CISCO IT Essentials Mock Exam 1-10 - Revision

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IT Essentials Quizzes & Trivia

Resources to help you pass you Cisco IT Essentials 1-10 Exam ! *UPDATE* just took my cisco 1-10 test and passed with 86% and this was a great resource.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    This standard specifies that networks must implement the CSMA/CD access control method.

    • A.

      803.4

    • B.

      1934a

    • C.

      802.3

    Correct Answer
    C. 802.3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 802.3 because this standard specifically specifies that networks must implement the CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) access control method. CSMA/CD is a protocol used in Ethernet networks to manage access to the network medium and avoid collisions between devices trying to transmit data simultaneously. The 802.3 standard is the IEEE standard for Ethernet networks, which includes the specifications for CSMA/CD.

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  • 2. 

    Which type of cellphone standard uses the standard name GPRS?

    • A.

      2.5G

    • B.

      3G

    • C.

      3.5G

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.5G
    Explanation
    GPRS stands for General Packet Radio Service, which is a mobile data standard used for 2.5G cellular networks. It provides a faster data transfer rate compared to the previous 2G networks, allowing users to access the internet and send/receive data more efficiently. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.5G.

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  • 3. 

    What are the pin configurations for the PC Express Card? (Choose two)

    • A.

      34 - Pin

    • B.

      68 - Pin

    • C.

      20 - Pin

    • D.

      54 - Pin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 34 - Pin
    D. 54 - Pin
    Explanation
    The PC Express Card has two pin configurations, which are 34-pin and 54-pin. These pin configurations determine the number and arrangement of the electrical connections on the card. The 34-pin configuration is commonly used for ExpressCard/34 cards, while the 54-pin configuration is used for ExpressCard/54 cards. These pin configurations allow the PC Express Card to connect to a computer or other devices, enabling the transfer of data and the use of various functionalities.

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  • 4. 

    What does ACPI stand for?

    • A.

      Advanced configuration and powered interferance

    • B.

      Advance configuration and power interface

    • C.

      Appropriation configured power interface

    Correct Answer
    B. Advance configuration and power interface
    Explanation
    ACPI stands for Advanced Configuration and Power Interface. It is an industry standard that defines a power management and configuration interface between the operating system and the computer's hardware. ACPI allows for advanced power management features, such as power-saving modes, device configuration, and system control. It helps in optimizing power usage and improving system performance by allowing the operating system to control the power management of devices and components.

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  • 5. 

    Which technique enhances the CPU's performance by executing multiple pieces of code simultatiously on each pipeline?

    • A.

      Throttling

    • B.

      Hyperthreading

    • C.

      Overclocking

    Correct Answer
    B. Hyperthreading
    Explanation
    Hyperthreading is a technique that enhances the CPU's performance by executing multiple pieces of code simultaneously on each pipeline. It allows the CPU to work on multiple threads at the same time, increasing efficiency and overall performance. This is achieved by duplicating certain sections of the CPU that store the architectural state, allowing each thread to have its own set of registers and execution resources. With hyperthreading, the CPU can better utilize its resources and execute more instructions in parallel, leading to improved performance.

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  • 6. 

    What architecture uses a relatively small set of instructions which are designed to execute rapidly?

    • A.

      CISC

    • B.

      RISC

    • C.

      BIOS

    Correct Answer
    B. RISC
    Explanation
    RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) architecture uses a relatively small set of instructions that are designed to execute rapidly. This architecture simplifies the instructions and focuses on optimizing the execution speed by using a simplified instruction set. RISC processors typically have a smaller number of instructions, which allows for faster execution and better performance. This design philosophy prioritizes simplicity and efficiency, making RISC architecture suitable for applications that require fast execution, such as embedded systems and high-performance computing.

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  • 7. 

    Which type of scanner generally has high costs but produces high quality images?

    • A.

      Drum

    • B.

      Laser

    • C.

      Inkjet

    Correct Answer
    A. Drum
    Explanation
    A drum scanner generally has high costs but produces high quality images. Drum scanners use a cylindrical drum to capture the image, which allows for high-resolution scanning and precise color reproduction. The high cost is due to the advanced technology and precision required for drum scanning, making it a preferred choice for professional photographers and graphic designers who require the highest quality images.

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  • 8. 

    A technician needs to configure the hard drive on a computer so that there appears to be one drive for the operating system and four drives for data from different applications. how can the hard drive be configured?

    • A.

      Using a partition software

    • B.

      Create one primary partition and one partition.

    • C.

      Create one primary partition and one logical partition with four logical partitions within it.

    Correct Answer
    C. Create one primary partition and one logical partition with four logical partitions within it.
    Explanation
    The hard drive can be configured by creating one primary partition and one logical partition with four logical partitions within it. This configuration allows for the operating system to be stored in the primary partition while the data from different applications can be stored in the logical partitions. This setup provides organization and separation of the different types of data on the hard drive.

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  • 9. 

    A computer can access devices on the same network but can not access devices on other networks, what is the probable cause?

    • A.

      The computer has an invalid default gateway address

    • B.

      Bad network cable

    • C.

      Faulty IP

    Correct Answer
    A. The computer has an invalid default gateway address
    Explanation
    The probable cause for the computer being able to access devices on the same network but not on other networks is that it has an invalid default gateway address. The default gateway is responsible for routing network traffic between different networks. If the computer has an incorrect or invalid default gateway address, it will not be able to properly route traffic to devices on other networks, resulting in the inability to access them.

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  • 10. 

    What is RAID 4?

    • A.

      Stripping into blocks and parity, needs 3 HDDs

    • B.

      Mirroring and stripping 2 HDD

    • C.

      Stripping

    Correct Answer
    A. Stripping into blocks and parity, needs 3 HDDs
    Explanation
    RAID 4 is a data storage technology that involves stripping data into blocks and adding parity information. It requires a minimum of three hard disk drives (HDDs) to implement. The data is divided into blocks and stored across multiple drives, with one drive dedicated to storing parity information. This parity information allows for data recovery in case of a drive failure. RAID 4 provides improved performance and fault tolerance compared to a single HDD, but it is less efficient in terms of write operations due to the need to update the parity drive.

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  • 11. 

    What is RAID 5?

    • A.

      3 HDD, stripping, Parity,Disk Mirroring, Disk Duplexing.

    • B.

      Mirroring, Stripping, Parity

    • C.

      Parity

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 HDD, stripping, Parity,Disk Mirroring, Disk Duplexing.
    Explanation
    RAID 5 is a type of data storage technology that uses striping and parity to provide fault tolerance and data protection. In RAID 5, data is divided into blocks and distributed across multiple hard drives (in this case, 3 HDD). Each drive contains a portion of the data and also stores parity information, which is used to reconstruct data in case of a drive failure. The stripping technique improves performance by allowing multiple drives to work together in parallel. Disk mirroring and disk duplexing, on the other hand, are features of RAID 1 and not RAID 5.

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  • 12. 

    What is RAID 3?

    • A.

      Stripping with Bytes not Bits

    • B.

      Stripping Bits

    • C.

      Parity

    Correct Answer
    A. Stripping with Bytes not Bits
    Explanation
    RAID 3 is a data storage technique that involves stripping data across multiple drives at the byte level, rather than the bit level. In this RAID level, data is divided into bytes and distributed across different drives, with one drive dedicated to storing parity information. The parity information allows for data recovery in case of a drive failure. RAID 3 offers high data transfer rates, especially for large sequential read and write operations.

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  • 13. 

    What is RAID 2?

    • A.

      Parity

    • B.

      Stripping, Parity, 3 HDD

    • C.

      Mirroring

    Correct Answer
    B. Stripping, Parity, 3 HDD
    Explanation
    RAID 2 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) configuration that uses stripping and parity. It requires a minimum of three hard disk drives (HDD). Stripping involves dividing data into blocks and storing them across multiple drives, which improves performance. Parity is used for error detection and recovery, allowing the system to reconstruct data if one drive fails. Therefore, the correct answer is "Stripping, Parity, 3 HDD."

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  • 14. 

    What is RAID 1 ?

    • A.

      Mirroring, Stripping

    • B.

      Uses 2 HDD, Mirroring

    • C.

      Parity

    Correct Answer
    B. Uses 2 HDD, Mirroring
    Explanation
    RAID 1 is a type of RAID configuration that uses two hard disk drives (HDD) and implements mirroring. In this configuration, data is duplicated across both drives, creating an exact copy of the data on each drive. This redundancy provides increased data protection as if one drive fails, the other drive can still function and ensure the availability of the data. RAID 1 is commonly used in situations where data integrity and fault tolerance are of utmost importance.

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  • 15. 

    What is RAID 0 ?

    • A.

      Stripping and is the fastest of them all

    • B.

      Mirroring and is the slowest of them all

    • C.

      Parity

    Correct Answer
    A. Stripping and is the fastest of them all
    Explanation
    RAID 0 is a data storage technique that involves striping, which means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple drives. This allows for parallel read and write operations, resulting in increased performance and faster data transfer speeds. RAID 0 does not provide any redundancy or fault tolerance, as there is no mirroring or parity involved. Therefore, if one drive fails, all data is lost.

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  • 16. 

    How many pins does a DVI port have? (Choose all that apply)

    • A.

      24 Pin

    • B.

      6 Pin

    • C.

      29 Pin

    • D.

      19 Pin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 24 Pin
    C. 29 Pin
    Explanation
    A DVI port can have either 24 pins or 29 pins. The 24-pin configuration is commonly known as DVI-D and is used for digital signals only. The 29-pin configuration, known as DVI-I, supports both digital and analog signals. Therefore, both 24-pin and 29-pin options are correct answers for the number of pins in a DVI port.

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  • 17. 

    How many pins does a VGA port have?

    • A.

      3-Row, 15-Pin female connector

    • B.

      15 Pin

    • C.

      32 Pin

    Correct Answer
    A. 3-Row, 15-Pin female connector
    Explanation
    A VGA port typically has a 3-row, 15-pin female connector. This type of connector is commonly used for video output on computers and displays. It allows for the transmission of analog video signals. The 15 pins are divided into three rows, with each row carrying specific signals such as RGB (red, green, blue) video signals, horizontal and vertical sync signals, and ground connections. This configuration allows for the proper transmission of video data between the computer and the display device.

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  • 18. 

    SCSI can transmit parallel data at rates in excess of .............. and can support ............. devices.

    • A.

      320MBps and 15 devices

    • B.

      480MBps and 127 devices

    • C.

      400Mbps and 63 devices

    Correct Answer
    A. 320MBps and 15 devices
    Explanation
    SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a high-speed parallel interface used for connecting peripheral devices to a computer. It can transmit data at rates in excess of 320MBps and can support up to 15 devices. This means that SCSI can transfer data at a speed of 320 megabytes per second and can connect up to 15 devices simultaneously.

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  • 19. 

    How many pins are there in a SCSI cable? (Choose three)

    • A.

      50 Pin

    • B.

      70 Pin

    • C.

      68 Pin

    • D.

      80 Pin

    • E.

      62 Pin

    • F.

      40 Pin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 50 Pin
    C. 68 Pin
    D. 80 Pin
    Explanation
    A SCSI cable can have different pin configurations depending on the type and generation of the SCSI interface. In this case, the correct answer is 50 Pin, 68 Pin, and 80 Pin. These are common pin configurations used in SCSI cables.

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  • 20. 

    How many pins does a IDE cable have?

    • A.

      50 Pin

    • B.

      40 Pin

    • C.

      28 Pin

    Correct Answer
    B. 40 Pin
    Explanation
    An IDE cable typically has 40 pins. This type of cable is commonly used to connect internal storage devices, such as hard drives and optical drives, to the motherboard of a computer. The 40-pin IDE cable consists of 40 separate wires that transmit data and power between the storage device and the motherboard.

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  • 21. 

    A computer user buys a low priced replacement monitor but finds that there is a lot of flicker. The flicker makes the monitor unusable. Which characteristic of a monitor needs to be considered to ensure flicker-free viewing?

    • A.

      Backlight

    • B.

      Refresh rate

    • C.

      Display

    Correct Answer
    B. Refresh rate
    Explanation
    To ensure flicker-free viewing, the characteristic of a monitor that needs to be considered is the refresh rate. The refresh rate refers to the number of times per second the image on the screen is refreshed. A higher refresh rate reduces the flickering effect, providing a smoother and more comfortable viewing experience. Therefore, in this case, the low priced replacement monitor likely has a low refresh rate, causing the flickering issue.

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  • 22. 

    When analyzing a protocol used on the network, it is discovered that multicast messages are being sent to network devices. Which class of IP addressing is being used to send these messages?

    • A.

      D

    • B.

      A

    • C.

      C

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Class D. Class D IP addressing is used for multicast messages on the network. Multicast messages are sent to a group of devices that have subscribed to receive the message, rather than being sent to a specific device. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.

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  • 23. 

    A technician notices that a data floppy disk is in the floppy disk drive of a computer when it is powered on. Which error message could this potentially cause?

    • A.

      Floppy drive light will remain on

    • B.

      Computer will load fine

    • C.

      Invalid system disk

    Correct Answer
    C. Invalid system disk
    Explanation
    If a data floppy disk is in the floppy disk drive when the computer is powered on, it could potentially cause the error message "invalid system disk." This is because the computer is trying to boot from the floppy disk instead of the usual boot device (such as the hard drive), and if the floppy disk does not contain a valid operating system, the computer will not be able to boot properly.

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  • 24. 

    What characterizes spoofing?

    • A.

      Making data appear to come from a source other than the actual source

    • B.

      Overload of Emails

    • C.

      Viruses

    Correct Answer
    A. Making data appear to come from a source other than the actual source
    Explanation
    Spoofing is a technique used to deceive or trick someone by making data or information appear to come from a different source than it actually originated from. This can involve falsifying email addresses, IP addresses, or other identifying information to make it seem like the data is coming from a legitimate or trusted source. Spoofing can be used for various malicious purposes, such as phishing attacks, where the attacker tries to trick the recipient into revealing sensitive information or performing certain actions based on the false identity of the sender.

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  • 25. 

    When a Windows XP computer has completed the POST for each adapter card that has a BIOS, what is the next step during the boot sequence? 

    • A.

      BIOS loads

    • B.

      OS Loads

    • C.

      BIOS reads the MBR.

    Correct Answer
    C. BIOS reads the MBR.
    Explanation
    After completing the POST for each adapter card with a BIOS, the next step in the boot sequence is for the BIOS to read the Master Boot Record (MBR). The MBR is a small section of the hard drive that contains the boot loader, which is responsible for loading the operating system. By reading the MBR, the BIOS can locate and initiate the boot loader, allowing the operating system to load and start running.

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  • 26. 

    When calculating the total cost of ownership of a printer it is necessary to consider the cost of the consumables. Which two consumables are associated with an inkjet printer? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Ink cartridge

    • B.

      Toner

    • C.

      Paper

    • D.

      Power

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ink cartridge
    C. Paper
    Explanation
    When calculating the total cost of ownership of an inkjet printer, it is important to consider the cost of consumables. Two consumables associated with an inkjet printer are ink cartridges and paper. Ink cartridges need to be replaced periodically as they run out of ink, and the cost of these cartridges can add up over time. Additionally, paper is a necessary consumable for printing documents, so the cost of paper should also be taken into account when calculating the total cost of ownership.

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  • 27. 

    Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

    • A.

      RTC

    • B.

      TCP/IP

    • C.

      SSH

    Correct Answer
    C. SSH
    Explanation
    SSH (Secure Shell) is a network protocol that adds security to remote connections. It provides a secure channel over an unsecured network by encrypting the data being transmitted. This ensures that the information sent between the client and the server cannot be intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized individuals. SSH is commonly used for remote administration of systems and secure file transfers.

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  • 28. 

    What is the purpose of an IRQ? 

    • A.

      Request information from the CPU.

    • B.

      Request information from the hard drive

    • C.

      Request information fron the BIOS menu

    Correct Answer
    A. Request information from the CPU.
    Explanation
    The purpose of an IRQ (Interrupt Request) is to request information from the CPU. When a device needs the attention of the CPU, it sends an interrupt request to the CPU through an IRQ line. This allows the device to communicate with the CPU and request the processing of certain tasks or data. The CPU then interrupts its current operations to handle the request from the device.

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  • 29. 

    A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new park ranger, one room office that is located at the highest part of the national park. When the testing was completed, the technicians reported that occasionally, the wireless LAN signal is affected by some type of interference. What are two possible causes of the signal distortion? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Bluetooth devices

    • B.

      The number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN

    • C.

      Microwaves

    • D.

      The large number of trees that surround the office

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN
    D. The large number of trees that surround the office
    Explanation
    The number of wireless devices used in the wireless LAN can cause signal distortion because having too many devices can overcrowd the network and cause interference. The large number of trees surrounding the office can also cause signal distortion as trees can block or weaken the wireless signal.

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  • 30. 

    When installing a service pack or security patches on an operating system, what should be done to protect the system in the event of a faulty or aborted installation?

    • A.

      Spyware scan

    • B.

      Virus scan

    • C.

      Create a restore point.

    Correct Answer
    C. Create a restore point.
    Explanation
    Creating a restore point before installing a service pack or security patches is important because it allows the system to be rolled back to a previous state if the installation is faulty or aborted. This ensures that any changes made during the installation can be undone, minimizing the risk of system instability or data loss. Spyware and virus scans are unrelated to protecting the system during installation and do not address the issue of a faulty or aborted installation.

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  • 31. 

    A technician is asked to wire a network that supports CSMA/CD. Which architecture and physical topology should the technician use for supporting this access control method?

    • A.

      Ethernet and Star

    • B.

      Ethernet and Mesh

    • C.

      Ethernet and Bus

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethernet and Star
    Explanation
    The technician should use Ethernet and Star architecture and physical topology to support CSMA/CD. In this configuration, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch using individual cables, forming a star-shaped network. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) is a protocol used in Ethernet networks to manage access to the shared medium and detect collisions. The star topology allows for easy troubleshooting and scalability, as new devices can be added or removed without affecting the rest of the network.

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  • 32. 

    What is the best way to fully ensure that data is unable to be recovered from a hard drive?

    • A.

      Format hard drive

    • B.

      Shattering the hard drive platters with a hammer

    • C.

      Remove data

    Correct Answer
    B. Shattering the hard drive platters with a hammer
    Explanation
    Shattering the hard drive platters with a hammer is the best way to fully ensure that data is unable to be recovered from a hard drive. By physically destroying the platters, the data stored on them becomes irretrievable. Formatting the hard drive or simply removing the data may still leave traces that can potentially be recovered.

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  • 33. 

    A technician is asked to configure the time the system must be idle before the hard disk spins down on all the Windows-based laptops in the company. The technician configured the power options in Windows but it appears to have no effect. Where should the technician look to enable power management?

    • A.

      System Registry

    • B.

      Command Prompt

    • C.

      Administrative Tools

    Correct Answer
    A. System Registry
    Explanation
    The technician should look in the System Registry to enable power management. The System Registry is a centralized database in Windows that stores configuration settings for the operating system and applications. Power management settings can be found in the System Registry and configuring them correctly can determine when the hard disk spins down after the system is idle for a certain amount of time.

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  • 34. 

    A printer has a paper jam. An impatient user has sent multiple print jobs of the same document to this printer. What can be done to remove these print jobs?

    • A.

      Turn off printer

    • B.

      Restart PC

    • C.

      Cancel the jobs in the printer queue.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cancel the jobs in the printer queue.
    Explanation
    To remove the multiple print jobs, the user should cancel the jobs in the printer queue. This can be done by accessing the printer queue on the computer and selecting the option to cancel the pending print jobs. Turning off the printer or restarting the PC will not specifically address the issue of removing the print jobs from the queue.

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  • 35. 

    ABC Inc. decided to integrate redundancy by connecting multiple hard disks to duplicate the information they store. Which type of adapter will need to be installed on the servers to accomplish the desired redundancy?

    • A.

      PC adapter

    • B.

      RAID adapter

    • C.

      PCIe

    Correct Answer
    B. RAID adapter
    Explanation
    To accomplish the desired redundancy of duplicating information stored on multiple hard disks, ABC Inc. will need to install a RAID adapter on their servers. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) technology allows for data to be distributed and duplicated across multiple hard drives, providing increased data protection and fault tolerance. This adapter will enable the servers to effectively manage and utilize the redundant storage configuration.

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  • 36. 

    A call center technician has asked a customer to perform a simple operation to fix a problem on a computer. The customer seems unable to perform the task. What should the technician do?

    • A.

      Fix problem

    • B.

      Arranged a time to fix the problem

    • C.

      Determine whether the customer would prefer to receive the instructions in another form, such as e-mailed, illustrated written instructions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine whether the customer would prefer to receive the instructions in another form, such as e-mailed, illustrated written instructions.
    Explanation
    The technician should determine whether the customer would prefer to receive the instructions in another form, such as e-mailed, illustrated written instructions. This is because the customer seems unable to perform the task, indicating that they may not understand the verbal instructions provided. By offering alternative forms of instructions, the technician can ensure that the customer receives clear and understandable guidance to fix the problem on their computer.

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  • 37. 

    Which two technologies enable printers to be accessed by multiple network users? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Wi-Fi

    • B.

      USB

    • C.

      Ethernet

    • D.

      Firewire

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Wi-Fi
    C. Ethernet
    Explanation
    Wi-Fi and Ethernet are the two technologies that enable printers to be accessed by multiple network users. Wi-Fi allows wireless connectivity, allowing users to connect to the printer without the need for physical cables. Ethernet, on the other hand, uses wired connections to connect printers to a network, enabling multiple users to access the printer through the network. USB and Firewire are not technologies that allow printers to be accessed by multiple network users.

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  • 38. 

    A user reports that a printer is printing unknown characters on documents. What is a possible solution to this issue?

    • A.

      Roll back driver

    • B.

      Uninstall and reinstall the printer driver.

    • C.

      Reinstall driver

    Correct Answer
    B. Uninstall and reinstall the printer driver.
    Explanation
    Uninstalling and reinstalling the printer driver can be a possible solution to the issue of a printer printing unknown characters on documents. This can help resolve any potential driver conflicts or corruption that may be causing the problem. By uninstalling the driver and then reinstalling it, the printer can establish a fresh connection with the computer and ensure that the correct driver is being used, thereby resolving the issue of printing unknown characters.

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  • 39. 

    Which network device uses a MAC address table to segment the network?

    • A.

      Switch

    • B.

      Hub

    • C.

      Router

    Correct Answer
    C. Router
    Explanation
    A router uses a MAC address table to segment the network. Routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model and are responsible for forwarding data packets between different networks. They use MAC address tables to determine the next hop for a packet based on its destination MAC address. This allows the router to efficiently route packets to the correct network segment. Switches also use MAC address tables, but they operate at the data link layer and are primarily used for LAN segmentation. Hubs, on the other hand, do not use MAC address tables and simply forward all traffic to all connected devices.

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  • 40. 

    A supervisor received a complaint that one of the technicians was rude and disrespectful. Which action by the technician most likely caused the customer to complain?

    • A.

      The technican wasnt knowledgable

    • B.

      The technician interrupted a number of times to ask questions.

    • C.

      The technician hung up

    Correct Answer
    B. The technician interrupted a number of times to ask questions.
    Explanation
    The most likely action by the technician that caused the customer to complain is interrupting a number of times to ask questions. This behavior can be seen as disrespectful and may have disrupted the customer's experience or conversation with the technician. It shows a lack of consideration for the customer's time and may have come across as rude.

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  • 41. 

    A technician is troubleshooting a user complaint that a printer is not printing a report. Which step is one of the first that the technician should take?

    • A.

      Check printer is on

    • B.

      Check the Device Manager on the user computer for hardware problems.

    • C.

      Check command prompt > ipconfig /all

    Correct Answer
    B. Check the Device Manager on the user computer for hardware problems.
    Explanation
    The technician should check the Device Manager on the user computer for hardware problems because if there is an issue with the printer's hardware, it may not be able to print the report. By checking the Device Manager, the technician can identify any hardware conflicts or errors that may be causing the problem and take appropriate action to resolve it.

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  • 42. 

    Which Registry file contains information about all software that is installed on a Windows XP computer?

    • A.

      HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

    • B.

      HKEY_USER

    • C.

      HKEY_REGISTRY

    Correct Answer
    A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
    Explanation
    The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE registry file contains information about all software that is installed on a Windows XP computer. This registry hive is a central location for system-wide settings and configurations, including information about installed software. It stores data related to hardware, software, and user settings, making it a crucial component of the Windows operating system.

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  • 43. 

    A hacker is detected using commonly available wireless hacking tools to access encrypted wireless network communication. Which resolution would prevent this action?

    • A.

      NIC

    • B.

      Change Admin passwords

    • C.

      Change the SSID that is being used on the wireless network.

    Correct Answer
    C. Change the SSID that is being used on the wireless network.
    Explanation
    Changing the SSID (Service Set Identifier) that is being used on the wireless network would prevent a hacker from accessing the encrypted wireless network communication using commonly available wireless hacking tools. The SSID is the name of the wireless network and changing it would make it more difficult for the hacker to identify and target the network. By changing the SSID, the network becomes less vulnerable to unauthorized access and potential attacks.

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  • 44. 

    Which two general precautions should be taken before replacing any non-hot-swappable laptop component? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Remove any batteries.

    • B.

      Remove paper

    • C.

      Disconnect the power cord.

    • D.

      Remove toner

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Remove any batteries.
    C. Disconnect the power cord.
    Explanation
    Before replacing any non-hot-swappable laptop component, it is important to remove any batteries to ensure that there is no power source connected to the laptop. This is necessary to prevent any electrical accidents or damage to the laptop. Additionally, it is also important to disconnect the power cord to further ensure that there is no power supply to the laptop during the replacement process. This will help to protect both the user and the laptop from any potential harm.

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  • 45. 

    Which power mode should be used by a laptop so that all the data is saved, all the applications the user was working on are left open, and there is no power used by the laptop?

    • A.

      Standby

    • B.

      Hibernate

    • C.

      Sleeper mode

    Correct Answer
    B. Hibernate
    Explanation
    Hibernate is the correct answer because it allows the laptop to save all the data and keep all the applications open while using no power. In hibernate mode, the laptop saves the current state to the hard drive and shuts down completely, conserving power. When the laptop is turned on again, it restores the previous state, including all open applications and data. This makes hibernate mode ideal for situations where the laptop needs to be turned off but the user wants to resume their work without any loss of data or open applications.

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  • 46. 

    What is the purpose of SCSI and RAID adapters?

    • A.

      To add internal devices

    • B.

      To connect storage devices such as hard disk drives to a PC

    • C.

      To protect data

    Correct Answer
    B. To connect storage devices such as hard disk drives to a PC
    Explanation
    SCSI and RAID adapters are used to connect storage devices, specifically hard disk drives, to a PC. These adapters provide the necessary interface and connectivity options for the storage devices to be recognized and accessed by the computer. By using these adapters, users can expand the storage capacity of their PCs and have the ability to access and store data on multiple hard drives. Additionally, RAID adapters also offer data protection features such as redundancy and mirroring, which help safeguard against data loss in case of drive failure.

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  • 47. 

    Which network protocol is used to automatically assign an IP address to a computer on a network?

    • A.

      TCP/IP

    • B.

      DNS

    • C.

      DHCP

    Correct Answer
    C. DHCP
    Explanation
    DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is the correct answer because it is the network protocol used to automatically assign an IP address to a computer on a network. TCP/IP is a suite of network protocols, not specifically used for assigning IP addresses. DNS (Domain Name System) is used to translate domain names into IP addresses, but it does not assign IP addresses to computers on a network.

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  • 48. 

    A customer used the convert.exe utility to take advantage of NTFS security features. The customer later discovered that the application on the computer can only read FAT32 files. After the hard drive was formatted back to FAT32, the customer noticed all of the data files are missing. What should the customer do next? 

    • A.

      Restore the data files that were backed up in preparation for the conversion.

    • B.

      Data cannot be restored

    • C.

      Use ntbackup

    Correct Answer
    A. Restore the data files that were backed up in preparation for the conversion.
    Explanation
    The customer should restore the data files that were backed up in preparation for the conversion. When the hard drive was formatted back to FAT32, it erased all the data files. By restoring the backed up files, the customer can recover the lost data.

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  • 49. 

    Which two components normally require a laptop to be powered down and the battery removed before removing the components? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Internal hard drive

    • B.

      Keyboard

    • C.

      Mouse

    • D.

      RAM

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Internal hard drive
    D. RAM
    Explanation
    The internal hard drive and RAM are two components that normally require a laptop to be powered down and the battery removed before removing them. This is because both components are connected directly to the motherboard and can be easily damaged if they are removed while the laptop is still powered on. Removing the battery ensures that there is no power running through the laptop, reducing the risk of electrical damage.

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  • 50. 

    A customer reports that after using a computer for over a year, the computer now takes more time to access the files. Which management tool can be used first, before any other complex procedure?

    • A.

      OCR

    • B.

      Disk cleanup

    • C.

      Defrag

    Correct Answer
    C. Defrag
    Explanation
    Defragmentation (defrag) is a management tool that rearranges fragmented data on a computer's hard drive, making it more efficient and improving access times. In this scenario, as the customer reports that the computer takes more time to access files, defrag can be used as the first step to optimize the computer's performance. It will reorganize the fragmented files and improve the overall speed and efficiency of accessing files, without requiring any complex procedures.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 22, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Smithsr05
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