Command Post 7 Level Quiz

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| By Jeremiahdawson
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Jeremiahdawson
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 277
Questions: 90 | Attempts: 277

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Command Post 7 Level Quiz - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Defense agencies that are assigned wartime support missions are designated as

    • A.

      Lead agencies

    • B.

      Field operating agencies

    • C.

      Combat support agencies

    • D.

      Multinational force agencies

    Correct Answer
    C. Combat support agencies
    Explanation
    Defense agencies that are assigned wartime support missions are designated as combat support agencies. These agencies are responsible for providing various types of support to military forces during times of war or conflict. This support can include logistics, intelligence, communications, and other critical services that are necessary for the success of military operations. Combat support agencies work closely with the combatant commands and other military organizations to ensure that the necessary support is provided in a timely and effective manner.

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  • 2. 

    Who is responsible for providing efficiently organized, trained, and equipped-ready military forces to the combatant commmanders?

    • A.

      Secretary of State

    • B.

      Service secretaries

    • C.

      Secretary of Defense (SecDef)

    • D.

      Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)

    Correct Answer
    B. Service secretaries
    Explanation
    The service secretaries are responsible for providing efficiently organized, trained, and equipped-ready military forces to the combatant commanders. This means that they oversee the administration and management of their respective military branches (Army, Navy, Air Force) and ensure that the forces under their command are prepared and capable of carrying out their missions effectively. They work closely with the Secretary of Defense and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to coordinate and align military efforts.

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  • 3. 

    What three roles does the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) have in the chain of command

    • A.

      Coordinator, manager, and spokesman

    • B.

      Negotiator, spokesman, and delegator

    • C.

      Oversight, communications, and negotiator

    • D.

      Communications, oversight, and spokesman

    Correct Answer
    D. Communications, oversight, and spokesman
    Explanation
    The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) plays three key roles in the chain of command. Firstly, they are responsible for communications, ensuring effective communication between the President, Secretary of Defense, and the military branches. Secondly, they provide oversight by monitoring military operations and advising on strategic decisions. Lastly, they act as a spokesman, representing the military in public and conveying important information to the media and the public.

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  • 4. 

    The traditional roles and missions of each branch of service are often referred to as

    • A.

      Responsiblities

    • B.

      Operations

    • C.

      Functions

    • D.

      Support

    Correct Answer
    C. Functions
    Explanation
    The traditional roles and missions of each branch of service are often referred to as "functions" because they represent the specific tasks and responsibilities that each branch is assigned to perform. These functions can include combat operations, logistical support, intelligence gathering, and other specialized tasks that are essential for the overall effectiveness and success of the military. By categorizing these roles as functions, it allows for a clear understanding of the distinct contributions and capabilities of each branch within the larger framework of the military organization.

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  • 5. 

    What command authority is over assigned forces vested in the commanders of combatant commands by US law and is not transferable?

    • A.

      Combatant command

    • B.

      Unified combatant command

    • C.

      Specified combatant command

    • D.

      Operational combatant command

    Correct Answer
    A. Combatant command
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Combatant command." In the United States, the command authority over assigned forces is vested in the commanders of combatant commands by US law. This authority is not transferable, meaning that it cannot be delegated to another entity or individual. Combatant commands are responsible for the operational planning and execution of military missions within their assigned geographic or functional areas of responsibility. They have the authority to command and control forces, allocate resources, and make decisions to accomplish their assigned missions.

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  • 6. 

    What command authority may be exercised by commanders at any level at or below the level of combatant command and may be delegated within the command?

    • A.

      Tactical control

    • B.

      Functional control

    • C.

      Operational control

    • D.

      Administrative control

    Correct Answer
    C. Operational control
    Explanation
    Operational control refers to the command authority that can be exercised by commanders at any level at or below the level of combatant command. It allows commanders to direct and coordinate military forces in executing missions and tasks. This authority may be delegated within the command structure, enabling subordinate commanders to exercise operational control over specific units or tasks. Operational control is essential for effective military operations as it ensures unity of effort and coordination among different units and elements within a command.

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  • 7. 

    Which two leaders does the National Military Command System (NMCS) provide the means for information to be sent and received to support timely decisions?

    • A.

      President and Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)

    • B.

      Secretary of the AIr Force (SecDef) and (CJCS)

    • C.

      CJCS and combatant commander

    • D.

      President and SecDef

    Correct Answer
    D. President and SecDef
    Explanation
    The National Military Command System (NMCS) provides the means for information to be sent and received to support timely decisions by the President and the Secretary of Defense (SecDef). As the highest-ranking civilian and military leaders respectively, the President and the SecDef play crucial roles in making decisions related to national security and military operations. Therefore, it is essential for the NMCS to facilitate communication between these two leaders to ensure effective decision-making.

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  • 8. 

    Which two command and control (C2) agencies are authorized to operate a separate dedicated center to manage assets beyond the limits of their home station?

    • A.

      Installation Control Center (ICC) and Air Force Information Operations Center (AFOIC)

    • B.

      Air Force Service Watch Cell (AFSWC) and Air Force Operations Group (AFOG)

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM) and numbered AIr Force (NAF)

    • D.

      AFSWC and MAJCOM

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command (MAJCOM) and numbered AIr Force (NAF)
    Explanation
    Major command (MAJCOM) and numbered Air Force (NAF) are authorized to operate a separate dedicated center to manage assets beyond the limits of their home station. This means that these two command and control agencies have the authority and capability to manage and coordinate assets in locations outside of their main base of operations. They have the responsibility to oversee and direct operations across multiple locations and ensure effective command and control of assets under their jurisdiction.

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  • 9. 

    What command normally operates under the terms of a treaty, alliance, or bilateral agreement between or among the countries concerned?

    • A.

      Combatant

    • B.

      Combined

    • C.

      Operational

    • D.

      Multinational

    Correct Answer
    B. Combined
    Explanation
    A command that operates under the terms of a treaty, alliance, or bilateral agreement between or among countries is known as a combined command. This type of command brings together military forces from multiple nations to work together towards a common goal. It allows for coordination and cooperation among the participating countries, pooling their resources and expertise for a more effective and efficient operation.

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  • 10. 

    Under what command can the president never relinquish authority over United States forces?

    • A.

      Parallel

    • B.

      National

    • C.

      Lead nation

    • D.

      Multinational

    Correct Answer
    B. National
    Explanation
    The president can never relinquish authority over United States forces under the command of "National". This means that the president has ultimate control and decision-making power over the military forces of the United States, and cannot delegate or transfer this authority to any other entity or nation.

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  • 11. 

    What three types of basic structures fall into multinational operations?

    • A.

      Integrated, lead nation, or multinational command

    • B.

      Parallel, integrated, or multinational command

    • C.

      Integrated, lead nation, or parallel command

    • D.

      Multinational, combatant, or combined command

    Correct Answer
    C. Integrated, lead nation, or parallel command
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Integrated, lead nation, or parallel command. These three types of basic structures fall into multinational operations. Integrated command refers to a structure where multiple nations work together under a single command. Lead nation command involves one nation taking the lead and coordinating the operations of other nations. Parallel command refers to a structure where multiple nations operate independently but in coordination with each other. These structures are commonly used in multinational operations to ensure effective coordination and cooperation among different nations.

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  • 12. 

    What is a pact or treaty among individuals or groups, during which they cooperate in joint action, each in their own self interests, joining forces together for a common cause?

    • A.

      Coalition

    • B.

      Alliance

    • C.

      Arrangement

    • D.

      Joint alliance

    Correct Answer
    A. Coalition
    Explanation
    A coalition is a pact or treaty among individuals or groups where they cooperate in joint action, each pursuing their own self-interests, but coming together for a common cause. In a coalition, different parties or organizations join forces and work together to achieve a shared objective, pooling their resources and expertise. This collaboration allows the participants to leverage their individual strengths and increase their collective impact, making it an effective strategy for achieving common goals while still prioritizing individual interests.

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  • 13. 

    What is vital to any multinational force

    • A.

      An agreement

    • B.

      Two commanders

    • C.

      A liaison

    • D.

      A treaty

    Correct Answer
    C. A liaison
    Explanation
    A liaison is vital to any multinational force as it serves as a point of communication and coordination between different units and commanders from different countries. It helps to bridge the language and cultural barriers, ensuring effective collaboration and understanding among the forces. A liaison officer facilitates the exchange of information, coordinates joint operations, and enhances interoperability, ultimately contributing to the success of the multinational force's mission.

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  • 14. 

    Which system is comprised of command and management, preparedness, resource management, communication and information management, and ongoing management and maintenance components?

    • A.

      Multiagency system approach

    • B.

      Multiagency Coordination Systems

    • C.

      Incident Command System (ICS) concept

    • D.

      National Incident Management System (NIMS) system approach

    Correct Answer
    D. National Incident Management System (NIMS) system approach
    Explanation
    The National Incident Management System (NIMS) system approach is the correct answer because it encompasses all the mentioned components: command and management, preparedness, resource management, communication and information management, and ongoing management and maintenance. NIMS is a comprehensive framework that provides a systematic and coordinated approach to incident management across various agencies and jurisdictions. It ensures effective coordination and integration of resources, communication, and information sharing during incidents, making it an essential system for managing emergencies and disasters.

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  • 15. 

    Within the National Incident Management System (NIMS), which key organizational system defines the operating characteristics and structure of incident management?

    • A.

      Public information systems

    • B.

      Incident Command System (ICS)

    • C.

      Multiagency coordination system

    • D.

      Air Force Incident Management System

    Correct Answer
    B. Incident Command System (ICS)
    Explanation
    The Incident Command System (ICS) is a key organizational system within the National Incident Management System (NIMS) that defines the operating characteristics and structure of incident management. It provides a standardized approach for command, control, and coordination of emergency response efforts. ICS establishes clear roles and responsibilities for personnel involved in managing incidents, ensuring effective communication, coordination, and unity of command. By implementing ICS, organizations can effectively respond to incidents and work together in a coordinated manner to achieve their objectives.

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  • 16. 

    Which plan or system has the Air Force's department-specific implementation of National Incident Magagement System (NIMS)?

    • A.

      Air National Response Plan

    • B.

      Air Force Management System

    • C.

      Air Force Incident Management System

    • D.

      Air Force National Incident Management System

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Incident Management System
    Explanation
    The Air Force Incident Management System is the plan or system that has the Air Force's department-specific implementation of the National Incident Management System (NIMS). This system is specifically designed for the Air Force and is used to manage and respond to incidents within the Air Force's jurisdiction. It incorporates the principles and practices of the NIMS to ensure effective and coordinated response efforts.

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  • 17. 

    Who retains command of military forces under Defense Suppoort of Civil Authorities (DSCA), as with all other situations and operations?

    • A.

      Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)

    • B.

      Secretary of the Air Force (SecDef)

    • C.

      Combatant command (COCOM)

    • D.

      The president

    Correct Answer
    B. Secretary of the Air Force (SecDef)
  • 18. 

    What is Northern Command's (NORTHCOM) mission?

    • A.

      Provide full-spectrum global strike

    • B.

      Homeland defense and civil support

    • C.

      Conduct joint and combined operations

    • D.

      Conduct operations in support of terrorism

    Correct Answer
    B. Homeland defense and civil support
    Explanation
    NORTHCOM's mission is focused on homeland defense and civil support. This means that their primary goal is to protect the United States and its territories from external threats and provide support during domestic emergencies or disasters. They work closely with other military branches, government agencies, and local authorities to ensure the safety and security of the nation and its citizens. Their mission does not involve full-spectrum global strike, conducting joint and combined operations, or specifically targeting terrorism.

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  • 19. 

    The three standards related to work performance are

    • A.

      Results, speed, and amount

    • B.

      Quality, speed, and timeliness

    • C.

      Quality, timeliness, and quantity

    • D.

      Quality, timeliness, and amount

    Correct Answer
    C. Quality, timeliness, and quantity
    Explanation
    The three standards related to work performance are quality, timeliness, and quantity. Quality refers to the level of excellence or superiority in the work produced. Timeliness emphasizes the importance of completing tasks within the specified time frame. Quantity focuses on the amount or volume of work that needs to be accomplished. These three standards together ensure that work is done efficiently, meets the required standards, and is delivered on time.

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  • 20. 

    What is one of the most important responsibilities as a supervisor?

    • A.

      Writing a great enlisted progress reports

    • B.

      Giving your subordinates feedback

    • C.

      Recognizing your people

    • D.

      Leading from the front

    Correct Answer
    B. Giving your subordinates feedback
    Explanation
    Giving your subordinates feedback is one of the most important responsibilities of a supervisor because it allows for continuous improvement and growth within the team. Feedback helps employees understand their strengths and areas for improvement, which ultimately leads to better performance and productivity. It also fosters open communication and trust between the supervisor and subordinates, creating a positive work environment. By providing regular feedback, supervisors can guide and support their team members in achieving their goals and professional development.

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  • 21. 

    Who controls manpower levels in the Air Force?

    • A.

      Congress

    • B.

      The president

    • C.

      Secretary of Defense (SecDef)

    • D.

      Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF)

    Correct Answer
    A. Congress
    Explanation
    Congress controls manpower levels in the Air Force. As the legislative branch of the US government, Congress has the authority to make decisions regarding the size and composition of the military. This includes determining the number of personnel in the Air Force and setting the budget for recruiting, training, and maintaining the force. The president, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of the Air Force may have some influence and input in manpower decisions, but ultimately it is Congress that has the final say.

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  • 22. 

    How often is the unit manpower document (UMD) generated?

    • A.

      Yearly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Biannually

    Correct Answer
    C. Quarterly
    Explanation
    The unit manpower document (UMD) is generated on a quarterly basis. This means that it is produced every three months. This periodicity allows for regular updates and adjustments to the document, ensuring that it reflects the most current information regarding the unit's manpower. Generating the UMD quarterly also provides a balance between frequent updates and the time and effort required to compile and analyze the necessary data.

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  • 23. 

    Who maintains the unit manpower document (UMD)?

    • A.

      Resource advisors

    • B.

      Superintendent

    • C.

      Flight chief

    • D.

      Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource advisors
    Explanation
    Resource advisors maintain the unit manpower document (UMD). The UMD is a comprehensive record that outlines the personnel assigned to a unit, their positions, and other relevant information. Resource advisors are responsible for managing the unit's resources, including personnel, and ensuring that the UMD is accurate and up to date. They work closely with the commander and other leaders to ensure that the unit has the necessary manpower to accomplish its mission effectively.

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  • 24. 

    By only showing funded authorizations, what product aids resource advisors (RA), functional managers (FM), and commanders in keeping the correct number of people assigned to the unit?

    • A.

      Manning report

    • B.

      Manpower data system

    • C.

      Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • D.

      Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR)
    Explanation
    The Unit Personnel Manning Roster (UPMR) aids resource advisors, functional managers, and commanders in keeping the correct number of people assigned to the unit by showing only funded authorizations. This means that the UPMR provides a list of personnel who have been officially authorized and funded to be assigned to the unit, ensuring that the unit is properly staffed according to its authorized strength. The UPMR helps in managing manpower and ensuring that the unit has the necessary personnel to carry out its mission effectively.

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  • 25. 

    Which tool is used to request a change in manning levels?

    • A.

      UMPR

    • B.

      ACR

    • C.

      UMD

    • D.

      Manning report

    Correct Answer
    B. ACR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ACR. ACR stands for Authorization Change Request, which is a tool used to request a change in manning levels. This tool allows individuals or departments to formally submit a request for a change in the number of personnel required for a specific task or project. It helps in managing and adjusting the manpower resources according to the needs and demands of the organization.

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  • 26. 

    How often is the command post (CP) manning report submitted to the major command (MAJCOM)?

    • A.

      Biannually

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Yearly

    • D.

      Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    The command post (CP) manning report is submitted to the major command (MAJCOM) on a monthly basis. This means that the report is prepared and sent to the MAJCOM every month. This frequency allows the MAJCOM to stay updated on the staffing and personnel situation at the CP and make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the information provided in the report.

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  • 27. 

    In the budget process what term is given to a flight or work center of an organization?

    • A.

      Responsibility center

    • B.

      Comptroller center

    • C.

      Resource center

    • D.

      Cost center

    Correct Answer
    D. Cost center
    Explanation
    A cost center refers to a flight or work center of an organization in the budget process. This term is used to designate a specific department or division within an organization that is responsible for incurring costs but does not directly generate revenue. Cost centers are typically used for internal reporting and tracking purposes to monitor and control expenses. They help in analyzing the efficiency and effectiveness of different departments or divisions within an organization.

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  • 28. 

    Which publication will be structured to save life, protect resources, and rapidly disseminate time sensitive information?

    • A.

      Operational reports

    • B.

      Operating instructions (OI)

    • C.

      Quick reaction checklists (QRC)

    • D.

      Emergency action checklists (EAC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Quick reaction checklists (QRC)
    Explanation
    Quick reaction checklists (QRC) are designed to provide a structured and efficient approach to responding to time-sensitive situations. They are specifically created to save lives and protect resources by providing step-by-step instructions and guidance for emergency actions. QRCs are meant to be easily accessible and quickly disseminated, allowing for rapid response and decision-making in critical situations. Therefore, QRCs are the most suitable publication for the given criteria.

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  • 29. 

    How many complete, identical sets of emergency action checklists will be maintained?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    There will be three complete, identical sets of emergency action checklists that will be maintained.

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  • 30. 

    What type of publication is necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force?

    • A.

      Operating instructions

    • B.

      Nondirective

    • C.

      Departmental

    • D.

      Directive

    Correct Answer
    D. Directive
    Explanation
    Directive publications are necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force. Directive publications provide clear and specific instructions and guidance to ensure compliance with regulations and promote uniformity within the organization. They help establish and enforce policies, procedures, and standards that are essential for the effective and efficient operation of the Air Force.

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  • 31. 

    When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is referred to as

    • A.

      Basic

    • B.

      Revised

    • C.

      Obsolete

    • D.

      Rescinded

    Correct Answer
    B. Revised
    Explanation
    When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is referred to as "revised." This term indicates that changes have been made to the original publication, whether it be updates, corrections, or improvements. The revised publication is intended to replace the previous version and provide the most up-to-date and accurate information to the readers.

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  • 32. 

    How often are memorandums of agreement/understanding (MOA/MOU) reviewed by command post (CP) managers?

    • A.

      Annually

    • B.

      Biannually

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    Memorandums of agreement/understanding (MOA/MOU) are reviewed by command post (CP) managers on an annual basis. This means that they are reviewed once every year. This regular review ensures that the MOA/MOU remains up to date and relevant to the current needs and circumstances of the organization. It allows for any necessary changes or updates to be made and ensures that all parties involved are aware of their obligations and responsibilities as outlined in the agreement.

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  • 33. 

    What inspection program provides commanders with an independent assessment of how well their forces are accomplishing their missions?

    • A.

      Operational rediness inspections

    • B.

      Unit compliance inspection

    • C.

      Inspector general inspection

    • D.

      Self-inspection program

    Correct Answer
    D. Self-inspection program
    Explanation
    A self-inspection program provides commanders with an independent assessment of how well their forces are accomplishing their missions. This program allows units to evaluate their own performance and identify any areas that may need improvement. It helps commanders to ensure that their forces are operating at the highest level of readiness and effectiveness. By conducting regular self-inspections, commanders can address any issues or deficiencies before they are identified by external inspections or audits. This proactive approach allows commanders to maintain control and make necessary adjustments to ensure mission success.

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  • 34. 

    How often must self-inspections be conducted in your unit?

    • A.

      Yearly

    • B.

      Semi-annually

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Monthly

    Correct Answer
    B. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    Self-inspections must be conducted semi-annually in your unit. This means that they should be carried out twice a year. Conducting self-inspections on a regular basis allows for the identification and correction of any deficiencies or non-compliance issues within the unit. This frequency ensures that potential problems are addressed in a timely manner, helping to maintain a high level of operational readiness and compliance with regulations and standards.

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  • 35. 

    How many phase consist in the command post (CP) master task list/job qualification standard?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    D. 5
    Explanation
    The command post (CP) master task list/job qualification standard consists of 5 phases. These phases are likely to cover different aspects of the CP operations and tasks, ensuring that individuals are qualified and competent in all necessary areas.

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  • 36. 

    What tool is used by both the command post (CP) training manager as well as CP leadership to identify the areas required for either certification or appointment to a CP staff position?

    • A.

      Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS)

    • B.

      Master training plan (MTP)

    • C.

      Annual training plan (ATP)

    • D.

      Plans of instruction (POI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS). This tool is used by both the command post (CP) training manager and CP leadership to identify the areas required for either certification or appointment to a CP staff position. The MTL/JQS outlines the specific tasks and qualifications that individuals must possess in order to perform their duties effectively in a CP staff position. It serves as a guide for training and assessing individuals' skills and knowledge in the CP environment. The MTL/JQS is an essential tool in ensuring that CP personnel are properly trained and qualified for their roles.

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  • 37. 

    Once the command post (CP) training manager receives the master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS) from the major command (MAJCOM), the training manager will add

    • A.

      A master training plan specific to their location

    • B.

      An annual training plan outlining recurring training

    • C.

      Locally defined tasks that are specific to their location

    • D.

      Plans of instruction outlining Air Force requirments

    Correct Answer
    C. Locally defined tasks that are specific to their location
    Explanation
    After receiving the master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS) from the major command (MAJCOM), the command post (CP) training manager will add locally defined tasks that are specific to their location. This means that the training manager will incorporate tasks that are unique to their particular CP location and not included in the standard MTL/JQS received from the MAJCOM. This ensures that the training plan is tailored to address the specific needs and requirements of their CP location.

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  • 38. 

    The frequency of required recurring training tasks will be annotated by placing an "X" in the respective "month" column of the

    • A.

      Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS)

    • B.

      Annual training plan (ATP)

    • C.

      Plans of instruction (POI)

    • D.

      Master training plan (MTP)

    Correct Answer
    B. Annual training plan (ATP)
    Explanation
    The annual training plan (ATP) is used to annotate the frequency of required recurring training tasks by placing an "X" in the respective "month" column. This plan outlines the training schedule for the entire year and ensures that all necessary training tasks are completed within the designated time frame. The ATP helps to organize and prioritize training activities, allowing for efficient and effective training management.

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  • 39. 

    Command post (CP) performance evaluation and scenario training scripts will be based upon the requirements in the

    • A.

      Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS)

    • B.

      Master training plan (MTP)

    • C.

      Plans of instruction (POI)

    • D.

      Annual training plan (ATP)

    Correct Answer
    D. Annual training plan (ATP)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is annual training plan (ATP). Command post (CP) performance evaluation and scenario training scripts will be based upon the requirements in the annual training plan (ATP). This means that the evaluation and training scripts will be developed according to the goals and objectives outlined in the annual training plan. The annual training plan provides a comprehensive overview of the training requirements for the command post, including specific tasks and skills that need to be evaluated and trained. By using the annual training plan as a guide, the CP can ensure that their evaluation and training efforts are aligned with their overall training goals and objectives.

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  • 40. 

    What is the first step in the command post (CP) training and evaluaiton process?

    • A.

      Create a schedule of events

    • B.

      Conduct the training meeting

    • C.

      Administer an emergency actions test

    • D.

      Develop training and evaluation scenarios

    Correct Answer
    A. Create a schedule of events
    Explanation
    The first step in the command post (CP) training and evaluation process is to create a schedule of events. This is important as it helps in organizing and planning the training sessions and evaluations. By creating a schedule of events, the trainers can allocate specific time slots for different activities, such as conducting training meetings, administering emergency actions tests, and developing training and evaluation scenarios. This step ensures that all necessary components of the CP training and evaluation process are included and properly organized.

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  • 41. 

    Within how many duty days must personnel failing to achieve a passing score on their training examinations be retested?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    D. 5
    Explanation
    Personnel failing to achieve a passing score on their training examinations must be retested within 5 duty days. This means that they have a maximum of 5 workdays to retake the exam and try to achieve a passing score. It is important to retest them promptly to ensure that they have the opportunity to improve their knowledge and skills in a timely manner.

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  • 42. 

    General knowledge "open-book" training examinations will consist of at least how many questions?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      25

    • D.

      30

    Correct Answer
    D. 30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30. This means that in general knowledge "open-book" training examinations, there will be a minimum of 30 questions. This implies that there may be more than 30 questions, but there will not be fewer than 30.

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  • 43. 

    Emergency action "closed-book" training examinations will consist of at least how many questions?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      25

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      35

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    Emergency action "closed-book" training examinations will consist of at least 30 questions. This means that the minimum number of questions in these examinations is 30.

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  • 44. 

    Certificaiton training examinations will consist of at least how many questions?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      25

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      35

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    Certification training examinations will consist of at least 30 questions. This means that the minimum number of questions that will be included in the examination is 30. It is possible for the examination to have more than 30 questions, but it will never have fewer than 30.

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  • 45. 

    How often are all certified controllers required to completed scenario training?

    • A.

      Yearly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Weekly

    Correct Answer
    C. Monthly
    Explanation
    Certified controllers are required to complete scenario training on a monthly basis. This means that they have to undergo training and practice scenarios every month to maintain their certification. This regular training helps controllers stay updated with the latest procedures and techniques, ensuring they are prepared to handle different scenarios and maintain safety standards in their work.

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  • 46. 

    In which two months are semi-annual performance evaluations training scenarios administered?

    • A.

      March and September

    • B.

      February and October

    • C.

      March and October

    • D.

      January and May

    Correct Answer
    A. March and September
    Explanation
    Semi-annual performance evaluations training scenarios are administered in March and September. These months are likely chosen because they are evenly spaced throughout the year, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of employee performance. March and September also mark the end of two different quarters, making them suitable times for evaluating progress and setting new goals. Additionally, these months may align with the company's fiscal year or coincide with other important milestones, making them convenient times to conduct evaluations.

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  • 47. 

    All training performance evaluations will be graded either

    • A.

      SAT or UNSAT

    • B.

      Go or no go

    • C.

      Pass or fail

    • D.

      Compliant or non-compliant

    Correct Answer
    A. SAT or UNSAT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "SAT or UNSAT" because these terms are commonly used in training performance evaluations to indicate whether an individual has met the required standards (SAT) or not (UNSAT). This grading system simplifies the evaluation process by providing a binary classification of performance, making it easier to determine whether someone has successfully completed the training or not.

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  • 48. 

    Controllers who do not pass their training performance evaluations will be retrained and reevaluated on deficient areas. Within how many calendar days of the initial performance evaluation will the controller be reevaluated.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    Controllers who do not pass their training performance evaluations will be retrained and reevaluated on deficient areas. The question asks for the number of calendar days within which the controller will be reevaluated after the initial performance evaluation. The correct answer is 10, indicating that the reevaluation will take place within 10 calendar days.

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  • 49. 

    Which AF Form is used to document recurring training?

    • A.

      4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training

    • B.

      4373, Consolidated Record of Controller Training

    • C.

      4374, Command Post/Center Controller Certification Record

    • D.

      4375, Command Post/Center Controller De/Recertificaiton Record

    Correct Answer
    A. 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training. This form is used to document recurring training for controllers. It is specifically designed to track and record the training activities that controllers undergo on a regular basis to maintain their skills and knowledge. By using this form, the training progress and completion of controllers can be documented and monitored effectively.

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  • 50. 

    Monthly training examinations results will be recorded on the AF Form

    • A.

      4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training

    • B.

      4373, Consolidated Record of Controller Training

    • C.

      4374, Command Post/Center Controller Certification Record

    • D.

      4375, Command Post/Center Controller De/Recertification Record

    Correct Answer
    A. 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training. This is because the question asks for the form on which monthly training examinations results will be recorded. Among the options given, AF Form 4372 is the most appropriate choice as it specifically mentions "Record of Controller Recurring Training," indicating that it is the form used to document the results of recurring training for controllers.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 25, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Jeremiahdawson
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