CDC 2A651H Volume 4

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| By Cpetersohn

Cpetersohn

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 210

| Attempts: 106

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1/53 Questions
1. What component provides the mounting pad for the bottom surface of the AE2100D3 air inlet housing?
- Prop gearbox (PGB).
- Power unit accessory drive (PUAD).
- Gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD).
- Full authority digital electronic control (FADEC).

About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on the AE2100D3 engine, focusing on components like the air inlet housing, compressor rotor assembly, fuel nozzles, and starter control valve. It's designed for professionals seeking certification in aerospace engine systems, enhancing both practical and theoretical understanding.

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2.
1. What type of compressor rotor assembly is used on the AE2100D3 engine?
- 14-stage axial-flow.
- 14-stage centrifugal-flow.
- 16-stage axial-flow.
- 16-stage centrifugal-flow.
Correct Answer

A. 14-stage axial-flow.

Explanation

The correct answer is 14-stage axial-flow. This means that the compressor rotor assembly on the AE2100D3 engine consists of 14 stages arranged in an axial flow configuration. Axial-flow compressors use a series of rotating and stationary blades to compress the air in a straight line, resulting in high efficiency and a compact design. The number of stages refers to the number of rotating and stationary blade rows in the compressor, with each stage contributing to the overall compression of the air.

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3.
1. How many fuel nozzles are in the AE2100D3 engine?
- 10
- 12
- 16
- 18
Correct Answer

A. 16

Explanation

The AE2100D3 engine has 16 fuel nozzles.

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4.
1. The AE2100D3 gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD) supplies the pads and drives for the AC generator, hydraulic pump, propeller gearbox (PGB) lube and scavenge pump, propeller overspeed governor (OSG) and high-pressure pump, and the
- Starter.
- alternator stator.
- Fuel pump/metering unit (FPMU).
- propeller pitch control unit (PCU).
Correct Answer

A. propeller pitch control unit (PCU).

Explanation

The AE2100D3 gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD) supplies power and drives for various components, including the AC generator, hydraulic pump, propeller gearbox lube and scavenge pump, propeller overspeed governor, high-pressure pump, starter, and the propeller pitch control unit (PCU). The PCU is responsible for controlling the pitch or angle of the propeller blades, allowing for optimal performance and efficiency.

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5.
1. The AE2100D3 starter control valve is spring-loaded to what position?
- Open.
- Closed.
- Override.
- Engaged.
Correct Answer

A. Closed.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 starter control valve is spring-loaded to the closed position. This means that when the valve is not being actively controlled or overridden, it will automatically return to the closed position. This ensures that the valve is in the correct position for starting the engine and prevents any unintended flow or leakage.

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6.
1. How is the AE2100D3 starter control valve actuated?
- Electrically.
- Pneumatically.
- Hydraulically.
- Hydro-electrically.
Correct Answer

A. Electrically.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 starter control valve is actuated electrically. This means that it is operated or controlled by an electrical system. It does not rely on pneumatic, hydraulic, or hydro-electric mechanisms for its operation.

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7.

From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power?
- Generator.
- Aircraft battery.
- Alternator stator.
- Essential DC bus.
Correct Answer

A. Alternator stator.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 ignition system receives its electrical power from the alternator stator. The alternator stator is responsible for generating electrical energy by converting mechanical energy from the engine into electrical energy. This electrical power is then used to power various systems in the aircraft, including the ignition system.

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8.

What component monitors the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?
- Full authority digital electronic control (FADEC).
- Gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD).
- Power unit accessory drive (PUAD).
- Nacelle interface unit (NIU).
Correct Answer

A. Nacelle interface unit (NIU).

Explanation

The Nacelle interface unit (NIU) is responsible for monitoring the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate. The NIU is a component that interfaces between the engine and the nacelle, which is the external structure that houses the engine. It receives signals from various sensors and systems, including the ignition exciters, and provides data to the engine control system. In this case, the NIU is specifically monitoring the spark rate of the ignition exciters to ensure proper engine ignition and operation.

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9.

How many sparks per second can the AE2100D3 ignition exciters produce?
- 1–3.
- 2–5.
- 3–6.
- 4–7.
Correct Answer

A. 4–7.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 ignition exciters can produce a range of 4-7 sparks per second.

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10.

Approximately how many gallons per minute (GPM) does the AE2100D3 power unit accessory drive (PUAD) lube and scavenge pump provide at engine takeoff power?
- 3
- 5
- 7
- 9
Correct Answer

A. 5

Explanation

The AE2100D3 power unit accessory drive (PUAD) lube and scavenge pump provides approximately 5 gallons per minute (GPM) at engine takeoff power.

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11.

The purpose of the AE2100D3 oil cooler flap is to vary the airflow through the oil cooler to maintain an engine oil temperature of
- 40C–66C.
- 60C-86C
- 80C-106C
- 100C-126C
Correct Answer

A. 60C-86C

Explanation

The purpose of the AE2100D3 oil cooler flap is to vary the airflow through the oil cooler in order to maintain an engine oil temperature within the range of 60C-86C. By adjusting the airflow, the oil cooler flap helps regulate the temperature of the engine oil, ensuring that it remains within the optimal operating range. This temperature range is considered suitable for the efficient functioning of the engine and helps prevent any potential damage or performance issues that may arise from extreme temperatures.

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12.

The advisory, caution, and warning system (ACAWS) message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below
- 2 US gallons.
- 3 US gallons.
- 4 US gallons.
- 5 US gallons.
Correct Answer

A. 4 US gallons.

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 US gallons. The advisory, caution, and warning system (ACAWS) message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below 4 US gallons. This means that if the oil level in the engine falls below this threshold, the ACAWS system will trigger a warning to alert the operator that the oil level is too low. It is important to monitor the oil level and ensure it is maintained above this minimum requirement to prevent potential engine damage or failure.

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13.

At what pressure differential is the AE2100D3 fuel flow relief valve fully open?
- 650 pounds per square inch differential (psid).
- 700 psid.
- 750 psid.
- 800 psid.
Correct Answer

A. 750 psid.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 fuel flow relief valve is fully open at a pressure differential of 750 psid.

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14.

What supplies the AE2100D3 full authority digital electronic control (FADEC) with power until engine revolutions per minute (rpm) is sufficient for the alternator stator to take control?
- Airplane 28 VDC power supply.
- Nacelle interface unit (NIU).
- MIL–STD–1553B data bus.
- Mission computer system.
Correct Answer

A. Airplane 28 VDC power supply.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 full authority digital electronic control (FADEC) is powered by the airplane's 28 VDC power supply. This power supply is responsible for providing power to the FADEC until the engine RPM is sufficient for the alternator stator to take control. Once the alternator stator takes control, it will provide the necessary power for the FADEC.

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15.

The AE2100D3 fuel temperature switch operates if the fuel temperature from the fuel output of the fuel-cooled oil cooler (FCOC) decreases to less than
- 25F
- 32F
- 45F
- 52F
Correct Answer

A. 32F

Explanation

The AE2100D3 fuel temperature switch operates if the fuel temperature from the fuel output of the fuel-cooled oil cooler (FCOC) decreases to less than 32F. This means that if the fuel temperature drops below 32F, the switch will activate and perform its intended function.

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16.

What component is controlled by the AE2100D3 full authority digital electronic control (FADEC) through the ENGINE START switch for normal engine shutdown or by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown?
- Servo valve.
- Fuel check valve.
- Electric shutoff valve.
- Latching shutoff valve.
Correct Answer

A. Latching shutoff valve.

Explanation

The AE2100D3 full authority digital electronic control (FADEC) controls the latching shutoff valve through the ENGINE START switch for normal engine shutdown or by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown. This valve is responsible for shutting off the fuel flow to the engine, ensuring a safe shutdown in both normal and emergency situations.

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17.

The purpose of the compressor control system is to keep
- Torque and fuel flow at optimum rates for all engine speeds.
- Torque and fuel flow at optimum rates for low engine speeds.
- compressor stall problems to a minimum at low engine speeds.
- compressor stall problems to a minimum at maximum engine speeds.
Correct Answer

A. compressor stall problems to a minimum at low engine speeds.

Explanation

The purpose of the compressor control system is to minimize compressor stall problems at low engine speeds. Compressor stall occurs when the airflow through the compressor is disrupted, leading to a loss of engine performance and potentially damaging the engine. By controlling the torque and fuel flow at low engine speeds, the compressor control system ensures that the airflow remains stable and prevents stall problems from occurring.

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18.

With engines running, what component sends fuel pressure to the compressor variable geometry (CVG) actuators?
- Fuel pump/metering unit (FPMU)
- Linear variable inductive transducer (LVIT).
- Linear variable displacement transducer (LVDT).
- Full authority digital electronic control (FADEC).
Correct Answer

A. Fuel pump/metering unit (FPMU)

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuel pump/metering unit (FPMU). The FPMU is responsible for sending fuel pressure to the compressor variable geometry (CVG) actuators. This component ensures that the CVG actuators receive the necessary fuel pressure to operate effectively.

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19.

How many turbine vane extenders are welded to the inner circumference of the exhaust nozzle?
- 5
- 7
- 9
- 11
Correct Answer

A. 7

Explanation

There are 7 turbine vane extenders welded to the inner circumference of the exhaust nozzle.

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20.

The diameter of the exhaust nozzle decreases slowly and continuously to
- Increase gas speed and produce thrust.
- Decrease gas speed and produce thrust.
- Increase gas temperature and produce thrust.
- Decrease gas temperature and produce thrust.
Correct Answer

A. Increase gas speed and produce thrust.

Explanation

The diameter of the exhaust nozzle decreases slowly and continuously to increase gas speed and produce thrust. This is because as the diameter of the nozzle decreases, the cross-sectional area decreases, causing the gas to be compressed and accelerated. According to Bernoulli's principle, as the gas velocity increases, the pressure decreases. This pressure difference between the inside and outside of the nozzle creates a net force in the forward direction, resulting in thrust. Therefore, reducing the diameter of the exhaust nozzle helps to increase the gas speed and generate thrust.

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21.

In the event the propeller loses hydraulic pressure, the counterweights installed at the root of each propeller blade would drive the propeller blades toward what position?
- Maximum Reverse
- Ground Idle.
- Take Off.
- Feather.
Correct Answer

A. Feather.

Explanation

When the propeller loses hydraulic pressure, the counterweights at the root of each propeller blade will drive the blades towards the feather position. Feathering refers to the process of aligning the blades with the airflow to minimize drag and prevent windmilling. This position is typically used during engine shutdown or in the event of an engine failure to reduce drag and increase glide distance.

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22.

Which component routes engine oil to and from the cylinder and piston?
- Beta tube.
- Ground beta enable (GBE) valve.
- Power unit accessory drive (PUAD).
- Gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD).
Correct Answer

A. Beta tube.

Explanation

The beta tube is the component that routes engine oil to and from the cylinder and piston.

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23.

The feather valve is located inside what component?
- Pitch control unit (PCU).
- Ground beta enable (GBE) valve.
- Power unit accessory drive (PUAD).
- Gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD).
Correct Answer

A. Pitch control unit (PCU).

Explanation

The feather valve is located inside the Pitch Control Unit (PCU).

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24.

The auxiliary feather pump is located on the right side of the engine behind which component?
- Pitch control unit (PCU).
- Ground beta enable (GBE) valve.
- Power unit accessory drive (PUAD).
- Gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD).
Correct Answer

A. Gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD).

Explanation

The correct answer is GMAD (Gearbox-mounted accessory drive). The auxiliary feather pump is located on the right side of the engine behind the GMAD.

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25.

What component provides blade angle feedback to the full authority digital electronic control (FADEC) by two rotary variable differential transducers?
- Pitch control unit (PCU).
- Ground beta enable (GBE) valve.
- Power unit accessory drive (PUAD).
- Gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD).
Correct Answer

A. Pitch control unit (PCU).

Explanation

The pitch control unit (PCU) provides blade angle feedback to the full authority digital electronic control (FADEC) by two rotary variable differential transducers. The PCU is responsible for controlling the pitch of the blades in a turbine engine, and it communicates the current blade angle to the FADEC using the transducers. This allows the FADEC to make adjustments to the engine's performance based on the blade angle feedback received from the PCU.

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26.

During flight operation, what directs the pitch change unit (PCU) to meter fine and coarse pitch oil to maintain 1,020.7 revolutions per minute (rpm)?
- Rotary variable differential transducers (RVDT).
- Full authority digital electronic control (FADEC).
- Ground beta enable (GBE) valve solenoid.
- Power unit accessory drive (PUAD).
Correct Answer

A. Full authority digital electronic control (FADEC).

Explanation

The correct answer is Full authority digital electronic control (FADEC). FADEC is a system that controls the engine parameters in real-time, including the pitch change unit (PCU). It uses various sensors and inputs to continuously monitor and adjust the engine's RPM. By metering fine and coarse pitch oil, the FADEC ensures that the engine maintains a specific RPM of 1,020.7 revolutions per minute during flight operations. This allows for precise control and optimization of engine performance.

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27.

Which stages of stator vanes does the compressor variable guide (CVG) actuator change angles to assist with engine power control?
- 1 and 2.
- 1 through 3.
- 1 through 4.
- 1 through 5.
Correct Answer

A. 1 through 5.

Explanation

The compressor variable guide (CVG) actuator is responsible for changing the angles of the stator vanes in order to assist with engine power control. This means that it can change the angles of all the stages of stator vanes, from 1 through 5. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 through 5.

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28.

How many torquemeter pickups are mounted on the torquemeter housing?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 2

Explanation

There are two torquemeter pickups mounted on the torquemeter housing.

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29.

As you inspect engine parts, you must understand the various terms that describe defects. Where can you find a list of these terms and their definitions?
- Depot maintenance technical orders (TO).
- Organizational maintenance TOs.
- Intermediate maintenance TOs.
- Inspection workcards.
Correct Answer

A. Intermediate maintenance TOs.

Explanation

Intermediate maintenance TOs (Technical Orders) contain a list of terms and their definitions that describe defects in engine parts. These TOs provide detailed instructions and information for intermediate-level maintenance personnel to perform repairs and inspections on various components. By referring to these TOs, technicians can identify and understand the specific defects and their corresponding terms, allowing them to effectively troubleshoot and fix any issues with the engine parts.

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1
30.

As used in nondestructive testing, which is a discontinuity?
- Flat
- Smooth
- Slippery
- Inclusion
Correct Answer

A. Inclusion

Explanation

In nondestructive testing, an inclusion is considered a discontinuity. An inclusion refers to any foreign material or substance that is present within the material being tested. It can be a particle, gas pocket, or any other type of impurity that is not part of the original material. Inclusions can affect the structural integrity and properties of the material, making them important to identify and evaluate during testing.

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31.

What type of nondestructive testing requires the removal of all paint before testing?
- Fluorescent dye penetrant.
- Eddy current.
- Ultrasonic.
- X-ray.
Correct Answer

A. Fluorescent dye penetrant.

Explanation

Fluorescent dye penetrant testing is a type of nondestructive testing that requires the removal of all paint before testing. This is because the dye penetrant needs to come into direct contact with the surface being tested in order to detect any defects or cracks. The paint would act as a barrier and prevent the dye from effectively penetrating the surface. Therefore, the paint must be removed prior to conducting the fluorescent dye penetrant test.

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32.

Which type of nondestructive testing is limited by the complexity of the part to be tested?
- X-ray.
- Ultrasonic.
- Eddy current.
- Fluorescent dye penetrant.
Correct Answer

A. Ultrasonic.

Explanation

Ultrasonic testing is limited by the complexity of the part to be tested because it relies on the transmission of high-frequency sound waves through the material being tested. If the part has a complex shape or geometry, it can be difficult for the sound waves to penetrate and travel through the entire part, leading to incomplete or inaccurate results. This limitation makes ultrasonic testing less effective for parts with intricate designs or structures.

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33.

Which type of flight inspection is considered a flight preparedness check?
- Periodic.
- Pre-flight.
- Thru-flight.
- End-of-Runway.
Correct Answer

A. Pre-flight.

Explanation

A pre-flight flight inspection is considered a flight preparedness check because it is conducted before each flight to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and operational condition. This inspection includes checking the aircraft's systems, controls, and overall condition to ensure that everything is functioning properly and there are no issues that could affect the safety of the flight. By conducting a pre-flight inspection, pilots and crew can identify any potential problems or maintenance issues that need to be addressed before takeoff, ensuring a safe and smooth flight.

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34.

Which type of inspection is performed at equally spaced intervals as specified in the applicable – 6 technical order (TO)?
- Home station check (HSC).
- Hourly post-flight.
- Periodic.
- Phase.
Correct Answer

A. Hourly post-flight.

Explanation

Hourly post-flight inspections are performed at equally spaced intervals as specified in the applicable technical order (TO). These inspections are conducted after each flight to ensure that the aircraft is in proper working condition and to identify any issues that may have occurred during the flight. This type of inspection is crucial for maintaining the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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35.

Which inspection is a combination of the basic post-flight/hourly post-flight and periodic inspection requirements?
- Minor
- Major
- Phase
- Periodic
Correct Answer

A. Phase

Explanation

A phase inspection is a combination of the basic post-flight/hourly post-flight and periodic inspection requirements. This type of inspection involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's systems, structures, and components to ensure their airworthiness. It includes both routine checks and more in-depth inspections that are conducted at specific intervals, such as every 100 or 500 flight hours. By combining these two types of inspections, a phase inspection helps to ensure that the aircraft is maintained in a safe and reliable condition.

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36.

Which inspection concept translates flying hour utilization rates into calendar periods, usually expressed in days?
- Phased.
- Periodic.
- Isochronal.
- Hourly post-flight.
Correct Answer

A. Isochronal.

Explanation

Isochronal inspections are a type of maintenance inspection that is based on calendar time rather than flying hours. This means that regardless of how many hours an aircraft has flown, it will undergo an isochronal inspection after a certain number of days have passed. This concept allows for consistent and regular maintenance checks, ensuring that the aircraft remains in a safe and operational condition.

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37.

Which inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?
- Phase.
- Special.
- Calendar.
- Acceptance.
Correct Answer

A. Acceptance.

Explanation

Acceptance inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft to ensure that the aircraft meets all the necessary requirements and standards before it is put into service. This inspection includes checking the aircraft's documentation, equipment, systems, and overall condition to ensure its airworthiness and safety. It is a crucial step in the process of introducing a new aircraft into the fleet and is typically conducted by trained inspectors or technicians.

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38.

Which inspection do maintenance personnel conduct after an occurrence of a specific or unusual condition?
- Special.
- Calendar.
- Acceptance.
- Time replacement item.
Correct Answer

A. Special.

Explanation

After an occurrence of a specific or unusual condition, maintenance personnel conduct a special inspection. This type of inspection is necessary to investigate the cause and extent of the condition, as well as to determine the appropriate actions needed for repair or maintenance. Unlike regular inspections, special inspections are conducted in response to specific events or conditions that require immediate attention and thorough examination.

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39.

What is the break in period for evaluating wear in an overhauled gearbox?
- 5 hrs.
- 10 hrs.
- 15 hrs.
- 20 hrs.
Correct Answer

A. 20 hrs.

Explanation

The correct answer is 20 hrs. The break-in period for evaluating wear in an overhauled gearbox is typically 20 hours. During this period, the gearbox is closely monitored for any signs of wear or malfunction. It allows for the proper bedding-in of components and ensures that any potential issues are identified and addressed before the gearbox is put into regular use. This break-in period is crucial for ensuring the longevity and reliability of the overhauled gearbox.

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40.

When should an oil sample on a reciprocating engine be taken?
- Prior to draining the oil tank.
- Prior to the addition of new oil.
- At the next scheduled inspection.
- Within 30 minutes of engine shutdown.
Correct Answer

A. Prior to the addition of new oil.

Explanation

An oil sample on a reciprocating engine should be taken prior to the addition of new oil. This is because the oil sample can provide important information about the engine's condition, such as the presence of contaminants or excessive wear. By taking the sample before adding new oil, any potential issues can be identified and addressed before further damage occurs. This helps to ensure the engine's optimal performance and longevity.

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41.

What system collects the information provided by different engine reporting systems and stores it in a central database?
- Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS).
- Data Transfer and Diagnostic System (DTADS).
- Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS).
- Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS).
Correct Answer

A. Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS).

Explanation

The Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) is the system that collects information from different engine reporting systems and stores it in a central database. This system is responsible for managing and monitoring the performance of the engine, collecting data on various parameters, and analyzing it to ensure optimal engine performance and maintenance. It allows for centralized data storage and analysis, making it easier to track and address any issues or maintenance needs.

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42.

The key to making the Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) work is
- Accurate data at the lowest level.
- Accurate data at the highest level.
- Availability of engines and their parts.
- Availability of a storage and analysis computer.
Correct Answer

A. Accurate data at the lowest level.

Explanation

The correct answer is accurate data at the lowest level. This means that for the Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) to function effectively, it requires precise and reliable data at the most detailed level. This suggests that the system relies on accurate information about various engine components, sensors, and measurements to make informed decisions and optimize engine performance. Having accurate data at the lowest level ensures that the system can monitor and control the engine effectively, leading to improved efficiency and performance.

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43.

What gives you a visual picture of how the system and components relate to one another?
- Tables.
- Pictures.
- Diagrams.
- Schematics.
Correct Answer

A. Schematics.

Explanation

Schematics provide a visual representation of how the system and its components are interconnected and relate to one another. They use symbols and lines to illustrate the connections, allowing for a clear understanding of the system's structure and functionality. Tables, pictures, and diagrams may also provide visual information, but schematics specifically focus on illustrating the relationships between components in a system.

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44.

The systematic maintenance approach used to save time and prevent costly mistakes is called
- Preventive diagnostics.
- Preventive maintenance.
- Effective troubleshooting.
- Effective utilization of equipment.
Correct Answer

A. Effective troubleshooting.

Explanation

Effective troubleshooting is the systematic maintenance approach used to save time and prevent costly mistakes. It involves identifying and resolving issues in a timely and efficient manner, minimizing downtime and maximizing productivity. By effectively troubleshooting equipment or systems, potential problems can be addressed before they escalate into more significant and costly issues. This approach focuses on proactive measures to prevent breakdowns and optimize the performance of equipment.

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45.

When you are troubleshooting, the best reason for being familiar with the construction, maintenance, and operation of engine systems is to
- Make removal of components easier.
- Ensure a good component is never replaced.
- Know the relationship of one unit to another.
- Document the malfunction for later historical use.
Correct Answer

A. Know the relationship of one unit to another.

Explanation

Being familiar with the construction, maintenance, and operation of engine systems is important in troubleshooting because it allows you to understand the relationship between different units. This knowledge helps in identifying the root cause of a malfunction by tracing how one unit's operation can affect another. It enables you to make accurate diagnoses and take appropriate actions to resolve the issue effectively.

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46.

If there is a drop in auxiliary power unit (APU) bleed air pressure or a rise in turbine inlet temperature (TIT) on another engine when the start switch is depressed, you know
- Air is reaching the starter.
- The starter control valve is not opening.
- The air portion of the start system is working.
- The electrical portion of the system is working.
Correct Answer

A. Air is reaching the starter.

Explanation

When there is a drop in auxiliary power unit (APU) bleed air pressure or a rise in turbine inlet temperature (TIT) on another engine when the start switch is depressed, it indicates that air is reaching the starter. This suggests that the air portion of the start system is working properly, as the air is able to reach the starter. The other options can be ruled out because they do not explain the observed changes in APU bleed air pressure or turbine inlet temperature.

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47.

What will the temperature datum (TD) valve do if there is an open circuit between the coordinator and the TD amplifier?
- Go to full “put.”
- Go to full “take.”
- “Take” 0 percent.
- “Take” 10 percent.
Correct Answer

A. Go to full “take.”

Explanation

If there is an open circuit between the coordinator and the TD amplifier, it means that there is no electrical connection between the two. In this case, the temperature datum (TD) valve will go to full "take." This means that the valve will fully open in order to allow the maximum amount of temperature control fluid to flow, as there is no signal or control coming from the coordinator.

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48.

Compressor blade failure usually occurs near the
- Mid-span of the blade.
- Platform of the blade.
- root of the blade.
- tip of the blade.
Correct Answer

A. root of the blade.

Explanation

Compressor blade failure usually occurs near the root of the blade because this is the area where the blade is subjected to the highest stress levels. The root of the blade is where it is attached to the rotor or disk, and it experiences significant centrifugal forces and bending moments during operation. These forces can lead to fatigue and stress concentration, making the root of the blade more susceptible to failure compared to other areas such as the mid-span or tip.

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49.

Bearing failure from moisture, lack of protective oils, improper handling, and improper storage could cause
- Corrosion pitting.
- Fatigue pitting.
- Brinelling.
- Skidding.
Correct Answer

A. Corrosion pitting.

Explanation

Corrosion pitting occurs when moisture, lack of protective oils, improper handling, and improper storage lead to the degradation of the bearing surface. This degradation results in localized areas of corrosion, which can cause small pits or craters on the surface of the bearing. Fatigue pitting, on the other hand, is caused by repeated stress cycles and is not related to moisture or improper handling. Brinelling refers to permanent indentation caused by excessive load or impact, while skidding refers to sliding motion between the bearing and its mating surface.

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Current Version
Mar 19, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Oct 28, 2015

Quiz Created by
Cpetersohn

CDC 2A651H Volume 4

What component provides the mounting pad for the bottom surface of the AE2100D3 air inlet housing?

Quiz Preview

What type of compressor rotor assembly is used on the AE2100D3 engine?

How many fuel nozzles are in the AE2100D3 engine?

The AE2100D3 gearbox-mounted accessory drive (GMAD) supplies the pads and drives for the AC generator, hydraulic pump, propeller gearbox (PGB) lube and scavenge pump, propeller overspeed governor (OSG) and high-pressure pump, and the

The AE2100D3 starter control valve is spring-loaded to what position?

How is the AE2100D3 starter control valve actuated?

From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power?

What component monitors the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?

How many sparks per second can the AE2100D3 ignition exciters produce?

Approximately how many gallons per minute (GPM) does the AE2100D3 power unit accessory drive (PUAD) lube and scavenge pump provide at engine takeoff power?

The purpose of the AE2100D3 oil cooler flap is to vary the airflow through the oil cooler to maintain an engine oil temperature of

The advisory, caution, and warning system (ACAWS) message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below

At what pressure differential is the AE2100D3 fuel flow relief valve fully open?

What supplies the AE2100D3 full authority digital electronic control (FADEC) with power until engine revolutions per minute (rpm) is sufficient for the alternator stator to take control?

The AE2100D3 fuel temperature switch operates if the fuel temperature from the fuel output of the fuel-cooled oil cooler (FCOC) decreases to less than

What component is controlled by the AE2100D3 full authority digital electronic control (FADEC) through the ENGINE START switch for normal engine shutdown or by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown?

The purpose of the compressor control system is to keep

With engines running, what component sends fuel pressure to the compressor variable geometry (CVG) actuators?

How many turbine vane extenders are welded to the inner circumference of the exhaust nozzle?

The diameter of the exhaust nozzle decreases slowly and continuously to

In the event the propeller loses hydraulic pressure, the counterweights installed at the root of each propeller blade would drive the propeller blades toward what position?

Which component routes engine oil to and from the cylinder and piston?

The feather valve is located inside what component?

The auxiliary feather pump is located on the right side of the engine behind which component?

What component provides blade angle feedback to the full authority digital electronic control (FADEC) by two rotary variable differential transducers?

During flight operation, what directs the pitch change unit (PCU) to meter fine and coarse pitch oil to maintain 1,020.7 revolutions per minute (rpm)?

Which stages of stator vanes does the compressor variable guide (CVG) actuator change angles to assist with engine power control?

How many torquemeter pickups are mounted on the torquemeter housing?

As you inspect engine parts, you must understand the various terms that describe defects. Where can you find a list of these terms and their definitions?

As used in nondestructive testing, which is a discontinuity?

What type of nondestructive testing requires the removal of all paint before testing?

Which type of nondestructive testing is limited by the complexity of the part to be tested?

Which type of flight inspection is considered a flight preparedness check?

Which type of inspection is performed at equally spaced intervals as specified in the applicable – 6 technical order (TO)?

Which inspection is a combination of the basic post-flight/hourly post-flight and periodic inspection requirements?

Which inspection concept translates flying hour utilization rates into calendar periods, usually expressed in days?

Which inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?

Which inspection do maintenance personnel conduct after an occurrence of a specific or unusual condition?

What is the break in period for evaluating wear in an overhauled gearbox?

When should an oil sample on a reciprocating engine be taken?

What system collects the information provided by different engine reporting systems and stores it in a central database?

The key to making the Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) work is

What gives you a visual picture of how the system and components relate to one another?

The systematic maintenance approach used to save time and prevent costly mistakes is called

When you are troubleshooting, the best reason for being familiar with the construction, maintenance, and operation of engine systems is to

If there is a drop in auxiliary power unit (APU) bleed air pressure or a rise in turbine inlet temperature (TIT) on another engine when the start switch is depressed, you know

What will the temperature datum (TD) valve do if there is an open circuit between the coordinator and the TD amplifier?

Compressor blade failure usually occurs near the

Bearing failure from moisture, lack of protective oils, improper handling, and improper storage could cause