CPM Pretest
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Quantitative research methodologies can usually be substituted for qualitative research methodologies.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Quantitative research methodologies cannot usually be substituted for qualitative research methodologies. Quantitative research focuses on gathering and analyzing numerical data, while qualitative research focuses on gathering and analyzing non-numerical data such as interviews, observations, and textual analysis. Each methodology has its own strengths and limitations, and they are used for different purposes. Therefore, they cannot be easily substituted for one another.Rate this question:
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- 2.
“If a treatment is shown to be effective on the basis of evidence-based medicine then that is enough reason to use it.”
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because while evidence-based medicine is an important factor in determining the effectiveness of a treatment, it should not be the sole reason for using it. Other factors such as cost, potential side effects, patient preferences, and clinical judgment should also be taken into consideration. Evidence-based medicine provides a framework for making informed decisions, but it should be used in conjunction with other relevant factors to determine the best course of action.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In a structured interview, all of the following may occur, except
- A.
Specific areas of interest are covered
- B.
Important information may be missed
- C.
Each person interviewed will cover the same material
- D.
The person being interviewed engages in a monologue narrative
Correct Answer
D. The person being interviewed engages in a monologue narrativeExplanation
In a structured interview, the person being interviewed is not expected to engage in a monologue narrative. A structured interview is a standardized and formal interview process where specific areas of interest are covered, important information may be missed, and each person interviewed will cover the same material. However, the person being interviewed is expected to respond to questions and engage in a dialogue with the interviewer, rather than delivering a monologue narrative.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In conducting a research study to investigate the harmful effects of an intervention or exposure, which type of research study would not be appropriate to use?
- A.
Cohort study
- B.
Randomized controlled trial
- C.
Case-control study
- D.
Case series
Correct Answer
B. Randomized controlled trialExplanation
A randomized controlled trial (RCT) would not be appropriate to use when investigating the harmful effects of an intervention or exposure because RCTs are typically used to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions, rather than to investigate harmful effects. In an RCT, participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or a control group, and the effects of the intervention are compared to the control group. This design is not suitable for investigating harmful effects because it would be unethical to intentionally expose participants to potentially harmful interventions.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a well designed N-of-1 randomized trial?
- A.
The patient has an acute condition
- B.
The condition being treated would not place the patient at risk for serious harm if left untreated
- C.
The treatment(s) under consideration act and cease acting quickly
- D.
Both the patient and the researcher (clinician) are blinded to which treatment is being administered at each time
Correct Answer
A. The patient has an acute conditionExplanation
The correct answer is "The patient has an acute condition." In a well-designed N-of-1 randomized trial, the patient typically has a chronic condition that requires ongoing treatment and monitoring. Acute conditions are usually short-term and do not require long-term treatment or monitoring. Therefore, an acute condition is not a characteristic of a well-designed N-of-1 randomized trial.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The tendency of data to cluster around a single value is referred to as the ______________ of the data.
- A.
Arithmetic mean
- B.
Central tendency
- C.
Median
- D.
Mode
Correct Answer
B. Central tendencyExplanation
Central tendency refers to the tendency of data to cluster around a single value. It is a measure that represents the "center" or "typical" value of a dataset. The arithmetic mean, median, and mode are all measures of central tendency, but in this case, the correct answer is central tendency itself, as it is the general term that encompasses all these measures.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A group of researchers undertake a research project. They devise a series of experiments to test their hypothesis. Their initial findings do not support their hypothesis. They repeat their experiments a number of times and the results of their later experiments support their hypothesis with statistical significance. The researchers write a paper describing only their later experiments and statistically significant results and submit it for publication. What type of bias may be taking place here?
- A.
Publication bias
- B.
Faulty comparator bias
- C.
Selective (outcome) reporting bias
Correct Answer
C. Selective (outcome) reporting biasExplanation
The bias that may be taking place in this scenario is selective (outcome) reporting bias. This bias occurs when researchers selectively report or emphasize certain results while ignoring or downplaying others. In this case, the researchers only describe their later experiments and statistically significant results, leaving out their initial findings that did not support their hypothesis. This selective reporting can lead to a distorted view of the true findings and may be misleading for readers and other researchers.Rate this question:
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- 8.
One of the differences between a bar chart and a histogram is that in a _______________ rearranging the bars changes the relationships among the data, whereas in a ____________________ rearranging the bars does not change the relationships among the data. Another difference between a bar chart and a histogram is that in a ________________ the data are nominal, but in a ______________________ the data are continuous.
- A.
Histogram: bar chart: bar chart: histogram
- B.
Histogram: bar chart: histogram: bar chart
- C.
Bar chart: histogram: bar chart: histogram
- D.
Bar chart: histogram: histogram: bar chart
Correct Answer
A. Histogram: bar chart: bar chart: histogramExplanation
In a histogram, rearranging the bars changes the relationships among the data because the bars represent different ranges or intervals of continuous data. However, in a bar chart, rearranging the bars does not change the relationships among the data because the bars represent distinct categories or groups of nominal data. Additionally, in a histogram, the data are continuous, meaning they can take any value within a range, while in a bar chart, the data are nominal, meaning they are categorical and do not have a specific numerical value.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Concluding that a relationship exists between variables when, in fact, it does not, is referred to as what type of error?
- A.
Type I error
- B.
Type II error
- C.
Type III error
- D.
Type IV error
Correct Answer
A. Type I errorExplanation
Concluding that a relationship exists between variables when, in fact, it does not, is referred to as a Type I error. This error occurs when a researcher rejects the null hypothesis (which assumes no relationship between variables) when it is actually true. In other words, it is a false positive result, leading to the incorrect conclusion that there is a relationship between the variables when there is not.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How many standard deviations above and below the mean contains 95% of the population (or sample)?
- A.
2.94 standard deviations
- B.
1.96 standard deviations
- C.
3.15 standard deviations
- D.
4.26 standard deviations
Correct Answer
B. 1.96 standard deviationsExplanation
In statistics, it is commonly known that approximately 95% of a population or sample falls within two standard deviations above and below the mean. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.96 standard deviations, as it is the closest option to this commonly accepted value.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Leadership is required in the health industry because:
- A.
Problems of cost, quality and access need to be solved.
- B.
Government policies need to be evaluated.
- C.
Too many people work in hospitals.
- D.
Many technologies are complicated.
- E.
Healthcare costs are too high.
Correct Answer
A. Problems of cost, quality and access need to be solved.Explanation
Leadership is required in the health industry because problems of cost, quality, and access need to be solved. This implies that there are challenges related to the affordability, effectiveness, and availability of healthcare services that need to be addressed. Effective leadership is necessary to identify and implement solutions to these problems, ensuring that healthcare services are accessible, affordable, and of high quality for all individuals.Rate this question:
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- 12.
There are several phases of leadership thought, the first phase is?
- A.
The Great Phase
- B.
The Behavioral Phase
- C.
The Situational Leadership Phase
- D.
The Great Man and Trait Phase
- E.
The Collective Phase
Correct Answer
D. The Great Man and Trait PhaseExplanation
The correct answer is "The Great Man and Trait Phase." This phase of leadership thought focuses on the belief that leaders are born with certain innate qualities or traits that make them effective leaders. It suggests that leadership is a natural ability that cannot be learned or developed. This phase also emphasizes the importance of studying and identifying these traits in order to select and develop future leaders.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A theory has undergone ______________and practical scrutiny at various levels of intensity to determine its value, truth and validity.
- A.
Scientific
- B.
Formal
- C.
Long term practice
- D.
Modeling
- E.
Publication
Correct Answer
A. ScientificExplanation
The correct answer is "Scientific" because theories are subject to scientific scrutiny to determine their value, truth, and validity. This involves testing the theory through experiments, observations, and data analysis to ensure its accuracy and reliability. Scientific scrutiny helps to establish the credibility and usefulness of a theory in the scientific community.Rate this question:
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- 14.
McGregor theorized Theory X and Theory Y workers, Theory X workers would be considered:
- A.
Enthusiastic
- B.
Ignored
- C.
Lazy
- D.
Satisfied
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. LazyExplanation
According to McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y, Theory X workers are considered lazy. Theory X assumes that employees are inherently lazy, dislike work, and need to be closely monitored and controlled in order to be productive. This theory suggests that workers lack motivation and need external rewards or punishments to perform well. Therefore, the correct answer is "Lazy."Rate this question:
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- 15.
In the Competency Based Leadership Model, Bennis suggests four actions or behaviors successful leaders employ, they are creating attention through vision; creating meaning through communication;______________________; and self-development.
- A.
Being accountable
- B.
Becoming a person of trust
- C.
Creating culture
- D.
Delegating to subordinates
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Becoming a person of trustExplanation
Bennis suggests that successful leaders employ the action of becoming a person of trust. This means that leaders should establish themselves as reliable and trustworthy individuals, gaining the confidence and faith of their team members. By doing so, leaders can build strong relationships, foster open communication, and create a sense of security within the team. This action is crucial for effective leadership as it helps to establish a positive and supportive work environment, where team members feel comfortable sharing their ideas and concerns.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Conflict management styles can be__________________.
- A.
Modified
- B.
Learned
- C.
Simultaneous
- D.
Moderated
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. LearnedExplanation
Conflict management styles can be learned. This means that individuals can acquire the necessary knowledge, skills, and techniques to effectively manage conflicts. Through training, education, and experience, individuals can develop a better understanding of different conflict management styles and learn how to apply them in various situations. By learning conflict management styles, individuals can improve their ability to resolve conflicts, enhance communication, and maintain positive relationships.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The comparison of beneficence to ______________ is a higher order set of constructs in the Omnibus Leadership Model.
- A.
Beneficiary
- B.
Contingencies
- C.
Malevolence
- D.
Justice
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. MalevolenceExplanation
The comparison of beneficence to malevolence is a higher order set of constructs in the Omnibus Leadership Model. This means that beneficence, which refers to the act of doing good and showing kindness, is being contrasted with malevolence, which refers to the act of doing harm or showing ill will. In the context of leadership, this suggests that leaders should strive to be benevolent and avoid any malevolent actions or intentions.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A _____________ is a mentee that will eventually take on the responsibilities of the mentor in a professional position.
- A.
Mentor
- B.
Telemachus
- C.
Protégé
- D.
Leader
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. ProtégéExplanation
A protégé is a mentee that will eventually take on the responsibilities of the mentor in a professional position. A protégé is someone who is being guided and mentored by a more experienced person in order to develop their skills and knowledge. As they progress in their career, the protégé will acquire the necessary expertise and experience to eventually assume the role of a mentor themselves, passing on their knowledge and skills to the next generation.Rate this question:
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- 19.
To reduce the potential for litigation, the keys to dealing with non-performing employees by health leaders are _____________, collaboration with the human resources department, legal counsel and senior leadership.
- A.
Coaching
- B.
Continuing Education
- C.
Documentation
- D.
Performance Improvement Plans
Correct Answer
C. DocumentationExplanation
To reduce the potential for litigation, health leaders need to prioritize documentation when dealing with non-performing employees. This means keeping detailed records of any performance issues, disciplinary actions, and attempts at improvement. Documentation provides evidence of the steps taken to address the employee's performance, which can be crucial in defending against potential legal claims. It also helps to ensure consistency and fairness in dealing with all employees. Collaboration with the human resources department, legal counsel, and senior leadership is also important to ensure that all necessary steps are followed and that the appropriate actions are taken.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The U.S. healthcare system can best be described as:
- A.
Expensive
- B.
Fragmented
- C.
Market-oriented
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The U.S. healthcare system can be described as expensive because healthcare costs in the country are significantly high compared to other developed nations. It is also fragmented, meaning that there is no unified healthcare system and instead, it is made up of multiple private and public entities. Lastly, the U.S. healthcare system is market-oriented, with a significant emphasis on private healthcare providers and insurance companies. Therefore, all of the given options accurately describe the U.S. healthcare system.Rate this question:
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- 21.
For most privately insured Americans, health insurance is:
- A.
Employer-based
- B.
Financed by the government
- C.
Privately purchased
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Employer-basedExplanation
Most privately insured Americans receive their health insurance through their employer. This means that their employer provides and pays for their health insurance coverage. This is a common arrangement in the United States, where employers often offer health insurance as part of their employee benefits package. It is different from being financed by the government or privately purchased by individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is employer-based.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Health policies are used in what capacity?
- A.
Regulation of behaviors
- B.
Allocation of income, services, or goods
- C.
Both a and b
- D.
Neither a nor b
Correct Answer
C. Both a and bExplanation
Health policies are used in both the regulation of behaviors and the allocation of income, services, or goods. Health policies are put in place to guide and regulate individual and societal behaviors that may impact health outcomes, such as smoking bans or mandatory vaccinations. At the same time, health policies also aim to ensure fair and equitable access to healthcare services, income support for healthcare, and the distribution of essential goods like medications and medical equipment. Therefore, health policies serve the purpose of both regulating behaviors and allocating resources.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Capitation removes the incentive to
- A.
Control costs
- B.
Provide unnecessary services.
- C.
File a reimbursement claim
- D.
Underutilize health care
Correct Answer
B. Provide unnecessary services.Explanation
Capitation is a payment model in healthcare where providers receive a fixed amount per patient, regardless of the services provided. This removes the incentive to control costs because providers are not financially rewarded for reducing expenses. However, it does create a potential incentive to provide unnecessary services in order to maximize revenue. Providers may be tempted to offer additional tests, procedures, or treatments that may not be medically necessary, leading to increased healthcare spending without improving patient outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 24.
According to the CDC, which factor contributes most to premature death in the U.S. population?
- A.
Lifestyle and behaviors
- B.
Lack of medical care
- C.
Social and environmental factors
- D.
Genetic makeup
Correct Answer
A. Lifestyle and behaviorsExplanation
Lifestyle and behaviors contribute most to premature death in the U.S. population because unhealthy habits such as smoking, poor diet, lack of physical activity, and substance abuse increase the risk of developing chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer, and diabetes. These lifestyle choices can also lead to obesity, which is a major risk factor for various health conditions. Additionally, behaviors like not wearing seatbelts or engaging in risky activities can result in fatal accidents. Therefore, adopting a healthy lifestyle and making positive behavior changes can significantly reduce the risk of premature death.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The core functions of public health include
- A.
Disease Prevention
- B.
Health promotion
- C.
Health protection
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The core functions of public health include disease prevention, health promotion, and health protection. Disease prevention involves implementing strategies to prevent the occurrence and spread of diseases. Health promotion focuses on improving the overall health and well-being of individuals and communities through education and awareness campaigns. Health protection involves implementing measures to protect individuals from environmental hazards and health threats. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all three functions are essential components of public health.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Lack of insurance can result in:
- A.
Decreased utilization of lower cost preventive services
- B.
Increased need for more expensive, emergency health care
- C.
The spread of infectious diseases
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Lack of insurance can result in decreased utilization of lower cost preventive services because individuals without insurance may not have access to regular check-ups or screenings that can detect and prevent potential health issues. It can also lead to increased need for more expensive, emergency health care as uninsured individuals may delay seeking medical attention until their condition worsens, requiring emergency treatment. Additionally, the spread of infectious diseases can occur when uninsured individuals are unable to afford vaccinations or proper medical care, allowing diseases to spread more easily. Therefore, all of the above consequences can be a result of lacking insurance.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following activities should be performed by the Board of Directors?
- A.
Calculating patient care fees
- B.
Determining staffing patterns
- C.
Recruiting new medical staff
- D.
Hiring the CEO
Correct Answer
D. Hiring the CEOExplanation
The Board of Directors should be responsible for hiring the CEO because it is their role to oversee the organization's leadership and ensure that the CEO is qualified and capable of fulfilling their duties. The CEO plays a crucial role in the organization's success, and it is important for the Board of Directors to be involved in the selection process to ensure the right fit for the organization's goals and values.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Approximately what percentage of GDP is spent on health care?
- A.
6%
- B.
16%
- C.
26%
- D.
36%
Correct Answer
B. 16%Explanation
The correct answer is 16%. This suggests that approximately 16% of a country's GDP is allocated towards healthcare expenditures. This indicates a significant portion of the economic resources is dedicated to maintaining and improving the health of the population.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Medical cost inflation is influenced by all of the following factors except:
- A.
Waste and abuse
- B.
Increase in elderly population
- C.
Decrease in uninsured
- D.
Growth of technology
Correct Answer
C. Decrease in uninsuredExplanation
The decrease in uninsured individuals does not directly influence medical cost inflation. When more people are insured, they have access to healthcare services, which can lead to an increase in demand for medical services and subsequently drive up costs. However, the decrease in uninsured individuals may indirectly impact medical cost inflation by reducing the burden of uncompensated care on healthcare providers, which could potentially lead to lower overall costs.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In the United States it is illegal to sell an organ to a buyer because:
- A.
The selling of an organ for money is considered immoral
- B.
The selling of an organ for profit can lead to other health issues that society has to absorb at a later time
- C.
It is not illegal to see an organ in the United States
- D.
There are greater person’s in need who may not have financial resources
Correct Answer
D. There are greater person’s in need who may not have financial resourcesExplanation
The correct answer is that there are greater persons in need who may not have financial resources. This means that allowing the sale of organs would create an unfair system where only those who can afford to buy organs would have access to them, while those who cannot afford it would suffer. This is why selling organs is illegal in the United States, to ensure that organ transplantation is based on medical need rather than financial means.Rate this question:
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- 31.
If a certain culture suggests that medical information be supplied to the male in the family first rather than the female, the physician should
- A.
Be cultural sensitive and find the senior adult male in the family
- B.
Make every attempt to accommodate the cultural issues, but when in doubt, inform the most available family member
- C.
Disregard cultural awareness and reply on state laws for guidance
- D.
Avoid cultural stereotyping and do not assume all members act equally
Correct Answer
D. Avoid cultural stereotyping and do not assume all members act equallyExplanation
The correct answer suggests that the physician should avoid cultural stereotyping and not assume that all members of the family will act equally. This means that the physician should not automatically assume that the medical information should be given to the male in the family first, but rather should assess the situation and communicate with all family members involved to ensure that the information is provided to the appropriate person based on their individual circumstances and preferences. This approach promotes cultural sensitivity and respects the autonomy and agency of each family member.Rate this question:
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- 32.
In regards to collective bargaining, which of the follow is true:
- A.
It is a union requirement that this process be available to employees
- B.
It is usually an adversarial process
- C.
The employer will set the conditions of the meeting
- D.
When continued dispute is the outcome, there is always an appeal process
Correct Answer
B. It is usually an adversarial processExplanation
Collective bargaining is usually an adversarial process because it involves negotiations between the employer and the union representing the employees. Both parties have their own interests and goals, which often leads to conflicts and disagreements during the bargaining process. The adversarial nature of collective bargaining allows each side to advocate for their respective positions and strive to achieve the best possible outcome for their constituents.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Decision making regarding intangible assets is similar for both for profit and not-for-profit organizations
- A.
True, both have the same government constraints on them
- B.
True, both for profit and not for profit organizations answer to the same stakeholders
- C.
False, not-for-profit organizations may have to weigh stakeholder values with the cost of the intangible item
- D.
False, intangible asset decision making is the same regardless of organization
Correct Answer
C. False, not-for-profit organizations may have to weigh stakeholder values with the cost of the intangible itemExplanation
The correct answer is false because not-for-profit organizations may have to consider the values of their stakeholders along with the cost of the intangible asset when making decisions. This is because not-for-profit organizations often have a wider range of stakeholders, including donors, volunteers, and the community, whose values and interests need to be taken into account when making decisions about intangible assets. For-profit organizations, on the other hand, primarily focus on maximizing profits and shareholder value.Rate this question:
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- 34.
An organization’s effectiveness can be decreased by leadership when the organization’s leadership:
- A.
Views individuals of a certain race as being homogenous and fitting in with other members of the racial group by default.
- B.
Engages in hiring practices that promote diversity
- C.
Views a person as an individual outside of one’s culture
- D.
All of the above will decrease organizations effectiveness.
Correct Answer
A. Views individuals of a certain race as being homogenous and fitting in with other members of the racial group by default.Explanation
When leadership views individuals of a certain race as being homogenous and fitting in with other members of the racial group by default, it can decrease an organization's effectiveness. This perspective overlooks the unique qualities, skills, and perspectives that individuals from different races can bring to the table. It promotes a narrow and limited understanding of diversity and hinders the organization's ability to benefit from a diverse workforce. By failing to recognize and value individual differences, the organization misses out on the potential for innovation, creativity, and varied perspectives that can contribute to its overall success.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is the most important tool for determining an individual’s annual salary and/or salary bonus?
- A.
Longevity of the employee.
- B.
Performance appraisals
- C.
Your personal relationship with the employee.
- D.
Disciplinary actions
Correct Answer
B. Performance appraisalsExplanation
Performance appraisals are the most important tool for determining an individual's annual salary and/or salary bonus because they provide a comprehensive evaluation of an employee's job performance. Performance appraisals assess factors such as productivity, quality of work, teamwork, and adherence to company policies. These evaluations help employers make informed decisions about salary adjustments and bonuses based on an employee's performance and contribution to the organization. Longevity of the employee, personal relationships, and disciplinary actions may have some influence, but they are not as crucial as performance appraisals in determining salary and bonuses.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Information support systems allow a leader to:
- A.
Integrate information from various sources to make decisions
- B.
Save money by moving away from paper based retrieval systems
- C.
Are constantly changing and are burdensome to providers
- D.
See daily and hourly reports on activities inside the facility
Correct Answer
C. Are constantly changing and are burdensome to providersExplanation
Information support systems are constantly changing and can be burdensome to providers because they require regular updates and maintenance to keep up with technological advancements and changes in the organization's needs. These systems often require training and support for providers to effectively use them, which can be time-consuming and challenging. Additionally, providers may need to adapt to new processes and workflows as the system evolves, adding to the burden.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The overall goal of environmental analysis is to position the organization within its:
- A.
Food Chain
- B.
Life Cycle Model
- C.
TOWS Analysis
- D.
Environment
Correct Answer
D. EnvironmentExplanation
Environmental analysis is the process of assessing and understanding the external factors that can impact an organization's operations and strategies. By conducting environmental analysis, organizations can identify opportunities and threats in their external environment. The goal of this analysis is to position the organization within its environment, meaning that it aims to understand how the organization fits into its surrounding context and how it can adapt and respond to the external factors effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is "Environment."Rate this question:
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- 38.
Managers in health service organizations hold authority as:
- A.
Figurehead, liaison, arbitrator, mentor, and legal advisor
- B.
Interpersonal rolls, informational roles and decision roles
- C.
Only that which is described by the chief executive officer
- D.
The 1st link is managing process change
Correct Answer
B. Interpersonal rolls, informational roles and decision rolesExplanation
The correct answer is "Interpersonal rolls, informational roles and decision roles". This answer is supported by the fact that managers in health service organizations are expected to perform various interpersonal roles, such as being a figurehead, liaison, arbitrator, mentor, and legal advisor. They also have informational roles, where they gather and disseminate information within the organization. Additionally, managers have decision roles, where they make important decisions that affect the organization. Therefore, this answer accurately describes the authority and responsibilities of managers in health service organizations.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The CEO may engage in direct contract relationships if he or she is
- A.
Vested with the authority of the board
- B.
Vested with legal capacity
- C.
Has a law degree and license
- D.
Formerly served as the contract officer
Correct Answer
A. Vested with the authority of the boardExplanation
The CEO may engage in direct contract relationships if he or she is vested with the authority of the board. This means that the CEO has been granted the power and decision-making capabilities by the board of directors to enter into contracts on behalf of the company. This authority allows the CEO to negotiate and finalize contracts without needing additional approval or involvement from the board. It demonstrates a high level of trust and confidence in the CEO's abilities to make contractual decisions for the organization.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The P-value is used to determine:
- A.
Confidence interval
- B.
Significance
- C.
Error
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. SignificanceExplanation
The P-value is used to determine the significance of a statistical result. It measures the probability of obtaining a result as extreme as the observed data, assuming that the null hypothesis is true. A small P-value (typically less than 0.05) indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, suggesting that the observed result is statistically significant. Therefore, the correct answer is "Significance".Rate this question:
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- 41.
The F-Ratio “can be used” to determine
- A.
Confidence interval
- B.
Significance
- C.
Level of Error
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Level of ErrorExplanation
The F-Ratio can be used to determine the level of error in a statistical analysis. It is a measure of the ratio of two variances and is used in analysis of variance (ANOVA) to determine if there are significant differences between groups. By comparing the F-Ratio to a critical value, researchers can determine if the observed differences are statistically significant or if they are likely due to chance. Therefore, the F-Ratio is a useful tool for assessing the level of error in a statistical analysis.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following types of variables are best used in a parametric test
- A.
Continues variables
- B.
Dichotomous variables
- C.
Categorical; variables
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Continues variablesExplanation
Continuous variables are best used in parametric tests because they have a wide range of possible values and can be measured on a scale. Parametric tests assume that the data follows a specific distribution, such as a normal distribution, and continuous variables are more likely to meet this assumption. Dichotomous variables have only two possible values and are not suitable for parametric tests. Categorical variables can be used in parametric tests if they are converted into numerical values, but continuous variables are the most appropriate choice.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A regression analysis is best used in which scenario
- A.
When you are looking at the differences between males and females and ER use
- B.
When comparing the outcomes of NPs, MDs and Pas across primary care loads
- C.
When determining factors affecting costs in a large hospital
- D.
When comparing your hospital costs to that of a similar size hospital across town
Correct Answer
C. When determining factors affecting costs in a large hospitalExplanation
A regression analysis is best used when determining factors affecting costs in a large hospital because it allows for the identification and quantification of the relationships between independent variables (such as staffing levels, equipment costs, or patient demographics) and the dependent variable (hospital costs). By analyzing these relationships, regression analysis can help identify which factors have a significant impact on costs and how much they contribute to the overall expenses of the hospital. This can inform decision-making and resource allocation strategies to optimize cost management in the hospital.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A T-test is best used in which scenario
- A.
When you are looking at the differences between males and females and ER use
- B.
When comparing the outcomes of NPs, MDs and Pas across primary care loads
- C.
When determining factors affecting costs in a large hospital
- D.
When comparing your hospital costs to that of a similar size hospital across town
Correct Answer
D. When comparing your hospital costs to that of a similar size hospital across townExplanation
A T-test is best used when comparing your hospital costs to that of a similar size hospital across town. This statistical test is commonly used to determine if there is a significant difference between the means of two groups. In this scenario, the T-test can help analyze whether there is a significant difference in costs between the two hospitals, providing valuable information for cost management and decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which alpha represents a 99% confidence interval in statistics:
- A.
.05
- B.
.01
- C.
.001
- D.
.10
Correct Answer
B. .01Explanation
The alpha level represents the significance level or the probability of making a Type I error in hypothesis testing. A 99% confidence interval means that there is a 1% chance of making a Type I error. Therefore, the correct alpha level for a 99% confidence interval is .01, as it represents a 1% chance of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which statement best represents the null hypothesis statement
- A.
The evidence is not supported
- B.
There is no difference between variables
- C.
There is support of the statistical finding
- D.
There is a difference
Correct Answer
B. There is no difference between variablesExplanation
The null hypothesis is a statement that assumes there is no significant difference or relationship between variables. It is often used in statistical hypothesis testing to compare observed data with expected outcomes. In this context, the statement "There is no difference between variables" best represents the null hypothesis statement.Rate this question:
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- 47.
If the standard deviation is greater than the mean, this is hard support for:
- A.
A normal distribution
- B.
A data set with (probably) both skewness and kurtosis in the distribution
- C.
Missing data
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. A data set with (probably) both skewness and kurtosis in the distributionExplanation
If the standard deviation is greater than the mean, it suggests that the data points are spread out widely from the mean. This indicates that the distribution is likely to have both skewness and kurtosis. Skewness refers to the asymmetry of the distribution, while kurtosis measures the thickness of the tail ends of the distribution. Therefore, a data set with both skewness and kurtosis is the most plausible explanation for a standard deviation greater than the mean.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following are measures of central tendancy
- A.
Mean, median, mode and standard deviation
- B.
Confidence interval, p-value, f-ratio and t-statistics
- C.
Mean square error, means square treatment and error sum of squares
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Mean, median, mode and standard deviationExplanation
Mean, median, mode, and standard deviation are all measures of central tendency. The mean is the average value of a set of data, calculated by summing all the values and dividing by the number of values. The median is the middle value in a set of data when arranged in ascending order. The mode is the value that appears most frequently in a set of data. The standard deviation measures the spread or dispersion of the data, indicating how much the values deviate from the mean. These measures provide information about the typical or central value of a dataset.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A chi square is best used with which kind of data:
- A.
Continuous data
- B.
Dichotomous data
- C.
Interval data
- D.
Ratio data
Correct Answer
B. Dichotomous dataExplanation
A chi square test is best used with dichotomous data because it compares observed frequencies with expected frequencies to determine if there is a significant difference between the two. Dichotomous data refers to variables that have only two categories or levels, such as yes/no, true/false, or success/failure. The chi square test can assess whether the observed frequencies of these categories differ significantly from what would be expected by chance, making it an appropriate statistical test for analyzing dichotomous data.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which organization created the CPT codes?
- A.
American College of Healthcare Executives
- B.
American Medical Association
- C.
Heath Care Finance Administration (HCFA)
- D.
World Health Organization
Correct Answer
B. American Medical AssociationExplanation
The American Medical Association (AMA) created the CPT codes. CPT stands for Current Procedural Terminology, and these codes are used to describe medical procedures and services provided by healthcare professionals. The AMA developed the CPT coding system to standardize the reporting of medical procedures and services, making it easier for healthcare providers, insurers, and researchers to communicate and analyze healthcare data. The AMA continues to maintain and update the CPT codes to ensure their accuracy and relevance in the ever-evolving field of healthcare.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 11, 2013Quiz Created by
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