CISCO IT Essentials Mock Exam 1-10 - Revision

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1. A user has been writing data to a USB flash memory drive. What should the user do before removing the device?

Explanation

Before removing a USB flash memory drive, it is important to safely eject it from the computer to prevent data loss or corruption. Clicking on the Safely Remove Hardware icon in the system tray and then selecting the specific device ensures that all data has been properly written and any active processes involving the device have been terminated. This allows the operating system to safely disconnect the device from the computer without any potential damage to the data or the device itself.

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2. The technician has been asked to upgrade the printer driver for an old printer. What is the best source for a new driver? 

Explanation

The best source for a new printer driver would be the manufacturer's website. This is because the manufacturer's website is most likely to have the most up-to-date and compatible driver for the specific printer model. The manufacturer's website is also a reliable source as it is directly provided by the company that produced the printer.

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3. A home computer owner has a PC system that runs Windows XP. For security reasons the owner has been using a limited local user account for a number of years. The owner wishes to install a new piece of software, but the user account does not have the necessary permissions. Which type of account does the owner need to use to install the new software? 

Explanation

The owner needs to use an administrator account to install the new software. An administrator account has the necessary permissions to make changes to the system, including installing software. Limited and standard user accounts do not have the same level of access and would not be able to install the software.

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4. A technician wants to create a new partition on a new additional hard drive. Which tool should be used?

Explanation

The correct answer is Disk Management. Disk Management is a tool that allows users to manage and create partitions on their hard drives. It provides options to format, delete, and resize partitions, as well as assign drive letters. Therefore, it is the appropriate tool for creating a new partition on a new additional hard drive.

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5. A mobile training room uses a generator to power the PCs, servers, and printers. The company that runs the room upgraded the equipment but then found that when all the devices are powered up they become unreliable, with some PCs shutting down. What may cause this power problem?

Explanation

The power consumption of all devices being too much for the electrical circuit that is provided can cause the power problem. This means that the generator may not be able to supply enough power to all the devices when they are powered up simultaneously, leading to instability and some devices shutting down.

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6. What is a benefit of using the USB or FireWire ports to connect peripherals to a laptop? 

Explanation

Using USB or FireWire ports to connect peripherals to a laptop allows for the convenience of being able to plug in and unplug devices without having to turn off the laptop. This makes it easier and quicker to connect and disconnect peripherals as needed, without the hassle of having to shut down and restart the laptop each time. Additionally, it eliminates the need to open the laptop and physically install the peripheral, making it a more user-friendly option.

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7. A printer has a paper jam. An impatient user has sent multiple print jobs of the same document to this printer. What can be done to remove these print jobs?

Explanation

To remove the multiple print jobs, the user should cancel the jobs in the printer queue. This can be done by accessing the printer queue on the computer and selecting the option to cancel the pending print jobs. Turning off the printer or restarting the PC will not specifically address the issue of removing the print jobs from the queue.

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8. Which two general precautions should be taken before replacing any non-hot-swappable laptop component? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Before replacing any non-hot-swappable laptop component, it is important to remove any batteries to ensure that there is no power source connected to the laptop. This is necessary to prevent any electrical accidents or damage to the laptop. Additionally, it is also important to disconnect the power cord to further ensure that there is no power supply to the laptop during the replacement process. This will help to protect both the user and the laptop from any potential harm.

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9. A company uses a single computer to receive and test all Windows updates. When the most recent update was installed, several programs failed. What is the first course of action that a technician should attempt to remove the update? 

Explanation

When a computer experiences issues after installing an update, the first course of action should be to run a System Restore from the last restore point. System Restore allows the computer to revert back to a previous state, undoing any changes made by the update. This can help resolve any compatibility or software conflicts that may have occurred after the update was installed. Restoring Windows or rolling back drivers may be potential solutions, but running a System Restore is the initial step to attempt in order to remove the problematic update.

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10. What characterizes spoofing?

Explanation

Spoofing is a technique used to deceive or trick someone by making data or information appear to come from a different source than it actually originated from. This can involve falsifying email addresses, IP addresses, or other identifying information to make it seem like the data is coming from a legitimate or trusted source. Spoofing can be used for various malicious purposes, such as phishing attacks, where the attacker tries to trick the recipient into revealing sensitive information or performing certain actions based on the false identity of the sender.

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11. When installing a service pack or security patches on an operating system, what should be done to protect the system in the event of a faulty or aborted installation?

Explanation

Creating a restore point before installing a service pack or security patches is important because it allows the system to be rolled back to a previous state if the installation is faulty or aborted. This ensures that any changes made during the installation can be undone, minimizing the risk of system instability or data loss. Spyware and virus scans are unrelated to protecting the system during installation and do not address the issue of a faulty or aborted installation.

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12. Which two components normally require a laptop to be powered down and the battery removed before removing the components? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The internal hard drive and RAM are two components that normally require a laptop to be powered down and the battery removed before removing them. This is because both components are connected directly to the motherboard and can be easily damaged if they are removed while the laptop is still powered on. Removing the battery ensures that there is no power running through the laptop, reducing the risk of electrical damage.

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13. A small business has used a high quality configurable flatbed scanner to scan a number of photographs to print as large posters. However, the quality of the images printed as posters is poor. What should the user do?

Explanation

To improve the quality of the images printed as posters, the user should increase the resolution of the scanner. By increasing the resolution, the scanner will capture more details and produce higher quality images. Buying a better scanner could also be an option, but it may not be necessary if the current scanner can be adjusted to a higher resolution. Changing the paper used may affect the final result, but it is not directly related to the poor quality of the images.

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14. A customer needs to purchase a new power supply for a computer. What must be considered when selecting an appropriate power supply?

Explanation

When selecting an appropriate power supply for a computer, it is important to consider whether the power supply has sufficient wattage to support all components inside the computer. This ensures that the power supply can provide enough power to all the components without overloading or causing any issues.

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15. ABC Inc. decided to integrate redundancy by connecting multiple hard disks to duplicate the information they store. Which type of adapter will need to be installed on the servers to accomplish the desired redundancy?

Explanation

To accomplish the desired redundancy of duplicating information stored on multiple hard disks, ABC Inc. will need to install a RAID adapter on their servers. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) technology allows for data to be distributed and duplicated across multiple hard drives, providing increased data protection and fault tolerance. This adapter will enable the servers to effectively manage and utilize the redundant storage configuration.

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16. A computer can access devices on the same network but can not access devices on other networks, what is the probable cause?

Explanation

The probable cause for the computer being able to access devices on the same network but not on other networks is that it has an invalid default gateway address. The default gateway is responsible for routing network traffic between different networks. If the computer has an incorrect or invalid default gateway address, it will not be able to properly route traffic to devices on other networks, resulting in the inability to access them.

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17. What do the terms refresh rate, interlace, and aspect ratio explain?

Explanation

The terms refresh rate, interlace, and aspect ratio explain different aspects of the image properties of a monitor. The refresh rate refers to the number of times per second that the image on the screen is refreshed. Interlace refers to a method of displaying images on a screen by alternating between even and odd lines, which can affect the clarity and smoothness of the image. Aspect ratio refers to the proportional relationship between the width and height of the image on the screen.

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18. A technician wishes to boot a computer using a CD-ROM that contains a limited operating system and diagnostic utilities. Where would the technician set the boot order for the PC? 

Explanation

The technician would set the boot order for the PC in the BIOS. The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a firmware that is responsible for initializing hardware components and loading the operating system. It allows the user to configure various settings, including the boot order, which determines the sequence in which the computer searches for bootable devices. By setting the CD-ROM as the first boot device in the BIOS, the technician can ensure that the computer boots from the CD-ROM containing the limited operating system and diagnostic utilities.

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19. When installing the Windows XP operating system, a technician is given a choice of file systems to use. If security is a requirement, which file system should be chosen? 

Explanation

NTFS (New Technology File System) should be chosen if security is a requirement when installing the Windows XP operating system. NTFS provides more advanced security features compared to FAT (File Allocation Table) and FAT32 (File Allocation Table 32). It supports file and folder permissions, encryption, and auditing, which allows for better control and protection of data.

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20. A call center technician has asked a customer to perform a simple operation to fix a problem on a computer. The customer seems unable to perform the task. What should the technician do?

Explanation

The technician should determine whether the customer would prefer to receive the instructions in another form, such as e-mailed, illustrated written instructions. This is because the customer seems unable to perform the task, indicating that they may not understand the verbal instructions provided. By offering alternative forms of instructions, the technician can ensure that the customer receives clear and understandable guidance to fix the problem on their computer.

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21. A technician needs to configure the hard drive on a computer so that there appears to be one drive for the operating system and four drives for data from different applications. how can the hard drive be configured?

Explanation

The hard drive can be configured by creating one primary partition and one logical partition with four logical partitions within it. This configuration allows for the operating system to be stored in the primary partition while the data from different applications can be stored in the logical partitions. This setup provides organization and separation of the different types of data on the hard drive.

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22. What is the best way to fully ensure that data is unable to be recovered from a hard drive?

Explanation

Shattering the hard drive platters with a hammer is the best way to fully ensure that data is unable to be recovered from a hard drive. By physically destroying the platters, the data stored on them becomes irretrievable. Formatting the hard drive or simply removing the data may still leave traces that can potentially be recovered.

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23. Which technique enhances the CPU's performance by executing multiple pieces of code simultatiously on each pipeline?

Explanation

Hyperthreading is a technique that enhances the CPU's performance by executing multiple pieces of code simultaneously on each pipeline. It allows the CPU to work on multiple threads at the same time, increasing efficiency and overall performance. This is achieved by duplicating certain sections of the CPU that store the architectural state, allowing each thread to have its own set of registers and execution resources. With hyperthreading, the CPU can better utilize its resources and execute more instructions in parallel, leading to improved performance.

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24. A technician installed a network adapter in a computer and wants to test network connectivity. The ping command can only receive a response from local workstations. What could be causing the problem?

Explanation

If the default gateway is not set, the computer does not know where to send network traffic that is not destined for the local network. The default gateway acts as a router that connects the local network to other networks. Without a default gateway, the computer cannot communicate with devices outside of the local network, which is why the ping command can only receive a response from local workstations.

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25. What does ACPI stand for?

Explanation

ACPI stands for Advanced Configuration and Power Interface. It is an industry standard that defines a power management and configuration interface between the operating system and the computer's hardware. ACPI allows for advanced power management features, such as power-saving modes, device configuration, and system control. It helps in optimizing power usage and improving system performance by allowing the operating system to control the power management of devices and components.

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26. What is RAID 5?

Explanation

RAID 5 is a type of data storage technology that uses striping and parity to provide fault tolerance and data protection. In RAID 5, data is divided into blocks and distributed across multiple hard drives (in this case, 3 HDD). Each drive contains a portion of the data and also stores parity information, which is used to reconstruct data in case of a drive failure. The stripping technique improves performance by allowing multiple drives to work together in parallel. Disk mirroring and disk duplexing, on the other hand, are features of RAID 1 and not RAID 5.

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27. A supervisor received a complaint that one of the technicians was rude and disrespectful. Which action by the technician most likely caused the customer to complain?  

Explanation

The most likely action by the technician that caused the customer to complain is interrupting a number of times to ask questions. This behavior can be seen as disrespectful and may have disrupted the customer's experience or conversation with the technician. It shows a lack of consideration for the customer's time and may have come across as rude.

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28. A customer used the convert.exe utility to take advantage of NTFS security features. The customer later discovered that the application on the computer can only read FAT32 files. After the hard drive was formatted back to FAT32, the customer noticed all of the data files are missing. What should the customer do next? 

Explanation

The customer should restore the data files that were backed up in preparation for the conversion. When the hard drive was formatted back to FAT32, it erased all the data files. By restoring the backed up files, the customer can recover the lost data.

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29. This standard specifies that networks must implement the CSMA/CD access control method.

Explanation

The correct answer is 802.3 because this standard specifically specifies that networks must implement the CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) access control method. CSMA/CD is a protocol used in Ethernet networks to manage access to the network medium and avoid collisions between devices trying to transmit data simultaneously. The 802.3 standard is the IEEE standard for Ethernet networks, which includes the specifications for CSMA/CD.

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30. Which two technologies enable printers to be accessed by multiple network users? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Wi-Fi and Ethernet are the two technologies that enable printers to be accessed by multiple network users. Wi-Fi allows wireless connectivity, allowing users to connect to the printer without the need for physical cables. Ethernet, on the other hand, uses wired connections to connect printers to a network, enabling multiple users to access the printer through the network. USB and Firewire are not technologies that allow printers to be accessed by multiple network users.

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31. What is the purpose of SCSI and RAID adapters?

Explanation

SCSI and RAID adapters are used to connect storage devices, specifically hard disk drives, to a PC. These adapters provide the necessary interface and connectivity options for the storage devices to be recognized and accessed by the computer. By using these adapters, users can expand the storage capacity of their PCs and have the ability to access and store data on multiple hard drives. Additionally, RAID adapters also offer data protection features such as redundancy and mirroring, which help safeguard against data loss in case of drive failure.

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32. A computer user buys a low priced replacement monitor but finds that there is a lot of flicker. The flicker makes the monitor unusable. Which characteristic of a monitor needs to be considered to ensure flicker-free viewing?

Explanation

To ensure flicker-free viewing, the characteristic of a monitor that needs to be considered is the refresh rate. The refresh rate refers to the number of times per second the image on the screen is refreshed. A higher refresh rate reduces the flickering effect, providing a smoother and more comfortable viewing experience. Therefore, in this case, the low priced replacement monitor likely has a low refresh rate, causing the flickering issue.

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33. A hacker is detected using commonly available wireless hacking tools to access encrypted wireless network communication. Which resolution would prevent this action?

Explanation

Changing the SSID (Service Set Identifier) that is being used on the wireless network would prevent a hacker from accessing the encrypted wireless network communication using commonly available wireless hacking tools. The SSID is the name of the wireless network and changing it would make it more difficult for the hacker to identify and target the network. By changing the SSID, the network becomes less vulnerable to unauthorized access and potential attacks.

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34. Which power mode should be used by a laptop so that all the data is saved, all the applications the user was working on are left open, and there is no power used by the laptop?

Explanation

Hibernate is the correct answer because it allows the laptop to save all the data and keep all the applications open while using no power. In hibernate mode, the laptop saves the current state to the hard drive and shuts down completely, conserving power. When the laptop is turned on again, it restores the previous state, including all open applications and data. This makes hibernate mode ideal for situations where the laptop needs to be turned off but the user wants to resume their work without any loss of data or open applications.

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35. Which network protocol is used to automatically assign an IP address to a computer on a network?

Explanation

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is the correct answer because it is the network protocol used to automatically assign an IP address to a computer on a network. TCP/IP is a suite of network protocols, not specifically used for assigning IP addresses. DNS (Domain Name System) is used to translate domain names into IP addresses, but it does not assign IP addresses to computers on a network.

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36. A technician has replaced a failing floppy drive. While testing the new drive, the technician notices that the floppy drive light remains lit constantly. What is most likely the cause of the problem?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the problem is that the ribbon cable is installed incorrectly. This could result in a constant flow of power to the floppy drive light, causing it to remain lit constantly. The incorrect installation of the ribbon cable could be preventing the proper communication between the floppy drive and the computer, leading to this issue.

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37. When calculating the total cost of ownership of a printer it is necessary to consider the cost of the consumables. Which two consumables are associated with an inkjet printer? (Choose two.)

Explanation

When calculating the total cost of ownership of an inkjet printer, it is important to consider the cost of consumables. Two consumables associated with an inkjet printer are ink cartridges and paper. Ink cartridges need to be replaced periodically as they run out of ink, and the cost of these cartridges can add up over time. Additionally, paper is a necessary consumable for printing documents, so the cost of paper should also be taken into account when calculating the total cost of ownership.

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38. A user reports that a printer is printing unknown characters on documents. What is a possible solution to this issue?

Explanation

Uninstalling and reinstalling the printer driver can be a possible solution to the issue of a printer printing unknown characters on documents. This can help resolve any potential driver conflicts or corruption that may be causing the problem. By uninstalling the driver and then reinstalling it, the printer can establish a fresh connection with the computer and ensure that the correct driver is being used, thereby resolving the issue of printing unknown characters.

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39. A network administrator is troubleshooting a server that keeps crashing. While monitoring traffic to the server, the administrator notices repeated, larger than normal pings to the server. What is the name of this type of attack?

Explanation

The correct answer is "ping of death". In a ping of death attack, the attacker sends oversized or fragmented pings to the target server, causing it to crash or become unresponsive. The repeated larger than normal pings noticed by the administrator are indicative of this type of attack. A zombie attack refers to a network of compromised computers controlled by a hacker, while SSH is a network protocol used for secure remote access.

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40. Which two quick solutions are commonly recommended when a technician is troubleshooting a laptop? (Choose two.)

Explanation

When troubleshooting a laptop, rebooting the laptop is a commonly recommended solution as it can help resolve various software issues. By restarting the system, it can clear any temporary glitches or conflicts that may be causing problems. Disconnecting the peripherals is also commonly recommended as it can help identify if any external devices are causing the issue. By removing all peripheral devices, the technician can determine if the problem lies with any of the connected devices or if it is an internal issue with the laptop itself.

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41. What is RAID 1 ?

Explanation

RAID 1 is a type of RAID configuration that uses two hard disk drives (HDD) and implements mirroring. In this configuration, data is duplicated across both drives, creating an exact copy of the data on each drive. This redundancy provides increased data protection as if one drive fails, the other drive can still function and ensure the availability of the data. RAID 1 is commonly used in situations where data integrity and fault tolerance are of utmost importance.

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42. A technician notices that a data floppy disk is in the floppy disk drive of a computer when it is powered on. Which error message could this potentially cause?

Explanation

If a data floppy disk is in the floppy disk drive when the computer is powered on, it could potentially cause the error message "invalid system disk." This is because the computer is trying to boot from the floppy disk instead of the usual boot device (such as the hard drive), and if the floppy disk does not contain a valid operating system, the computer will not be able to boot properly.

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43. Which Registry file contains information about all software that is installed on a Windows XP computer?

Explanation

The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE registry file contains information about all software that is installed on a Windows XP computer. This registry hive is a central location for system-wide settings and configurations, including information about installed software. It stores data related to hardware, software, and user settings, making it a crucial component of the Windows operating system.

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44. What is the purpose of an IRQ? 

Explanation

The purpose of an IRQ (Interrupt Request) is to request information from the CPU. When a device needs the attention of the CPU, it sends an interrupt request to the CPU through an IRQ line. This allows the device to communicate with the CPU and request the processing of certain tasks or data. The CPU then interrupts its current operations to handle the request from the device.

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45. A customer reports that after using a computer for over a year, the computer now takes more time to access the files. Which management tool can be used first, before any other complex procedure?

Explanation

Defragmentation (defrag) is a management tool that rearranges fragmented data on a computer's hard drive, making it more efficient and improving access times. In this scenario, as the customer reports that the computer takes more time to access files, defrag can be used as the first step to optimize the computer's performance. It will reorganize the fragmented files and improve the overall speed and efficiency of accessing files, without requiring any complex procedures.

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46. Where can a user change the idle time after which a laptop will switch to standby mode?

Explanation

To change the idle time after which a laptop will switch to standby mode, the user needs to left-click on the Start button, then navigate to the Control Panel. In the Control Panel, the user should click on Power Options. Once in the Power Options menu, the user can click on the Power Schemes tab to access the settings for adjusting the idle time.

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47. What is RAID 4?

Explanation

RAID 4 is a data storage technology that involves stripping data into blocks and adding parity information. It requires a minimum of three hard disk drives (HDDs) to implement. The data is divided into blocks and stored across multiple drives, with one drive dedicated to storing parity information. This parity information allows for data recovery in case of a drive failure. RAID 4 provides improved performance and fault tolerance compared to a single HDD, but it is less efficient in terms of write operations due to the need to update the parity drive.

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48. What is RAID 3?

Explanation

RAID 3 is a data storage technique that involves stripping data across multiple drives at the byte level, rather than the bit level. In this RAID level, data is divided into bytes and distributed across different drives, with one drive dedicated to storing parity information. The parity information allows for data recovery in case of a drive failure. RAID 3 offers high data transfer rates, especially for large sequential read and write operations.

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49. What is RAID 0 ?

Explanation

RAID 0 is a data storage technique that involves striping, which means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple drives. This allows for parallel read and write operations, resulting in increased performance and faster data transfer speeds. RAID 0 does not provide any redundancy or fault tolerance, as there is no mirroring or parity involved. Therefore, if one drive fails, all data is lost.

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50. SCSI can transmit parallel data at rates in excess of .............. and can support ............. devices.

Explanation

SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a high-speed parallel interface used for connecting peripheral devices to a computer. It can transmit data at rates in excess of 320MBps and can support up to 15 devices. This means that SCSI can transfer data at a speed of 320 megabytes per second and can connect up to 15 devices simultaneously.

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51. When a Windows XP computer has completed the POST for each adapter card that has a BIOS, what is the next step during the boot sequence? 

Explanation

After completing the POST for each adapter card with a BIOS, the next step in the boot sequence is for the BIOS to read the Master Boot Record (MBR). The MBR is a small section of the hard drive that contains the boot loader, which is responsible for loading the operating system. By reading the MBR, the BIOS can locate and initiate the boot loader, allowing the operating system to load and start running.

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52. Which type of cellphone standard uses the standard name GPRS?

Explanation

GPRS stands for General Packet Radio Service, which is a mobile data standard used for 2.5G cellular networks. It provides a faster data transfer rate compared to the previous 2G networks, allowing users to access the internet and send/receive data more efficiently. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.5G.

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53. How many pins does a VGA port have?

Explanation

A VGA port typically has a 3-row, 15-pin female connector. This type of connector is commonly used for video output on computers and displays. It allows for the transmission of analog video signals. The 15 pins are divided into three rows, with each row carrying specific signals such as RGB (red, green, blue) video signals, horizontal and vertical sync signals, and ground connections. This configuration allows for the proper transmission of video data between the computer and the display device.

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54. What architecture uses a relatively small set of instructions which are designed to execute rapidly?

Explanation

RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) architecture uses a relatively small set of instructions that are designed to execute rapidly. This architecture simplifies the instructions and focuses on optimizing the execution speed by using a simplified instruction set. RISC processors typically have a smaller number of instructions, which allows for faster execution and better performance. This design philosophy prioritizes simplicity and efficiency, making RISC architecture suitable for applications that require fast execution, such as embedded systems and high-performance computing.

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55. Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

Explanation

SSH (Secure Shell) is a network protocol that adds security to remote connections. It provides a secure channel over an unsecured network by encrypting the data being transmitted. This ensures that the information sent between the client and the server cannot be intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized individuals. SSH is commonly used for remote administration of systems and secure file transfers.

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56. How many pins does a IDE cable have?

Explanation

An IDE cable typically has 40 pins. This type of cable is commonly used to connect internal storage devices, such as hard drives and optical drives, to the motherboard of a computer. The 40-pin IDE cable consists of 40 separate wires that transmit data and power between the storage device and the motherboard.

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57. A technician is explaining the differences between inkjet printers and laser printers to a customer. Which two comparisons should the technician make? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The technician should compare the cost of inkjet printers and laser printers, stating that inkjet printers are less expensive than laser printers. Additionally, the technician should compare the output of the two printers, mentioning that while the laser printer output is dry after printing, an inkjet printer may still have wet ink on the paper after printing.

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58. A student enables file sharing on a laptop so that a friend can access music files. Which type of service is being configured? 

Explanation

The student is configuring a peer-to-peer service by enabling file sharing on their laptop. This means that they are allowing their friend to directly access and download music files from their laptop, without the need for a central server or network. Peer-to-peer file sharing allows users to share files directly between their devices, making it a convenient and decentralized method of sharing files.

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59. When analyzing a protocol used on the network, it is discovered that multicast messages are being sent to network devices. Which class of IP addressing is being used to send these messages?

Explanation

The correct answer is Class D. Class D IP addressing is used for multicast messages on the network. Multicast messages are sent to a group of devices that have subscribed to receive the message, rather than being sent to a specific device. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.

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60. Which type of scanner generally has high costs but produces high quality images?

Explanation

A drum scanner generally has high costs but produces high quality images. Drum scanners use a cylindrical drum to capture the image, which allows for high-resolution scanning and precise color reproduction. The high cost is due to the advanced technology and precision required for drum scanning, making it a preferred choice for professional photographers and graphic designers who require the highest quality images.

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61. A technician is asked to wire a network that supports CSMA/CD. Which architecture and physical topology should the technician use for supporting this access control method?

Explanation

The technician should use Ethernet and Star architecture and physical topology to support CSMA/CD. In this configuration, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch using individual cables, forming a star-shaped network. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) is a protocol used in Ethernet networks to manage access to the shared medium and detect collisions. The star topology allows for easy troubleshooting and scalability, as new devices can be added or removed without affecting the rest of the network.

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62. What is RAID 2?

Explanation

RAID 2 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) configuration that uses stripping and parity. It requires a minimum of three hard disk drives (HDD). Stripping involves dividing data into blocks and storing them across multiple drives, which improves performance. Parity is used for error detection and recovery, allowing the system to reconstruct data if one drive fails. Therefore, the correct answer is "Stripping, Parity, 3 HDD."

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63. Which network device uses a MAC address table to segment the network?

Explanation

A router uses a MAC address table to segment the network. Routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model and are responsible for forwarding data packets between different networks. They use MAC address tables to determine the next hop for a packet based on its destination MAC address. This allows the router to efficiently route packets to the correct network segment. Switches also use MAC address tables, but they operate at the data link layer and are primarily used for LAN segmentation. Hubs, on the other hand, do not use MAC address tables and simply forward all traffic to all connected devices.

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64. What are the pin configurations for the PC Express Card? (Choose two)

Explanation

The PC Express Card has two pin configurations, which are 34-pin and 54-pin. These pin configurations determine the number and arrangement of the electrical connections on the card. The 34-pin configuration is commonly used for ExpressCard/34 cards, while the 54-pin configuration is used for ExpressCard/54 cards. These pin configurations allow the PC Express Card to connect to a computer or other devices, enabling the transfer of data and the use of various functionalities.

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65. A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new park ranger, one room office that is located at the highest part of the national park. When the testing was completed, the technicians reported that occasionally, the wireless LAN signal is affected by some type of interference. What are two possible causes of the signal distortion? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The number of wireless devices used in the wireless LAN can cause signal distortion because having too many devices can overcrowd the network and cause interference. The large number of trees surrounding the office can also cause signal distortion as trees can block or weaken the wireless signal.

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66. A technician is troubleshooting a user complaint that a printer is not printing a report. Which step is one of the first that the technician should take?

Explanation

The technician should check the Device Manager on the user computer for hardware problems because if there is an issue with the printer's hardware, it may not be able to print the report. By checking the Device Manager, the technician can identify any hardware conflicts or errors that may be causing the problem and take appropriate action to resolve it.

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67. Which Windows tool should be run before upgrading the operating system?

Explanation

Before upgrading the operating system, it is recommended to run the "Ntbackup" tool. This tool is used for creating backups of important files and data on the current operating system. By running Ntbackup, the user can ensure that all important data is safely backed up before the upgrade process begins. This helps to prevent any potential data loss or corruption during the upgrade process, as the backup can be restored if any issues occur.

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68. A technician is asked to configure the time the system must be idle before the hard disk spins down on all the Windows-based laptops in the company. The technician configured the power options in Windows but it appears to have no effect. Where should the technician look to enable power management?

Explanation

The technician should look in the System Registry to enable power management. The System Registry is a centralized database in Windows that stores configuration settings for the operating system and applications. Power management settings can be found in the System Registry and configuring them correctly can determine when the hard disk spins down after the system is idle for a certain amount of time.

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69. How many pins does a DVI port have? (Choose all that apply)

Explanation

A DVI port can have either 24 pins or 29 pins. The 24-pin configuration is commonly known as DVI-D and is used for digital signals only. The 29-pin configuration, known as DVI-I, supports both digital and analog signals. Therefore, both 24-pin and 29-pin options are correct answers for the number of pins in a DVI port.

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70. How many pins are there in a SCSI cable? (Choose three)

Explanation

A SCSI cable can have different pin configurations depending on the type and generation of the SCSI interface. In this case, the correct answer is 50 Pin, 68 Pin, and 80 Pin. These are common pin configurations used in SCSI cables.

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