Command Post 7 Level Quiz

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| By Jeremiahdawson
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Jeremiahdawson
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1. What is Northern Command's (NORTHCOM) mission?

Explanation

NORTHCOM's mission is focused on homeland defense and civil support. This means that their primary goal is to protect the United States and its territories from external threats and provide support during domestic emergencies or disasters. They work closely with other military branches, government agencies, and local authorities to ensure the safety and security of the nation and its citizens. Their mission does not involve full-spectrum global strike, conducting joint and combined operations, or specifically targeting terrorism.

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About This Quiz
Command Post 7 Level Quiz - Quiz

The 'Command post 7 level Quiz' assesses knowledge on military structures and command responsibilities. It covers roles of defense agencies, service secretaries, and the CJCS, focusing on command... see moreauthority and operational control, crucial for military personnel involved in joint operations. see less

2. Which publication will be structured to save life, protect resources, and rapidly disseminate time sensitive information?

Explanation

Quick reaction checklists (QRC) are designed to provide a structured and efficient approach to responding to time-sensitive situations. They are specifically created to save lives and protect resources by providing step-by-step instructions and guidance for emergency actions. QRCs are meant to be easily accessible and quickly disseminated, allowing for rapid response and decision-making in critical situations. Therefore, QRCs are the most suitable publication for the given criteria.

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3. What type of publication is necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force?

Explanation

Directive publications are necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force. Directive publications provide clear and specific instructions and guidance to ensure compliance with regulations and promote uniformity within the organization. They help establish and enforce policies, procedures, and standards that are essential for the effective and efficient operation of the Air Force.

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4. When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is referred to as

Explanation

When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is referred to as "revised." This term indicates that changes have been made to the original publication, whether it be updates, corrections, or improvements. The revised publication is intended to replace the previous version and provide the most up-to-date and accurate information to the readers.

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5. Which AF Form is used to document recurring training?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training. This form is used to document recurring training for controllers. It is specifically designed to track and record the training activities that controllers undergo on a regular basis to maintain their skills and knowledge. By using this form, the training progress and completion of controllers can be documented and monitored effectively.

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6. Defense agencies that are assigned wartime support missions are designated as

Explanation

Defense agencies that are assigned wartime support missions are designated as combat support agencies. These agencies are responsible for providing various types of support to military forces during times of war or conflict. This support can include logistics, intelligence, communications, and other critical services that are necessary for the success of military operations. Combat support agencies work closely with the combatant commands and other military organizations to ensure that the necessary support is provided in a timely and effective manner.

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7. All training performance evaluations will be graded either

Explanation

The correct answer is "SAT or UNSAT" because these terms are commonly used in training performance evaluations to indicate whether an individual has met the required standards (SAT) or not (UNSAT). This grading system simplifies the evaluation process by providing a binary classification of performance, making it easier to determine whether someone has successfully completed the training or not.

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8. Communications security (COMSEC) users must have their own adequate storage facitlites and take responsibility for storing and accounting for material not later than one duty day before the COMSEC aids'

Explanation

COMSEC users are required to have their own storage facilities and are responsible for storing and accounting for material before the effective date of the COMSEC aids. This means that they need to ensure that the necessary storage arrangements are in place and that the material is properly stored and accounted for before it becomes effective and in use. This is important for maintaining the security and integrity of the communication systems and preventing unauthorized access or compromise of the COMSEC aids.

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9. When new communications securty (COMSEC) responsible officer (CRO) and alternates are authorized to transport COMSEC material from the COMSEC account to their duty locations? What approval authority allowes this action?

Explanation

The appointment letter allows the new Communications Security (COMSEC) Responsible Officer (CRO) and alternates to transport COMSEC material from the COMSEC account to their duty locations. This letter serves as the authorization for them to perform this task.

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10. A perosn selected for the Personnel Relaibility Program (PRP) must meet which of the following criteria?

Explanation

The correct answer is US citizen or US national. The Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) is a program that ensures individuals with access to nuclear weapons or certain sensitive duties are reliable and trustworthy. Being a US citizen or US national is a requirement for participating in the program, as it ensures loyalty and allegiance to the United States. The other criteria mentioned (SSgt or above, TSgt or above, MSgt or above) are not relevant to the PRP criteria.

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11. What is a cornerstone of the Air Force information security program?

Explanation

Effective security training is a cornerstone of the Air Force information security program because it ensures that personnel are equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to protect sensitive information and systems. By providing comprehensive and up-to-date training, the Air Force can mitigate the risk of security breaches and unauthorized access. Training helps individuals understand the importance of information security, familiarizes them with best practices and procedures, and empowers them to identify and respond to potential threats. This ultimately strengthens the overall security posture of the Air Force and helps safeguard critical assets.

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12. What designation is applied to unclassified information that is exempt from automatic relesae to the public under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)?

Explanation

For Official Use Only (FOUO) is the correct answer because it refers to unclassified information that is exempt from automatic release to the public under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA). FOUO designation is used to protect sensitive information that, while not classified, should still be handled with caution and restricted to authorized personnel for official purposes. It ensures that certain information is safeguarded and not freely accessible to the public.

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13. In which two months are semi-annual performance evaluations training scenarios administered?

Explanation

Semi-annual performance evaluations training scenarios are administered in March and September. These months are likely chosen because they are evenly spaced throughout the year, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of employee performance. March and September also mark the end of two different quarters, making them suitable times for evaluating progress and setting new goals. Additionally, these months may align with the company's fiscal year or coincide with other important milestones, making them convenient times to conduct evaluations.

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14. Which program applies to all acitve duty people who are presently assigned or selected for assignment or duties involving the control, handling, or access to nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons systems, or critcal components?

Explanation

The Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) applies to all active duty people who are presently assigned or selected for assignment or duties involving the control, handling, or access to nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons systems, or critical components. This program ensures that individuals in such positions meet the necessary criteria and are reliable and trustworthy to carry out their responsibilities safely and securely. The PRP is designed to maintain the highest level of security and prevent any unauthorized access or mishandling of nuclear weapons or components.

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15. Which two positions are only used in the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)

Explanation

The correct answer is "Critical or controlled." In the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP), only individuals in critical or controlled positions are included. This means that these positions require a high level of reliability and trustworthiness due to the nature of the work involved. Other positions such as primary and alternate or senior and junior are not specifically designated for the PRP and may not have the same level of scrutiny and security requirements.

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16. Authorized holders of the Air Force Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) data can release the data to only military components, or assigned or apportioned units, with a

Explanation

The authorized holders of the Air Force Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) data can release the data only to military components, assigned or apportioned units, with a need-to-know and appropriate clearance. This means that individuals must have a legitimate requirement to access the data (need-to-know) and must also possess the necessary security clearance. This ensures that the data is only shared with individuals who have a legitimate reason to access it and who have been vetted for their trustworthiness and reliability (appropriate clearance).

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17. What is one of the most important responsibilities as a supervisor?

Explanation

Giving your subordinates feedback is one of the most important responsibilities of a supervisor because it allows for continuous improvement and growth within the team. Feedback helps employees understand their strengths and areas for improvement, which ultimately leads to better performance and productivity. It also fosters open communication and trust between the supervisor and subordinates, creating a positive work environment. By providing regular feedback, supervisors can guide and support their team members in achieving their goals and professional development.

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18. Certificaiton training examinations will consist of at least how many questions?

Explanation

Certification training examinations will consist of at least 30 questions. This means that the minimum number of questions that will be included in the examination is 30. It is possible for the examination to have more than 30 questions, but it will never have fewer than 30.

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19. When determining an installation's seccurity requirements, the level of security depends on the

Explanation

The level of security for an installation depends on the sensitivity of the resources involved. This means that the more sensitive or valuable the resources are, the higher the level of security required. The sensitivity of the resources could refer to their importance, confidentiality, or potential impact if compromised. Therefore, the level of security is determined based on the level of sensitivity of the resources present at the installation.

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20. What is the first step in the command post (CP) training and evaluaiton process?

Explanation

The first step in the command post (CP) training and evaluation process is to create a schedule of events. This is important as it helps in organizing and planning the training sessions and evaluations. By creating a schedule of events, the trainers can allocate specific time slots for different activities, such as conducting training meetings, administering emergency actions tests, and developing training and evaluation scenarios. This step ensures that all necessary components of the CP training and evaluation process are included and properly organized.

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21. The three standards related to work performance are

Explanation

The three standards related to work performance are quality, timeliness, and quantity. Quality refers to the level of excellence or superiority in the work produced. Timeliness emphasizes the importance of completing tasks within the specified time frame. Quantity focuses on the amount or volume of work that needs to be accomplished. These three standards together ensure that work is done efficiently, meets the required standards, and is delivered on time.

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22. Which plan or system has the Air Force's department-specific implementation of National Incident Magagement System (NIMS)?

Explanation

The Air Force Incident Management System is the plan or system that has the Air Force's department-specific implementation of the National Incident Management System (NIMS). This system is specifically designed for the Air Force and is used to manage and respond to incidents within the Air Force's jurisdiction. It incorporates the principles and practices of the NIMS to ensure effective and coordinated response efforts.

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23. When new communications security (COMSEC) material arrived for the command post account the base COMSEC manager notifies the command post

Explanation

The COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) is the correct answer because they are responsible for the overall management and control of COMSEC material. When new COMSEC material arrives, it is their duty to notify the command post and ensure that the material is properly handled and accounted for. The CRO plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of communications within the command post.

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24. Within the National Incident Management System (NIMS), which key organizational system defines the operating characteristics and structure of incident management?

Explanation

The Incident Command System (ICS) is a key organizational system within the National Incident Management System (NIMS) that defines the operating characteristics and structure of incident management. It provides a standardized approach for command, control, and coordination of emergency response efforts. ICS establishes clear roles and responsibilities for personnel involved in managing incidents, ensuring effective communication, coordination, and unity of command. By implementing ICS, organizations can effectively respond to incidents and work together in a coordinated manner to achieve their objectives.

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25. In the budget process what term is given to a flight or work center of an organization?

Explanation

A cost center refers to a flight or work center of an organization in the budget process. This term is used to designate a specific department or division within an organization that is responsible for incurring costs but does not directly generate revenue. Cost centers are typically used for internal reporting and tracking purposes to monitor and control expenses. They help in analyzing the efficiency and effectiveness of different departments or divisions within an organization.

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26. Security mangers receive training through the Information Securty Program Managers (ISPM) within how many days of their assignment?

Explanation

Security managers receive training through the Information Security Program Managers (ISPM) within 90 days of their assignment. This timeframe allows for a sufficient amount of time for new security managers to familiarize themselves with the organization's security policies, procedures, and protocols. By receiving training within this timeframe, security managers can effectively fulfill their roles and responsibilities in maintaining the security of the organization's information and assets.

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27. Emergency action "closed-book" training examinations will consist of at least how many questions?

Explanation

Emergency action "closed-book" training examinations will consist of at least 30 questions. This means that the minimum number of questions in these examinations is 30.

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28. Within how many duty days must personnel failing to achieve a passing score on their training examinations be retested?

Explanation

Personnel failing to achieve a passing score on their training examinations must be retested within 5 duty days. This means that they have a maximum of 5 workdays to retake the exam and try to achieve a passing score. It is important to retest them promptly to ensure that they have the opportunity to improve their knowledge and skills in a timely manner.

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29. What inspection program provides commanders with an independent assessment of how well their forces are accomplishing their missions?

Explanation

A self-inspection program provides commanders with an independent assessment of how well their forces are accomplishing their missions. This program allows units to evaluate their own performance and identify any areas that may need improvement. It helps commanders to ensure that their forces are operating at the highest level of readiness and effectiveness. By conducting regular self-inspections, commanders can address any issues or deficiencies before they are identified by external inspections or audits. This proactive approach allows commanders to maintain control and make necessary adjustments to ensure mission success.

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30. Which position designates a person who performs maintenance on nuclear wapons, has working knowledge of the weapon, and is authorized access to nuclear weapons, to include the launch or relased system for the performance or internal maintenance?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Critical." This position is responsible for performing maintenance on nuclear weapons and requires a working knowledge of the weapon. They are also authorized access to nuclear weapons, including the launch or release system for maintenance or performance purposes.

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31. The traditional roles and missions of each branch of service are often referred to as

Explanation

The traditional roles and missions of each branch of service are often referred to as "functions" because they represent the specific tasks and responsibilities that each branch is assigned to perform. These functions can include combat operations, logistical support, intelligence gathering, and other specialized tasks that are essential for the overall effectiveness and success of the military. By categorizing these roles as functions, it allows for a clear understanding of the distinct contributions and capabilities of each branch within the larger framework of the military organization.

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32. Which AF Form is used to document, monitor, and maintain a comprehensive record of an individual's training?

Explanation

The AF Form 623 is used to document, monitor, and maintain a comprehensive record of an individual's training. This form specifically focuses on on-the-job training, which is a type of training that takes place in the work environment and is designed to provide practical skills and knowledge. By using this form, supervisors and trainees can track progress, identify areas for improvement, and ensure that the individual is meeting the required training standards.

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33. Each individual certified unde rthe Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) has the responsibility to inform their commander of all

Explanation

Individuals certified under the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) are required to inform their commander about their medical and dental treatment. This is important because any changes in an individual's health status can affect their ability to perform their duties effectively and safely. By keeping their commander informed, they ensure that any necessary accommodations or adjustments can be made to support their well-being and maintain the overall readiness of the PRP.

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34. Once the command post (CP) training manager receives the master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS) from the major command (MAJCOM), the training manager will add

Explanation

After receiving the master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS) from the major command (MAJCOM), the command post (CP) training manager will add locally defined tasks that are specific to their location. This means that the training manager will incorporate tasks that are unique to their particular CP location and not included in the standard MTL/JQS received from the MAJCOM. This ensures that the training plan is tailored to address the specific needs and requirements of their CP location.

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35. How often are all certified controllers required to completed scenario training?

Explanation

Certified controllers are required to complete scenario training on a monthly basis. This means that they have to undergo training and practice scenarios every month to maintain their certification. This regular training helps controllers stay updated with the latest procedures and techniques, ensuring they are prepared to handle different scenarios and maintain safety standards in their work.

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36. How many complete, identical sets of emergency action checklists will be maintained?

Explanation

There will be three complete, identical sets of emergency action checklists that will be maintained.

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37. Who is ultimately responsible for any and all communicaitons security (COMSEC) in your unit?

Explanation

The COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) is ultimately responsible for any and all communications security (COMSEC) in the unit. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that all communication systems and procedures are secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception. The unit commander, command post chief, and CP superintendent may have some level of responsibility in this area, but the CRO is specifically designated as the individual who has the ultimate responsibility for COMSEC in the unit.

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38. Monthly training examinations results will be recorded on the AF Form

Explanation

The correct answer is 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training. This is because the question asks for the form on which monthly training examinations results will be recorded. Among the options given, AF Form 4372 is the most appropriate choice as it specifically mentions "Record of Controller Recurring Training," indicating that it is the form used to document the results of recurring training for controllers.

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39. Communications securiy (COMSEC) ultimate sucess or failure rests with the

Explanation

The ultimate success or failure of communications security (COMSEC) lies with the individual user. This is because the individual user is responsible for implementing and following the proper protocols and procedures to ensure the security of communications. They are responsible for safeguarding encryption keys, using secure communication devices, and properly handling classified information. The actions and decisions of the individual user directly impact the overall security of the communication system.

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40. Which system is comprised of command and management, preparedness, resource management, communication and information management, and ongoing management and maintenance components?

Explanation

The National Incident Management System (NIMS) system approach is the correct answer because it encompasses all the mentioned components: command and management, preparedness, resource management, communication and information management, and ongoing management and maintenance. NIMS is a comprehensive framework that provides a systematic and coordinated approach to incident management across various agencies and jurisdictions. It ensures effective coordination and integration of resources, communication, and information sharing during incidents, making it an essential system for managing emergencies and disasters.

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41. What command authority is over assigned forces vested in the commanders of combatant commands by US law and is not transferable?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Combatant command." In the United States, the command authority over assigned forces is vested in the commanders of combatant commands by US law. This authority is not transferable, meaning that it cannot be delegated to another entity or individual. Combatant commands are responsible for the operational planning and execution of military missions within their assigned geographic or functional areas of responsibility. They have the authority to command and control forces, allocate resources, and make decisions to accomplish their assigned missions.

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42. General knowledge "open-book" training examinations will consist of at least how many questions?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30. This means that in general knowledge "open-book" training examinations, there will be a minimum of 30 questions. This implies that there may be more than 30 questions, but there will not be fewer than 30.

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43. Which two leaders does the National Military Command System (NMCS) provide the means for information to be sent and received to support timely decisions?

Explanation

The National Military Command System (NMCS) provides the means for information to be sent and received to support timely decisions by the President and the Secretary of Defense (SecDef). As the highest-ranking civilian and military leaders respectively, the President and the SecDef play crucial roles in making decisions related to national security and military operations. Therefore, it is essential for the NMCS to facilitate communication between these two leaders to ensure effective decision-making.

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44. What is vital to any multinational force

Explanation

A liaison is vital to any multinational force as it serves as a point of communication and coordination between different units and commanders from different countries. It helps to bridge the language and cultural barriers, ensuring effective collaboration and understanding among the forces. A liaison officer facilitates the exchange of information, coordinates joint operations, and enhances interoperability, ultimately contributing to the success of the multinational force's mission.

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45. Which two command and control (C2) agencies are authorized to operate a separate dedicated center to manage assets beyond the limits of their home station?

Explanation

Major command (MAJCOM) and numbered Air Force (NAF) are authorized to operate a separate dedicated center to manage assets beyond the limits of their home station. This means that these two command and control agencies have the authority and capability to manage and coordinate assets in locations outside of their main base of operations. They have the responsibility to oversee and direct operations across multiple locations and ensure effective command and control of assets under their jurisdiction.

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46. Which tool is used to request a change in manning levels?

Explanation

The correct answer is ACR. ACR stands for Authorization Change Request, which is a tool used to request a change in manning levels. This tool allows individuals or departments to formally submit a request for a change in the number of personnel required for a specific task or project. It helps in managing and adjusting the manpower resources according to the needs and demands of the organization.

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47. Component headquarters that require Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) scheduled forces are requred to synchronize the building of requrements with the

Explanation

The correct answer is AEF battle rhythm. Component headquarters that require Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) scheduled forces need to synchronize the building of requirements with the AEF battle rhythm. This means they must align their planning and scheduling processes with the established operational tempo and cycle of the AEF. The AEF battle rhythm dictates when and how forces are allocated and deployed, ensuring that the right capabilities are available at the right time to support operational requirements. By synchronizing with the AEF battle rhythm, component headquarters can effectively integrate their forces into the overall AEF deployment and employment plan.

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48. What inspection method evaluates the effectiveness of a unit's security practices?

Explanation

Regular security self-inspections are a method of evaluating the effectiveness of a unit's security practices. This involves conducting periodic assessments and audits of security protocols, procedures, and measures within the unit. By conducting these self-inspections, the unit can identify any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in their security practices and take corrective actions to improve them. It allows the unit to proactively monitor and evaluate their own security practices, ensuring that they are in compliance with regulations and standards, and effectively protecting their assets and personnel.

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49. Who conducts initial and refresher training for all communications security (COMSEC) users?

Explanation

The COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) conducts initial and refresher training for all communications security (COMSEC) users. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all personnel who handle COMSEC materials are properly trained and educated on the necessary security protocols and procedures. The CRO is knowledgeable about the specific requirements and regulations related to COMSEC and is responsible for maintaining the security and integrity of communications systems within the organization. They play a crucial role in ensuring that all users are trained and aware of their responsibilities in safeguarding sensitive information.

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50. What tool is used by both the command post (CP) training manager as well as CP leadership to identify the areas required for either certification or appointment to a CP staff position?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS). This tool is used by both the command post (CP) training manager and CP leadership to identify the areas required for either certification or appointment to a CP staff position. The MTL/JQS outlines the specific tasks and qualifications that individuals must possess in order to perform their duties effectively in a CP staff position. It serves as a guide for training and assessing individuals' skills and knowledge in the CP environment. The MTL/JQS is an essential tool in ensuring that CP personnel are properly trained and qualified for their roles.

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51. The frequency of required recurring training tasks will be annotated by placing an "X" in the respective "month" column of the

Explanation

The annual training plan (ATP) is used to annotate the frequency of required recurring training tasks by placing an "X" in the respective "month" column. This plan outlines the training schedule for the entire year and ensures that all necessary training tasks are completed within the designated time frame. The ATP helps to organize and prioritize training activities, allowing for efficient and effective training management.

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52. Which AF Form records training performance evaluaiton results?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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53. Whch system is not designed to be a commander's report card?

Explanation

The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is not designed to be a commander's report card. SORTS is a reporting system used by the Department of Defense to assess the readiness of military units. It provides information on the status of resources such as personnel, equipment, and training. However, it is not specifically designed to evaluate or provide a comprehensive assessment of a commander's performance or effectiveness.

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54. In the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) program, C-levels reflect the degree to which unit resources meet prescrbed levels of personnel,

Explanation

C-levels in the SORTS program refer to the degree to which unit resources meet prescribed levels of equipment and training. This means that the C-levels indicate how well the unit's resources, including both equipment and training, align with the established standards. It is important for units to maintain high C-levels in order to ensure mission effectiveness and mobility.

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55. Who controls manpower levels in the Air Force?

Explanation

Congress controls manpower levels in the Air Force. As the legislative branch of the US government, Congress has the authority to make decisions regarding the size and composition of the military. This includes determining the number of personnel in the Air Force and setting the budget for recruiting, training, and maintaining the force. The president, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of the Air Force may have some influence and input in manpower decisions, but ultimately it is Congress that has the final say.

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56. How often must self-inspections be conducted in your unit?

Explanation

Self-inspections must be conducted semi-annually in your unit. This means that they should be carried out twice a year. Conducting self-inspections on a regular basis allows for the identification and correction of any deficiencies or non-compliance issues within the unit. This frequency ensures that potential problems are addressed in a timely manner, helping to maintain a high level of operational readiness and compliance with regulations and standards.

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57. Any duty position-required training items not listed in the Career Field Education and Training Program (CFETP) Part II are entered on the AF Form

Explanation

The correct answer is 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS. This is because the AF Form 797 is used to document any duty position-required training items that are not listed in the Career Field Education and Training Program (CFETP) Part II. It serves as a record of on-the-job training and ensures that all necessary training is properly documented and tracked.

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58. The Joint Staff Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) database, where all the SORTS reports are maintained, is classified

Explanation

The correct answer is Secret because the Joint Staff Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) database, which maintains all the SORTS reports, is classified at the Secret level. This means that access to the database and its contents is restricted to individuals with the appropriate security clearance and a need-to-know basis.

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59. Which system or database is best defined as a web-based, non-intrusive, html-environment system with associated databases to support collection, collation, and report generation of unit and aggregate unit type code (UTC) readiness data?

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) is the best answer because it is a web-based system that operates in a non-intrusive, html-environment. It is specifically designed to support the collection, collation, and report generation of unit and aggregate unit type code (UTC) readiness data. This system is tailored to meet the needs of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force and its reporting requirements.

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60. Who is responsible for providing efficiently organized, trained, and equipped-ready military forces to the combatant commmanders?

Explanation

The service secretaries are responsible for providing efficiently organized, trained, and equipped-ready military forces to the combatant commanders. This means that they oversee the administration and management of their respective military branches (Army, Navy, Air Force) and ensure that the forces under their command are prepared and capable of carrying out their missions effectively. They work closely with the Secretary of Defense and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to coordinate and align military efforts.

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61. What is a pact or treaty among individuals or groups, during which they cooperate in joint action, each in their own self interests, joining forces together for a common cause?

Explanation

A coalition is a pact or treaty among individuals or groups where they cooperate in joint action, each pursuing their own self-interests, but coming together for a common cause. In a coalition, different parties or organizations join forces and work together to achieve a shared objective, pooling their resources and expertise. This collaboration allows the participants to leverage their individual strengths and increase their collective impact, making it an effective strategy for achieving common goals while still prioritizing individual interests.

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62. Under what command can the president never relinquish authority over United States forces?

Explanation

The president can never relinquish authority over United States forces under the command of "National". This means that the president has ultimate control and decision-making power over the military forces of the United States, and cannot delegate or transfer this authority to any other entity or nation.

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63. Who updates and reminds personnel of security policies and procedures, as well as oversees the unit or staff agency information security self-inspection program?

Explanation

Security managers are responsible for updating and reminding personnel of security policies and procedures. They also oversee the unit or staff agency information security self-inspection program. This role involves ensuring that all personnel are aware of and adhere to the necessary security measures to protect sensitive information and maintain a secure environment.

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64. How many phase consist in the command post (CP) master task list/job qualification standard?

Explanation

The command post (CP) master task list/job qualification standard consists of 5 phases. These phases are likely to cover different aspects of the CP operations and tasks, ensuring that individuals are qualified and competent in all necessary areas.

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65. What three roles does the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) have in the chain of command

Explanation

The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) plays three key roles in the chain of command. Firstly, they are responsible for communications, ensuring effective communication between the President, Secretary of Defense, and the military branches. Secondly, they provide oversight by monitoring military operations and advising on strategic decisions. Lastly, they act as a spokesman, representing the military in public and conveying important information to the media and the public.

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66. Controllers who do not pass their training performance evaluations will be retrained and reevaluated on deficient areas. Within how many calendar days of the initial performance evaluation will the controller be reevaluated.

Explanation

Controllers who do not pass their training performance evaluations will be retrained and reevaluated on deficient areas. The question asks for the number of calendar days within which the controller will be reevaluated after the initial performance evaluation. The correct answer is 10, indicating that the reevaluation will take place within 10 calendar days.

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67. In the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) a person in a critical position must have

Explanation

The correct answer is a single scope background investigation (SSBI) completed before final certification. This means that in the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP), a person in a critical position must undergo an SSBI before they can be certified. This investigation is a thorough background check that includes interviews with the individual, their family, friends, coworkers, and neighbors, as well as a review of their financial, criminal, and personal records. It is a comprehensive process designed to ensure that individuals in critical positions have a high level of trustworthiness and reliability.

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68. How often are memorandums of agreement/understanding (MOA/MOU) reviewed by command post (CP) managers?

Explanation

Memorandums of agreement/understanding (MOA/MOU) are reviewed by command post (CP) managers on an annual basis. This means that they are reviewed once every year. This regular review ensures that the MOA/MOU remains up to date and relevant to the current needs and circumstances of the organization. It allows for any necessary changes or updates to be made and ensures that all parties involved are aware of their obligations and responsibilities as outlined in the agreement.

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69. What identifies personnel and equipment requirements needed for a standard deployment?

Explanation

Unit type codes (UTC) identify personnel and equipment requirements needed for a standard deployment. These codes are standardized and provide a common language for different units to communicate their needs and capabilities. By using UTCs, commanders can easily determine the specific resources needed for a deployment and ensure that the right personnel and equipment are available. UTCs also help in planning and organizing deployments, as they provide a clear understanding of the capabilities and limitations of different units.

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70. Who maintains the unit manpower document (UMD)?

Explanation

Resource advisors maintain the unit manpower document (UMD). The UMD is a comprehensive record that outlines the personnel assigned to a unit, their positions, and other relevant information. Resource advisors are responsible for managing the unit's resources, including personnel, and ensuring that the UMD is accurate and up to date. They work closely with the commander and other leaders to ensure that the unit has the necessary manpower to accomplish its mission effectively.

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71. Who implements and performs day-to-day management of a unit's security programs?

Explanation

Security managers are responsible for implementing and performing day-to-day management of a unit's security programs. They are in charge of overseeing the security measures and protocols within an organization, ensuring that they are effectively implemented and maintained. This includes managing access controls, conducting risk assessments, monitoring security incidents, and enforcing security policies. Security managers work closely with other stakeholders, such as unit commanders and Information security program managers (ISPM), to ensure the overall security of the unit.

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72. Who must remain aware of which Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) their unit type codes (UTC) are expected to deploy by periodically analyzing the UTC availability?

Explanation

The unit commander must remain aware of which Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) their unit type codes (UTC) are expected to deploy by periodically analyzing the UTC availability. This responsibility falls on the unit commander as they are in charge of the specific unit and its deployment requirements. They need to ensure that the appropriate UTCs are available and ready for deployment when needed.

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73. What command authority may be exercised by commanders at any level at or below the level of combatant command and may be delegated within the command?

Explanation

Operational control refers to the command authority that can be exercised by commanders at any level at or below the level of combatant command. It allows commanders to direct and coordinate military forces in executing missions and tasks. This authority may be delegated within the command structure, enabling subordinate commanders to exercise operational control over specific units or tasks. Operational control is essential for effective military operations as it ensures unity of effort and coordination among different units and elements within a command.

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74. Members are removed from the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duites by temporary decertification, permanent decertification, and

Explanation

Members can be temporarily removed from their Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties through suspension. This means that their participation in the program is temporarily halted, usually due to a specific incident or concern. Suspension allows for further investigation or evaluation to take place before a final decision is made regarding their PRP status. It is a temporary measure and does not permanently remove them from the program.

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75. Who retains command of military forces under Defense Suppoort of Civil Authorities (DSCA), as with all other situations and operations?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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76. In the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) program what normally determines a unit's overall C-level?

Explanation

In the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) program, a unit's overall C-level is normally determined by the lowest resource area level. This means that the unit's overall C-level is determined by the level of resources available in the area with the lowest amount of resources. This is important because it ensures that the unit's readiness and capabilities are assessed based on the area with the least amount of resources, which can help identify any potential weaknesses or areas that need improvement.

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77. How soon prior to the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability start date will Air Force Personnel center (AFPC)/DPW distribute and AEF sourceing plan and task message outlining critical tasks to be accomplished by responsible office of primary reponsibility (OPR)

Explanation

AFPC/DPW will distribute the AEF sourcing plan and task message outlining critical tasks to be accomplished by the responsible office of primary responsibility (OPR) 9 months prior to the AEF vulnerability start date. This allows sufficient time for the OPR to plan and execute the necessary tasks before the AEF vulnerability period begins.

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78. What three types of basic structures fall into multinational operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Integrated, lead nation, or parallel command. These three types of basic structures fall into multinational operations. Integrated command refers to a structure where multiple nations work together under a single command. Lead nation command involves one nation taking the lead and coordinating the operations of other nations. Parallel command refers to a structure where multiple nations operate independently but in coordination with each other. These structures are commonly used in multinational operations to ensure effective coordination and cooperation among different nations.

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79. By only showing funded authorizations, what product aids resource advisors (RA), functional managers (FM), and commanders in keeping the correct number of people assigned to the unit?

Explanation

The Unit Personnel Manning Roster (UPMR) aids resource advisors, functional managers, and commanders in keeping the correct number of people assigned to the unit by showing only funded authorizations. This means that the UPMR provides a list of personnel who have been officially authorized and funded to be assigned to the unit, ensuring that the unit is properly staffed according to its authorized strength. The UPMR helps in managing manpower and ensuring that the unit has the necessary personnel to carry out its mission effectively.

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80. The responsibility to manage the creation and publication of standard line remarks and is the final approval authority for additions, changes, and deletions rests with the

Explanation

The Aerospace Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is responsible for managing the creation and publication of standard line remarks. They also have the final approval authority for any additions, changes, and deletions. This means that they oversee and control the process of creating and updating standard line remarks. The other options, such as the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) commander, home station deployment office, and unit deployment managers, may have roles in the deployment process but do not have the specific responsibility for managing and approving standard line remarks.

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81. Who will maintain a master rotational time-phased force deployment database (TPFDD) for each theater employing Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) scheduled forces?

Explanation

The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DPW will maintain a master rotational time-phased force deployment database (TPFDD) for each theater employing Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) scheduled forces. This means that AFPC/DPW is responsible for keeping track of the deployment schedules and rotations of AEF forces in each theater. They will maintain the TPFDD, which is a database that outlines the planned deployment of forces, including the timing and sequencing of units. This ensures that the deployment process is organized and coordinated effectively.

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82. What command normally operates under the terms of a treaty, alliance, or bilateral agreement between or among the countries concerned?

Explanation

A command that operates under the terms of a treaty, alliance, or bilateral agreement between or among countries is known as a combined command. This type of command brings together military forces from multiple nations to work together towards a common goal. It allows for coordination and cooperation among the participating countries, pooling their resources and expertise for a more effective and efficient operation.

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83. Command post (CP) performance evaluation and scenario training scripts will be based upon the requirements in the

Explanation

The correct answer is annual training plan (ATP). Command post (CP) performance evaluation and scenario training scripts will be based upon the requirements in the annual training plan (ATP). This means that the evaluation and training scripts will be developed according to the goals and objectives outlined in the annual training plan. The annual training plan provides a comprehensive overview of the training requirements for the command post, including specific tasks and skills that need to be evaluated and trained. By using the annual training plan as a guide, the CP can ensure that their evaluation and training efforts are aligned with their overall training goals and objectives.

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84. What is used in conjunction with the unit type codes (UTC) to further identify unique requirements?

Explanation

Air Force standard lin remarks are used in conjunction with the unit type codes (UTC) to further identify unique requirements. These remarks provide additional information or specifications specific to the unit type code, helping to define the specific needs or capabilities of the unit. By using these remarks in conjunction with the UTC, the Air Force can ensure that the unique requirements of each unit are properly addressed and accounted for.

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85. How often is the unit manpower document (UMD) generated?

Explanation

The unit manpower document (UMD) is generated on a quarterly basis. This means that it is produced every three months. This periodicity allows for regular updates and adjustments to the document, ensuring that it reflects the most current information regarding the unit's manpower. Generating the UMD quarterly also provides a balance between frequent updates and the time and effort required to compile and analyze the necessary data.

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86. Which system is the Air Force's war planning system that provides an Air Force feed to the Joint Operation Planning and Executino system (JOPES)

Explanation

The correct answer is Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES). This system is specifically mentioned as the one that provides an Air Force feed to the Joint Operation Planning and Execution system (JOPES). The other options - Status of Resources and Training system (SORTS) database, Air Force Operational Reporting System (AFORS), and National Military Command System (NMCS) - are not mentioned in relation to providing an Air Force feed to JOPES.

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87. How often is the command post (CP) manning report submitted to the major command (MAJCOM)?

Explanation

The command post (CP) manning report is submitted to the major command (MAJCOM) on a monthly basis. This means that the report is prepared and sent to the MAJCOM every month. This frequency allows the MAJCOM to stay updated on the staffing and personnel situation at the CP and make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the information provided in the report.

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88. In conjunction with unit type codes (UTC), which system contains detailed requirements, capabilities, and movement data that support Air Force, Joint, and Combined Plans?

Explanation

The correct answer is Time-phase force deployment database (TPFDD). TPFDD contains detailed requirements, capabilities, and movement data that support Air Force, Joint, and Combined Plans. It is a system that helps in planning and executing force deployments by providing information about the resources needed, their availability, and the timeline for their deployment. This database is crucial for efficient and effective military operations as it ensures that the right resources are in the right place at the right time.

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89. The major command (MAJCOM) staff and the measured unit commander reviews the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statements

Explanation

The major command (MAJCOM) staff and the measured unit commander review the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statements on an annual basis. This suggests that the review process occurs once a year, allowing for a comprehensive evaluation of the SORTS designed operational capability. This periodic assessment ensures that the MAJCOM staff and measured unit commander stay updated on the current status of resources and training, enabling them to make informed decisions and adjustments as necessary.

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90. Who has overall responsibility for the base security programs?

Explanation

Security managers have overall responsibility for the base security programs. They are responsible for implementing and managing security policies and procedures, ensuring compliance with regulations, conducting risk assessments, and coordinating security training and education. Security managers work closely with unit commanders, the squadron commander, and the Security Forces squadron to ensure the security of the base and its personnel.

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