B.

      8 Hz - 14 Hz

    • C.

      .5 hz - 5 Hz

    • D.

      >13 Hz

    Correct Answer
    D. >13 Hz
    Explanation
    Beta activity refers to the brainwaves that occur at a frequency of greater than 13 Hz. This frequency range is associated with alertness, focus, and active thinking. It is often observed during periods of concentration, problem-solving, and cognitive tasks.

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  • 29. 

    ____ % of sleep is spent in N1 - Non REM 1.

    Correct Answer
    10
    Explanation
    The given answer states that 10% of sleep is spent in N1 - Non REM 1. This means that out of the total sleep duration, 10% of it is spent in the first stage of non-rapid eye movement sleep. N1 is the lightest stage of sleep where individuals are easily awakened and may experience muscle twitches.

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  • 30. 

    ____ % of sleep is spent in Stage N2 - Non REM 3. 

    Correct Answer
    20
    Explanation
    The given answer, 20%, suggests that during sleep, 20% of the time is spent in Stage N2 - Non REM 3. This stage is a part of non-rapid eye movement sleep and is characterized by the presence of both sleep spindles and K-complexes in the brainwave activity. It is a deeper stage of sleep compared to N1 and N2, but not as deep as N3 (also known as slow-wave sleep). This stage is important for consolidating memories, restoring energy, and promoting overall physical and mental health.

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  • 31. 

    ____% of sleep is spent in Stage R - REM

    Correct Answer
    20 , 25 , last third of the night
    Explanation
    During sleep, the human sleep cycle consists of different stages, one of which is REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep. REM sleep is characterized by rapid eye movements, vivid dreams, and increased brain activity. The given answer options suggest that a certain percentage of sleep time is spent in REM sleep. The options "20" and "25" indicate that either 20% or 25% of sleep time is spent in REM sleep. The option "last third of the night" suggests that REM sleep is more likely to occur during the final portion of a night's sleep.

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  • 32. 

    Stage N3 has the LOWEST threshold of wake during the night.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because Stage N3, also known as deep sleep or slow-wave sleep, has the highest threshold of wake during the night. This stage is characterized by the lowest brain activity and it is difficult to wake someone up during this stage.

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  • 33. 

    What is the main activity seen in younger (pediatric) patients?

    • A.

      Beta

    • B.

      Delta

    • C.

      Theta

    • D.

      Alpha

    Correct Answer
    C. Theta
    Explanation
    Theta brainwaves are commonly observed in younger (pediatric) patients. Theta activity is associated with deep relaxation, daydreaming, and the early stages of sleep. It is also seen during creative and imaginative activities, as well as during periods of focused attention. In younger patients, theta waves may be more prevalent due to their developing brains and higher levels of imagination and creativity. Therefore, theta is the main activity seen in younger patients.

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  • 34. 

    Alpha activity disappears when the eyes are open in Beta.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Alpha activity refers to a specific brain wave pattern that occurs when a person is in a relaxed and wakeful state with closed eyes. When the eyes are open, the brain transitions into a more active state known as beta activity. Therefore, it is true that alpha activity disappears when the eyes are open in beta.

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  • 35. 

    During Theta activity, it is normal for adults to feel drowsy. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During Theta activity, the brain is in a state of deep relaxation and is associated with drowsiness. This brainwave pattern is commonly observed during meditation, hypnosis, and deep sleep. Therefore, it is normal for adults to feel drowsy during Theta activity.

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  • 36. 

    Pediatric patients always have Alpha waves.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false. Alpha waves are not exclusive to pediatric patients. Alpha waves are a type of brain wave that occur in the frequency range of 8-13 Hz and can be observed in individuals of all ages, not just pediatric patients.

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  • 37. 

    Slowing is normal during Theta activity. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Theta activity is associated with a state of deep relaxation and creativity. During theta activity, the brainwaves slow down, which is considered normal. Therefore, the given statement that slowing is normal during theta activity is true.

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  • 38. 

    Beta activity is typically recorded in the ________ or _____ of the head. 

    Correct Answer
    center, centre, front
    Explanation
    Beta activity is typically recorded in the center or front of the head.

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  • 39. 

    Alpha activity can typically be found in the _______ of the head. 

    Correct Answer
    back, Back, BACK
    Explanation
    Alpha activity refers to a type of brain wave activity that occurs during a relaxed and awake state. These waves are typically found in the posterior region of the head, which is commonly referred to as the "back" of the head. The repetition of "back, Back, BACK" in the answer emphasizes that the correct location for alpha activity is indeed the back of the head.

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  • 40. 

    Delta activity is only seen in Stage N2 Sleep.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Delta is seen in Stage 3 - Deep sleep. It is only normal if seen in an adult patient in a deep sleep. if it is seen any other time, it would indicate a brain dysfunction.

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  • 41. 

    What is the Thalamus?

    • A.

      Relay station

    • B.

      Generates many of the brain rhythms in N Rem sleep

    • C.

      Sleep coordinator

    • D.

      Controls circadian rhythm

    • E.

      A & B

    • F.

      A & C

    Correct Answer
    E. A & B
    Explanation
    The thalamus is a relay station in the brain that receives sensory information from various parts of the body and sends it to the appropriate areas in the cerebral cortex for further processing. It is also responsible for generating many of the brain rhythms during N Rem sleep, which is a stage of sleep characterized by rapid eye movement. Therefore, options A and B are both correct as they accurately describe the functions of the thalamus.

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  • 42. 

    What does the (RAS) Reticular Activating System do?

    • A.

      Relays signals

    • B.

      Aids in maintaining consciousness

    • C.

      Controls the circadian rhythm

    • D.

      A & B

    Correct Answer
    D. A & B
    Explanation
    The (RAS) Reticular Activating System relays signals and aids in maintaining consciousness. It is responsible for filtering and relaying important sensory information to the brain, allowing us to stay alert and aware of our surroundings. Additionally, it helps regulate our sleep-wake cycle and plays a crucial role in maintaining our overall level of consciousness.

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  • 43. 

    The _______ is primarily effected by drugs that keep us awake, or make us sleepy.

    Correct Answer
    RAS , ras , Ras , reticular activating system , Reticular Activating System , Reticular activating system , (RAS)
    Explanation
    The reticular activating system (RAS) is primarily affected by drugs that keep us awake or make us sleepy. The RAS is a network of neurons located in the brainstem that plays a crucial role in regulating wakefulness and arousal. Drugs that stimulate the RAS can increase alertness and keep us awake, while drugs that inhibit the RAS can induce sleepiness and drowsiness.

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  • 44. 

    PONs is critical for initiating REM sleep. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The PONs is located on the brain steam - small and ball shaped. It sends signals to the spinal cord causing temporary paralysis.

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  • 45. 

    The hypothalamus is responsible for REM sleep. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is part of the RAS. it controls NREM sleep. it may be the region responsible for keeping track of our sleep debt.

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  • 46. 

    What does the peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consist of?

    • A.

      Sensory neurons

    • B.

      PONS

    • C.

      Effectors

    • D.

      A & C

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Sensory neurons
    C. Effectors
    Explanation
    Sensory neurons are receptors that inform the CNS of stimuli - think of being poked by a pin. Effectors are muscles and glands that take action - think knee jerk reaction.

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  • 47. 

    What is a Montage?

    • A.

      The configuration of all the channels that you want to include in your study. 

    • B.

      The manner in which pairs of electrodes are connected to each amplifier of the PSG equipment

    • C.

      EEG and EMG waves

    • D.

      A & B

    • E.

      B & C

    • F.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. The configuration of all the channels that you want to include in your study. 
    Explanation
    A montage refers to the configuration of all the channels that you want to include in your study. It is the arrangement of electrodes or channels on the scalp or body to record specific brain activities or physiological signals. This configuration is important for obtaining accurate and relevant data during a study or experiment.

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  • 48. 

    What is a differential amplifier?

    • A.

      Used to combine and measure the voltage of 2 signals of each input. The result is then displayed as a channel of EEG activity. 

    • B.

      Used to decide what input is more important, so you can have the display of EEG activity that you like, regardless of recommended voltage. 

    • C.

      Used to produce and measure the voltage difference between 2 signals of each input. The resulting signal is amplified, and then displayed as a channel of EEG activity. 

    • D.

      Used to find the difference between EMG and EEG and EKG activity so that only one activity is displayed. 

    Correct Answer
    C. Used to produce and measure the voltage difference between 2 signals of each input. The resulting signal is amplified, and then displayed as a channel of EEG activity. 
    Explanation
    A differential amplifier is used to produce and measure the voltage difference between two signals of each input. This voltage difference is then amplified and displayed as a channel of EEG activity.

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  • 49. 

    The ground electrode is placed at T4. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The ground electrode is placed at Fpz, no electrodes will be read without it.

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  • 50. 

    Odd numbered electrode positions are only on the LEFT side of the head. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that odd numbered electrode positions are indeed only on the left side of the head. This means that the electrodes are placed in a specific pattern, with odd numbers being assigned to the left side and even numbers being assigned to the right side. This pattern helps in accurately measuring and recording brain activity during various medical procedures or tests.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 27, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Pauve
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