Certified Professional Coder Exam Quiz!

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  • 1/25 Questions

    This term means to identify the presence of and the amount of:

    • Qualitative
    • Definitive
    • Authoritative
    • Quantitative
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About This Quiz


Do you know what is a certified professional coder? A certified professional coder is someone of high moral standards and competence who has cleared a coding certification examination. A certified professional coder has knowledge and experience in coding procedures and diagnoses used by doctors. As a certified professional coder, you are responsible for knowing each diagnosis's correct application and procedure code. With the aid of this quiz you will be prepared for the certified professional coder exam. All the best.

Certified Professional Coder Exam Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The cup-shaped depression on the hip joint that receives the head of the femur is the:

    • Acetabulum

    • Calcaneus

    • Trochlea

    • Medial malleolus

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetabulum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is acetabulum. The acetabulum is a cup-shaped depression on the hip joint that receives the head of the femur. It is located on the pelvis and forms the socket for the hip joint. The acetabulum is made up of the fusion of three bones: the ilium, ischium, and pubis. It is essential for the stability and movement of the hip joint, allowing for smooth articulation between the femur and pelvis.

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  • 3. 

    The lower third of the small intestine is the:

    • Jejunum

    • Tenue

    • Ileum

    • Duodeum

    Correct Answer
    A. Ileum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ileum. The small intestine is divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The ileum is the final section of the small intestine, located between the jejunum and the large intestine. It is responsible for absorbing nutrients from digested food, as well as absorbing bile salts and vitamin B12.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is an endocrine gland?

    • Spleen

    • Bone marrow

    • Tonsils

    • Adrenal

    Correct Answer
    A. Adrenal
    Explanation
    The adrenal gland is an endocrine gland located on top of the kidneys. It produces hormones such as adrenaline, cortisol, and aldosterone, which are essential for regulating various bodily functions, including metabolism, stress response, and blood pressure. Unlike the spleen, bone marrow, and tonsils, which are part of the immune system or involved in blood cell production, the adrenal gland specifically functions as an endocrine gland by secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream.

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  • 5. 

    This term means to turn downward:

    • Flexion

    • Adduction

    • Circumduction

    • Pronation

    Correct Answer
    A. Pronation
    Explanation
    Pronation refers to the movement of turning the palm or sole of the foot downward. It is the opposite of supination, which is the movement of turning the palm or sole of the foot upward. In the context of the given options, pronation is the only term that accurately describes the action of turning downward. Flexion refers to bending a joint, adduction refers to movement towards the midline of the body, and circumduction refers to a circular movement of a body part.

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  • 6. 

    This term means the soft tissue around the nail border:

    • Sebaceous

    • Dermis

    • Lunula

    • Perionychium

    Correct Answer
    A. Perionychium
    Explanation
    The term "perionychium" refers to the soft tissue that surrounds the border of the nail. It includes the proximal nail fold, lateral nail folds, and the hyponychium. This tissue helps to protect the nail bed and plays a role in nail growth and maintenance. The other options, sebaceous, dermis, and lunula, do not specifically refer to the soft tissue around the nail border.

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  • 7. 

    This is nature's pacemaker:

    • Atrioventricular node

    • Bundle of His

    • Septum

    • Sinoatrial node

    Correct Answer
    A. Sinoatrial node
    Explanation
    The sinoatrial node is often referred to as the "natural pacemaker" of the heart because it is responsible for initiating the electrical signals that regulate the heart's rhythm. Located in the right atrium, the sinoatrial node generates electrical impulses that cause the atria to contract, leading to the pumping of blood into the ventricles. These impulses then travel to the atrioventricular node, bundle of His, and the rest of the heart, coordinating the contraction and relaxation of the heart muscles. Therefore, the sinoatrial node plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's rhythm and is rightly considered nature's pacemaker.

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  • 8. 

    This is another name for the bulbourethral gland:

    • Tunica albuginea

    • Seminal vesicles

    • Prostate

    • Cowper's

    Correct Answer
    A. Cowper's
    Explanation
    Cowper's gland, also known as the bulbourethral gland, is the correct answer. These glands are located below the prostate gland and are responsible for producing a clear fluid that helps lubricate and neutralize the acidity of the urethra before ejaculation. The fluid released by Cowper's gland also aids in the protection and transportation of sperm during sexual intercourse.

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  • 9. 

    The combining form that means nerve root:

    • Rhiz/o

    • Poli/o

    • Phas/o

    • Myel/o

    Correct Answer
    A. Myel/o
    Explanation
    The combining form "myel/o" refers to the nerve root.

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  • 10. 

    This is located in the middle ear:

    • Vestibule

    • Cochlea

    • Auricle

    • Stapes

    Correct Answer
    A. Stapes
    Explanation
    The stapes is a small bone located in the middle ear. It is one of the three ossicles, along with the malleus and incus, that transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The stapes is also known as the stirrup bone due to its shape, and it plays a crucial role in amplifying sound waves and transmitting them to the cochlea, which is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain.

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  • 11. 

    All third-party payers require the use of HCPCS codes in submissions for service provided to any patient.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Not all third-party payers require the use of HCPCS codes in submissions for services provided to patients. While many insurance companies, including Medicare and Medicaid, do require HCPCS codes for billing specific services, procedures, and equipment, some private insurers might have different coding requirements or use other coding systems. It is essential to verify each payer's specific requirements to ensure accurate and compliant billing practices.

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  • 12. 

    The approximate number of days of gestation of the fetus:

    • 240

    • 255

    • 266

    • 277

    Correct Answer
    A. 277
    Explanation
    The approximate number of days of gestation of the fetus is 277. Gestation refers to the period of time during which a fetus develops inside the womb of a pregnant woman. The average length of human gestation is around 280 days, or 40 weeks, from the first day of the woman's last menstrual period. Therefore, 277 days falls within the typical range for gestation.

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  • 13. 

     This term means to divert or make an artificial passage:

    • Burr

    • Occipital

    • Shunt

    • Catheter

    Correct Answer
    A. Catheter
    Explanation
    A catheter is a medical device used to divert or create an artificial passage in the body. It is inserted into a body cavity, duct, or blood vessel to allow the flow of fluids or to administer medication. This can be done to bypass an obstruction or to redirect the flow of fluids. Therefore, the term "catheter" accurately describes the action of diverting or making an artificial passage.

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  • 14. 

    A patient is diagnosed with bacterial endocarditis due to AIDS:

    • 421.0, 042

    • 042, 421.9

    • 421.1, 042

    • 042, 421.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 042, 421.0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 042, 421.0. This answer indicates that the patient has both AIDS (042) and bacterial endocarditis (421.0). AIDS is a viral infection caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), while bacterial endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart caused by bacteria. The combination of these two diagnoses suggests that the patient with AIDS has developed bacterial endocarditis as a complication of their weakened immune system.

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  • 15. 

    This muscle is used to chew:

    • Temporal

    • Masseter

    • Trapezius

    • Sternocleidomastoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Sternocleidomastoid
  • 16. 

    This abbreviation means that the neonate has a lower than normal weight:

    • VLBW

    • LNBW

    • BWLN

    • LBWV

    Correct Answer
    A. LBWV
    Explanation
    LBWV stands for "low birth weight variant." This abbreviation indicates that the neonate (newborn) has a lower than normal weight at birth. The term "low birth weight" refers to babies who weigh less than 5.5 pounds (2.5 kilograms) at birth. The addition of "variant" suggests that LBWV may refer to a specific subset or variation within the low birth weight category.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not a part of the kidney?

    • Cortex

    • Trigone

    • Medulla

    • Pyramids

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyramids
  • 18. 

    This gland is located at the base of the brain in a depression in the skull:

    • Thymus

    • Hypothalamus

    • Pituitary

    • Pineal

    Correct Answer
    A. Pineal
    Explanation
    The pineal gland is located at the base of the brain in a depression in the skull called the sella turcica. It is a small endocrine gland that secretes melatonin, a hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycles. The pineal gland is responsible for controlling circadian rhythms and plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological processes in the body.

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  • 19. 

    What should a coder do when a physician documents a "rule out" diagnosis for an outpatient service?

    • Code the "rule out" diagnosis as if it is confirmed.

    • Assign a code for a symptom or condition that prompted the "rule out" diagnosis.

    • Leave the diagnosis code blank until confirmation is provided.

    • Use the sign or symptom codes as the primary diagnosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assign a code for a symptom or condition that prompted the "rule out" diagnosis.
    Explanation
    According to ICD-10-CM guidelines for outpatient services, coders should not code diagnoses documented as "rule out," "suspected," "questionable," "probable," or "still to be ruled out," or other similar terms indicating uncertainty. Instead, they should code the condition(s) to the highest degree of certainty for that encounter/visit, such as symptoms, signs, abnormal test results, or other reasons for the visit.

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  • 20. 

    When coding for a patient with acute and chronic respiratory conditions, and both are treated during the visit, which condition should be coded first according to ICD-10-CM guidelines?

    • Code only the acute condition since it is more severe.

    • Code only the chronic condition because it is ongoing.

    • Code both, with the acute condition listed first.

    • Code both, with the chronic condition listed first.

    Correct Answer
    A. Code both, with the acute condition listed first.
    Explanation
    According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, if both acute and chronic forms of a condition exist and both are treated during the visit, the acute condition should be coded before the chronic condition. This reflects the critical nature and urgency of acute conditions.

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  • 21. 

    In ICD-10-CM coding, when a patient with a known diagnosis is admitted for an unrelated condition, how should the coding be reported?

    • Code only the unrelated condition as it is the reason for the current encounter.

    • Code both the known diagnosis and the unrelated condition, with the known diagnosis first.

    • Code both the known diagnosis and the unrelated condition, with the unrelated condition first.

    • Code only the known diagnosis, as it is the underlying condition.

    Correct Answer
    A. Code both the known diagnosis and the unrelated condition, with the unrelated condition first.
    Explanation
    According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the condition that prompted the admission or encounter should be sequenced first. The known diagnosis (pre-existing condition) is also coded but listed after the reason for the current encounter, reflecting the guidelines for coding and reporting of pre-existing and coexisting conditions.

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  • 22. 

    The term that means the expansion of:

    • Dilation

    • Curettage

    • Tocolysis

    • Manipulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Manipulation
    Explanation
    Manipulation refers to the process of skillfully using one's hands to move, adjust, or control something, especially in a medical context. In the given list, the other terms - dilation, curettage, and tocolysis - do not specifically involve the act of physically manipulating or moving something. Therefore, the correct answer is manipulation.

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  • 23. 

    This combining form means artery:

    • Angi/o

    • Aort/o

    • Arteri/o

    • Atri/o

    Correct Answer
    A. Atri/o
    Explanation
    The combining form "atri/o" refers to the atrium, which is a chamber in the heart. It does not specifically mean artery. Therefore, the correct answer should be "arteri/o" which specifically means artery.

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  • 24. 

    This is located in the pharynx and contains the adenoids:

    • Oropharynx

    • Laryngopharynx

    • Nasopharynx

    • Sphenoidal

    Correct Answer
    A. Sphenoidal
  • 25. 

    Holter Report Location: Outpatient, Clinic. Indication: Patient with atrial fibrillation on Lanoxin. Patient with known cardiomyopathy. Baseline Data: An 86 year old man with congestive heart failure on Elavil, Vasotec, Lanoxin, and Lasix. The patient was monitored for the 24 hours in which the analysis was performed. Interpretation: 1. The predominante rhythm is atrial fibrillation. The average ventricular rate is 74 beats per minute, minimum 49 beats per minute, and maximum 114 beats per minute. 2. A total of 4948 ventricular ectopic beats were detected. There were four forms. There were 146 couplets with one triplet and five runs of bigeminy. There were two runs of ventricular tachycardia, the longest for 5 beats at a rate of 150 beats per minute. There was no ventricular fibrillation. 3. There were no prolonged pauses. Conclusion: 4. Predominante rhythm is atrial fibrillation with well-controlled ventricular rate. 5. There are no prolonged pauses. 6. Asymptomatic, nonsustained, ventricular tachycardia.

    • 427.3, 425.4

    • 425.4, 427.3

    • 427.31, 425.4

    • 427.32, 425.4

    Correct Answer
    A. 427.32, 425.4
    Explanation
    The correct answer for this question is 427.32, 425.4. This is because the Holter report indicates that the patient has atrial fibrillation (427.32) as the predominant rhythm, with a well-controlled ventricular rate. Additionally, the report mentions the presence of ventricular ectopic beats (425.4) in various forms, including couplets, triplets, runs of bigeminy, and runs of ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, both codes are necessary to accurately represent the findings in the Holter report.

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  • Current Version
  • May 09, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 13, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Clara27-i
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