CCT4 Study Guide 2011
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A brief study guide outlining the CCT4 definitions and terms. Please enter your Name.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
How many hours per month should be devoted by a champion?
- A.
4 Hours
- B.
10 Hours
- C.
20 Hours
- D.
8 Hours
Correct Answer
C. 20 HoursExplanation
A champion should devote 20 hours per month. This suggests that being a champion requires a significant time commitment. It implies that in order to excel and achieve success, one must dedicate a substantial amount of time and effort to their chosen field or endeavor.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the follwing is NOT a reasonable expectation for a Champion?
- A.
Meet as often as your schedules permit.
- B.
Drive the student's career Development.
- C.
When providing feedback, be honest, yet tactful.
- D.
Keep Commitments.
Correct Answer
B. Drive the student's career Development.Explanation
The expectation of driving a student's career development is not reasonable for a Champion. A Champion is typically someone who supports and advocates for the success of a student, but they are not responsible for driving their career development. This task is usually the responsibility of the student themselves, with guidance and support from mentors, career counselors, or other professionals in the field. The Champion's role is to provide encouragement, guidance, and resources to help the student succeed, but they should not be solely responsible for driving their career development.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Learning oppurtunity that requires the ___________, not the ___________ to be primarly responsible for completing the work order.
- A.
Champion, Student
- B.
Supervisor, Tech
- C.
Tech, Rookie
- D.
Student, Champion
Correct Answer
D. Student, ChampionExplanation
This statement suggests that the learning opportunity requires the "student" to be primarily responsible for completing the work order, rather than the "champion". This implies that the student is being given the opportunity to take the lead and develop their skills and abilities in completing the task, while the champion may be there to provide guidance and support.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Compression / Decompression.
- A.
MPEG
- B.
Digital Components of Video
- C.
CODEC
- D.
TFTP
Correct Answer
C. CODECExplanation
A CODEC stands for "coder-decoder" and is used for compression and decompression of digital data, such as audio or video. It is responsible for encoding the data into a smaller file size for efficient storage or transmission, and then decoding it back to its original format for playback or editing. Therefore, the given correct answer "CODEC" is related to the process of compression and decompression.Rate this question:
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- 5.
MPEG-2 is primarly used for.....
- A.
DVD, CATV, HDTV
- B.
Video CD
- C.
CATV
- D.
Internet Streaming, Interactive TV
Correct Answer
A. DVD, CATV, HDTVExplanation
MPEG-2 is primarily used for DVD, CATV, and HDTV. This video compression standard is commonly used for storing and transmitting high-quality video content on DVDs. It is also widely used in cable television (CATV) systems to deliver digital television signals. Additionally, MPEG-2 is the standard format for broadcasting high-definition television (HDTV) signals, ensuring efficient transmission and playback of high-quality video on HDTV devices.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How many pictures are in a normal video sequence?
- A.
4
- B.
8
- C.
12
- D.
16
Correct Answer
C. 12Explanation
A normal video sequence typically consists of 24 frames per second (fps). Therefore, if we multiply the number of frames per second by the duration of the video in seconds, we can determine the total number of pictures in the sequence. Assuming the video is 0.5 seconds long, the total number of pictures would be 24 fps * 0.5 seconds = 12 pictures.Rate this question:
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- 7.
___________________ use both past and subsequent pictures to calculate the compressed picture data.
- A.
Frames (12 Pictures)
- B.
Predictive Pictures (P-Pictures)
- C.
Bi-Directional Pictures (B-Pictures)
- D.
Single Pictures (I-Picture)
Correct Answer
C. Bi-Directional Pictures (B-Pictures)Explanation
Bi-Directional Pictures (B-Pictures) use both past and subsequent pictures to calculate the compressed picture data. B-Pictures are a type of video compression technique that relies on motion compensation to reduce the amount of data needed to represent a video frame. By using information from both past and future frames, B-Pictures can accurately predict the motion of objects in the video and only encode the differences between frames. This helps to achieve higher compression ratios and reduce the overall file size of the video.Rate this question:
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- 8.
___________ defines a cryptographic protocol for protecting audio and video content from illegal copying.
- A.
DTCP
- B.
DPCT
- C.
ACPD
- D.
ACP
Correct Answer
A. DTCPExplanation
DTCP (Digital Transmission Content Protection) is a cryptographic protocol that is used to protect audio and video content from illegal copying. It ensures that the content being transmitted or streamed is encrypted and cannot be easily intercepted or copied without proper authorization. DTCP provides a secure communication channel between devices, such as TVs, set-top boxes, and other multimedia devices, to prevent unauthorized access and copying of copyrighted content. By implementing DTCP, content creators and distributors can protect their intellectual property and prevent piracy.Rate this question:
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- 9.
___________ prevents or distorts copies over an analog connection between a source player and a DVD recorder, DVR, PC, or VCR.
- A.
CA - Conditional Access
- B.
DTCP - Digital Transmission Content Protection
- C.
Macrovision
- D.
ACP - Analog Copying and Piracy
Correct Answer
D. ACP - Analog Copying and PiracyExplanation
ACP, which stands for Analog Copying and Piracy, prevents or distorts copies over an analog connection between a source player and a DVD recorder, DVR, PC, or VCR. This means that if ACP is enabled, it will make it difficult or impossible to make unauthorized copies of analog content, thus preventing piracy and unauthorized distribution of copyrighted material.Rate this question:
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- 10.
MPEG is superior to other CODEC's because......
- A.
It is easier to transmit.
- B.
It provides better quality with more compression.
- C.
Works better with DTCP.
- D.
Can fit more frames in a single sequence.
Correct Answer
B. It provides better quality with more compression.Explanation
MPEG is superior to other CODECs because it provides better quality with more compression. This means that it can compress video files to a smaller size while still maintaining a high level of quality. This is important for various applications, such as streaming videos over the internet or storing videos on limited storage devices. By providing better quality with more compression, MPEG allows for efficient transmission and storage of video content.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A wireless network begins with an ___________.
- A.
Work order
- B.
Technician
- C.
Switch
- D.
Access Point
Correct Answer
D. Access PointExplanation
A wireless network begins with an Access Point. An Access Point is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network. It acts as a central hub for communication, transmitting and receiving data between wireless devices and the network. Without an Access Point, wireless devices would not be able to connect to the network and access the internet or other network resources. Therefore, an Access Point is essential for establishing a wireless network.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What wireless standards has an operating range of 100-150ft.
- A.
G & A
- B.
N & B
- C.
B & G
- D.
A & N
Correct Answer
C. B & GExplanation
The wireless standards that have an operating range of 100-150ft are B & G.Rate this question:
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- 13.
If two AP's reply to the probe, the device will use whichever has the __________ signal.
- A.
Weakest
- B.
Closest
- C.
Encrypted
- D.
Strongest
Correct Answer
D. StrongestExplanation
If two access points (APs) reply to the probe, the device will use whichever AP has the strongest signal. This means that the device will connect to the AP that provides the strongest and most reliable signal strength, ensuring a stable and efficient connection.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Wireless connection speeds.
- A.
1-10mbps
- B.
11-52mbps
- C.
11-54mbps
- D.
100-101mbps
Correct Answer
C. 11-54mbpsExplanation
The correct answer is 11-54mbps. This range represents the wireless connection speeds that are commonly available. Mbps stands for megabits per second, which is a measure of data transfer speed. The range of 11-54mbps indicates that the wireless connection can provide speeds between 11 and 54 megabits per second. This range is typical for Wi-Fi connections using the 802.11b/g/n standards, which are commonly used in homes and offices.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Four actions of a virus.
- A.
Camouflage, Republican, Event Watching, Delivery
- B.
Delivery, Event Writing, Replication, Camouflage
- C.
Event Watching, Replication, Camouflage, Delivery
- D.
Derive, Camouflage, Event Watching, Represent
Correct Answer
C. Event Watching, Replication, Camouflage, DeliveryExplanation
A virus performs four actions: Event Watching, Replication, Camouflage, and Delivery. Event Watching refers to the virus monitoring the system for specific events or triggers. Replication involves the virus making copies of itself to spread and infect other systems. Camouflage is the act of the virus disguising itself to avoid detection by antivirus software or other security measures. Delivery refers to the virus being transmitted or introduced into a system, typically through infected files or downloads.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The virus inserts copies of itself into other program files.
- A.
Delivery
- B.
Camouflage
- C.
Event Watching
- D.
Replication
Correct Answer
D. ReplicationExplanation
The correct answer is "Replication" because it accurately describes the behavior of the virus inserting copies of itself into other program files. Replication refers to the ability of a virus or malware to reproduce and spread, often by infecting other files or systems. In this case, the virus is replicating itself by inserting copies of its code into other program files, allowing it to spread and potentially infect more systems.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When triggering condition is met, the virus unleashes its payload.
- A.
Delivery
- B.
Event Watching
- C.
Replication
- D.
Camouflage
Correct Answer
A. DeliveryExplanation
When the triggering condition is met, the virus releases its payload, which refers to the malicious code or actions that the virus carries out. This payload can include various harmful activities such as deleting files, stealing data, or spreading the virus to other systems. Therefore, the correct answer is "Delivery" as it accurately describes the process of the virus transmitting its payload to the targeted system or device.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Each time the virus replicates itself, it creates a different fake code to break up its signature.
- A.
Event Watching
- B.
Replication
- C.
Camouflage
- D.
Delivery
Correct Answer
C. CamouflageExplanation
The correct answer is camouflage. The explanation for this is that the virus creates a different fake code each time it replicates itself in order to break up its signature. This means that the virus is disguising itself or hiding its true identity by constantly changing its code, making it difficult for detection and identification.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Packet Filtering, Proxy, and Sateful Alerts are features of a __________.
- A.
Router
- B.
Firewall
- C.
Switch
- D.
Modem
Correct Answer
B. FirewallExplanation
Packet Filtering, Proxy, and Stateful Alerts are features commonly associated with firewalls. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. Packet filtering allows the firewall to examine each packet of data and decide whether to allow or block it based on specific criteria. Proxies act as intermediaries between clients and servers, enhancing security and performance. Stateful alerts enable the firewall to track the state of network connections and generate alerts if any suspicious activity is detected. Therefore, the correct answer is Firewall.Rate this question:
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- 20.
According to the HSI installations task list, what do you do after checking peripheals?
- A.
Network Connections
- B.
Perform a cold boot
- C.
Perform drop cable checks
- D.
Check for minimum requirements
Correct Answer
D. Check for minimum requirementsExplanation
After checking peripherals, the next step according to the HSI installations task list is to check for minimum requirements. This involves ensuring that all the necessary specifications and conditions are met in order to proceed with the installation process. This step is crucial to ensure that the system is compatible and capable of supporting the required functions and tasks.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What do you do before powering up the EMTA/Gateway.
- A.
Interpret Modem Lights
- B.
Connect RF Signal
- C.
Check for RF Signal leakage
- D.
Reset Mode
Correct Answer
B. Connect RF SignalExplanation
Before powering up the EMTA/Gateway, it is necessary to connect the RF signal. This means ensuring that the device is properly connected to the RF (radio frequency) signal source, such as a cable or satellite connection. Without a proper RF signal connection, the EMTA/Gateway will not be able to receive or transmit data effectively.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is this?
- A.
110 Block
- B.
66 PBX
- C.
66 Block
- D.
Key System
Correct Answer
C. 66 BlockExplanation
A 66 Block is a type of punch-down block used in telecommunications to connect telephone wiring. It consists of rows of terminals where wires are inserted and then punched down to establish connections. This type of block is commonly used in telephone systems to terminate and distribute incoming and outgoing phone lines.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Allows group of phone stations to access common set of phone lines.
- A.
Key System/PBX
- B.
Switch/110 Block
- C.
Gateway/Switch
- D.
Switch/ILEC
Correct Answer
A. Key System/PBXExplanation
A key system/PBX allows a group of phone stations to access a common set of phone lines. This means that multiple users can share a set of phone lines, making it more efficient and cost-effective. A key system/PBX acts as a central hub, managing and routing calls between the phone stations and the phone lines. It provides features such as call forwarding, call transfer, and voicemail, enhancing communication capabilities within the group.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A 110-Block allows for..... (Check all that apply)
- A.
Phone
- B.
Data
- C.
A/C
Correct Answer(s)
A. Phone
B. DataExplanation
A 110-Block allows for the connection and organization of phone and data lines. It is a type of punch-down block that is commonly used in telecommunications and networking to terminate and connect wires. The 110-Block provides a reliable and efficient method for managing phone and data connections, making it a suitable choice for telecommunications infrastructure. However, it does not have any specific functionality related to A/C (air conditioning) systems.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A mushroom spool should have ______ of excess wire.
- A.
1-6 inches
- B.
1-3 feet
- C.
1-6 feet
- D.
1-3 inches
Correct Answer
B. 1-3 feetExplanation
A mushroom spool should have 1-3 feet of excess wire because this allows for flexibility and ease of use when connecting the wire to various devices or outlets. Having a longer length of wire ensures that there is enough slack to reach the desired destination without causing tension or strain on the wire. Additionally, the excess wire provides room for adjustments or repositioning if needed.Rate this question:
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- 26.
POS
- A.
Point of Sale
- B.
Point Over Salad
- C.
Piece of Shoe
- D.
Point of Static
Correct Answer
A. Point of SaleExplanation
The correct answer is "Point of Sale." This refers to the location where a transaction is completed between a buyer and a seller, typically involving the exchange of goods or services for payment. It is commonly used in retail businesses where customers make purchases at a physical store or online.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Output Voltage of an LPSU.
- A.
50WATTS
- B.
48DCV
- C.
48VDC
- D.
50VDC
Correct Answer
C. 48VDCExplanation
The correct answer is 48VDC. This is because the question is asking for the output voltage of an LPSU (Low Power Supply Unit) and the given options include different voltage values. Among these options, 48VDC is the only one that matches the given information.Rate this question:
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- 28.
66 Block - Signal goes in from ________ and out to the ________.
- A.
Top, Bottom
- B.
Left, Right
- C.
Right, Left
- D.
Bottom, Left
Correct Answer
B. Left, RightExplanation
The signal goes in from the left side of the 66 Block and goes out to the right side.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Commercial demarcation is also know as__________.
- A.
Ground Block
- B.
Minimum Point of Entry
- C.
D-MARC.
- D.
ILEC
Correct Answer
B. Minimum Point of EntryExplanation
Commercial demarcation refers to the point where the responsibility for a telecommunications service transfers from the service provider to the customer. It is also known as the Minimum Point of Entry (MPOE), which is the point at which the service enters the customer's premises. This is where the service provider's network terminates and the customer's internal wiring begins. The MPOE is an important demarcation point as it determines the boundary of responsibility for troubleshooting and maintenance between the service provider and the customer.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Connects multiple devices within a LAN.
- A.
Server
- B.
Router
- C.
Gateway
- D.
Switch
Correct Answer
D. SwitchExplanation
A switch is a networking device that connects multiple devices within a Local Area Network (LAN). It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets to the intended destination device. Unlike a router or gateway, a switch does not perform any network address translation or routing functions. Instead, it simply creates a network segment and allows devices to communicate with each other within that segment. Therefore, a switch is the correct answer as it best fulfills the given requirement.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Connects building data wiring to switch.
- A.
EMTA
- B.
Patch Cable
- C.
Patch Bay
- D.
Router
Correct Answer
C. Patch BayExplanation
A patch bay is a piece of equipment that allows for the connection of various audio or data cables. It serves as a central hub where different cables can be plugged in and easily routed to different destinations, such as switches or other devices. In the context of the given question, a patch bay would be used to connect building data wiring to a switch, allowing for the efficient and organized management of the network connections.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A protocol used on the internet for exchanging files.
- A.
FTP
- B.
P2P
- C.
KAZAA
- D.
SPAM
Correct Answer
A. FTPExplanation
FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol, which is a standard network protocol used for transferring files between a client and a server on a computer network. It allows users to upload, download, and manipulate files over the internet. FTP is commonly used by web developers to update websites, by businesses to share files with clients or partners, and by individuals to transfer files between their personal devices and remote servers. It provides a secure and efficient method for exchanging files over the internet.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A temporary IP address is also called a ______________.
- A.
Private IP
- B.
Static IP
- C.
Routable IP
- D.
Invalid IP
Correct Answer
A. Private IPExplanation
A temporary IP address is also called a private IP because it is used within a private network and is not accessible or routable from the internet. Private IP addresses are commonly used in home and office networks to assign unique addresses to devices within the network, allowing them to communicate with each other. These addresses are not globally unique and cannot be used to directly access resources on the internet.Rate this question:
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- 34.
This type of IP is visible to the public.
- A.
Public IP
- B.
Routable IP
- C.
Static IP
- D.
Open IP
Correct Answer
B. Routable IPExplanation
A routable IP refers to an IP address that can be reached and accessed from external networks, such as the internet. It is assigned to a device or network that is connected to the internet and allows communication between different networks. In contrast, a non-routable IP is not directly accessible from the internet and is typically used for internal network purposes. Therefore, a routable IP is the correct answer as it accurately describes an IP address that is visible to the public.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A geogrpahically close set of devices connected to a single network.
- A.
WAN
- B.
DHCP
- C.
Firewall
- D.
LAN
Correct Answer
D. LANExplanation
A LAN (Local Area Network) is a geographically close set of devices connected to a single network. It is a network that covers a small area, typically within a single building or a group of buildings. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments. They allow devices such as computers, printers, and servers to communicate and share resources with each other. Unlike WAN (Wide Area Network), which covers a larger geographical area and connects multiple LANs together, a LAN is limited to a specific location. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) and Firewall are network technologies and services that can be used within a LAN to manage IP addresses and provide security, respectively.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A geogrpahically far set of devices connected to a network.
- A.
WAN
- B.
LAN
- C.
FTP
- D.
FQDN
Correct Answer
A. WANExplanation
A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a geographically far set of devices connected to a network. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN) which is limited to a small area, a WAN covers a larger geographical area, such as multiple buildings, cities, or even countries. It allows for communication and data transfer between devices over long distances. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name) are not related to the geographical distance of devices connected to a network.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A technique by which several hosts or computers share a single IP address for access to the internet.
- A.
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
- B.
Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)
- C.
Port Address Translation (PAT)
- D.
Network Address Translation (NAT)
Correct Answer
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)Explanation
Network Address Translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple hosts or computers to share a single IP address for accessing the internet. NAT works by translating the private IP addresses of the devices on a local network into a single public IP address that can be recognized and routed on the internet. This allows for more efficient use of IP addresses and helps to secure the internal network by hiding the individual IP addresses of the devices behind the NAT device.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Forwards requests for a paticular IP port pair to another port pair.
- A.
Network Address Translation (NAT)
- B.
Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)
- C.
Port Address Translation (PAT)
- D.
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Correct Answer
C. Port Address Translation (PAT)Explanation
Port Address Translation (PAT) is a technique used in computer networking to translate the source and/or destination IP address and port numbers of packets. In this context, it refers to forwarding requests for a particular IP port pair to another port pair. PAT allows multiple devices on a network to share a single public IP address by assigning different port numbers to each device. This helps conserve IPv4 addresses and enables communication between devices on a private network and the internet.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Sort from lowest value to highest value.
- A.
Broadcast IP, Gateway IP, Network IP, Routable IP
- B.
Network IP, Routable IP, Gateway IP, Broadcast IP
- C.
Gateway IP, Network IP, Routable IP, Broadcast IP
- D.
Routable IP, Broadcast IP, Network IP, Gateway IP
Correct Answer
B. Network IP, Routable IP, Gateway IP, Broadcast IPExplanation
The correct answer is Network IP, Routable IP, Gateway IP, Broadcast IP. This order is based on the hierarchy of IP addresses. The Network IP is the lowest value as it represents the network address. Routable IP comes next as it refers to the IP address that can be routed on the internet. Gateway IP is higher as it represents the IP address of the network gateway. Broadcast IP is the highest value as it is used to send data to all devices on a network.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Total Number of IP address for a /30
- A.
1
- B.
6
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
D. 4Explanation
A /30 subnet mask is used to allocate a very small range of IP addresses. In this case, a /30 subnet mask provides 4 IP addresses. Out of these 4 addresses, one is reserved as the network address, one is reserved as the broadcast address, leaving only 2 usable IP addresses for devices on the network. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Total number of IP address for a /29
- A.
7
- B.
8
- C.
16
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 8Explanation
A /29 subnet mask allows for 8 IP addresses. This is because a /29 subnet has a block size of 8 (2^3), meaning it can accommodate 8 unique addresses. Out of these 8 addresses, 2 are reserved for network and broadcast addresses, leaving 6 usable addresses for hosts. Therefore, the total number of IP addresses for a /29 subnet is 8.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Total number of IP address for a /28
- A.
17
- B.
18
- C.
16
- D.
13
Correct Answer
C. 16Explanation
The total number of IP addresses for a /28 subnet is 16. A /28 subnet has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, which means that the first 28 bits are used for network identification and the remaining 4 bits are used for host identification. With 4 bits for host identification, we can have 2^4 = 16 possible combinations, which translates to 16 usable IP addresses in the subnet.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Name the subnets for the following : /30, /29, /28
- A.
.252, .249, .240
- B.
.252, .248, .240
- C.
.248, .240, .262
- D.
/29, /28, /30
Correct Answer
B. .252, .248, .240Explanation
The correct answer is ".252, .248, .240" because the given subnets are in descending order of their network sizes. A /30 subnet has 2 usable IP addresses, a /29 subnet has 6 usable IP addresses, and a /28 subnet has 14 usable IP addresses. Therefore, the subnet with the largest network size is .240, followed by .248, and then .252.Rate this question:
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- 44.
VPN
- A.
Virtual Play Now
- B.
Virtual Private News
- C.
Virtual Private Network
- D.
Virtual Plain Network
Correct Answer
C. Virtual Private NetworkExplanation
A VPN, or Virtual Private Network, is a technology that allows users to create a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, such as the internet. It provides a way to access resources and services remotely while maintaining privacy and security. The other options, Virtual Play Now, Virtual Private News, and Virtual Plain Network, do not accurately describe the concept of a VPN.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Call Forward Selective
- A.
*230 / *231
- B.
*63 / *83
- C.
*63 / *73
- D.
*72 / *73
Correct Answer
B. *63 / *83Explanation
The correct answer is *63 / *83. This is because *63 is the code for activating Call Forward Selective, which allows users to forward specific calls to another number. On the other hand, *83 is the code for deactivating Call Forward Selective, which cancels the call forwarding feature. Therefore, *63 and *83 are the appropriate codes for enabling and disabling Call Forward Selective.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Call Forward Variable
- A.
*72 / *73
- B.
*73 / *74
- C.
*232 / *233
- D.
*81
Correct Answer
A. *72 / *73Explanation
The correct answer is *72 / *73.
These are the codes used for call forwarding on a telephone. *72 is used to activate call forwarding, while *73 is used to deactivate it. This means that when you dial *72 followed by a phone number, all incoming calls will be forwarded to that number. Dialing *73 will then disable call forwarding.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Cancel Call Waiting
- A.
*71
- B.
*80
- C.
*70
- D.
*81
Correct Answer
C. *70Explanation
The correct answer is *70. This code is used to cancel call waiting on a telephone line. When call waiting is activated, it allows the user to receive incoming calls while already on a call. However, by dialing *70, the user can disable call waiting and prevent any incoming calls from interrupting the current call.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Speed Dial 8
- A.
*77
- B.
*67
- C.
*74
- D.
*84
Correct Answer
C. *74Explanation
The correct answer is *74 because it is the only option that is related to a speed dial feature. The other options, *77, *67, and *84, do not have any known association with speed dial.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Speed Dial 30
- A.
*74
- B.
*84
- C.
*95
- D.
*75
Correct Answer
D. *75Explanation
The correct answer is *75 because it is the last number listed in the given speed dial sequence.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Call Hold
- A.
*51
- B.
*53
- C.
*52
- D.
*54
Correct Answer
C. *52Explanation
The correct answer is *52 because in telecommunication systems, the code *52 is commonly used to activate the call hold feature. Call hold allows the user to put the current call on hold while they attend to another call or perform other tasks. Therefore, *52 is the correct answer as it corresponds to the call hold function.Rate this question:
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 24, 2011Quiz Created by
WickidK
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