CCA Prep Exam 1 (100 Questions)

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1. The __________ may contain information about diseases among relatives in which heredity may play a role.

Explanation

The history may contain information about diseases among relatives in which heredity may play a role. This is because the history includes details about a person's past medical conditions, family medical history, and any genetic conditions that may be present in the family. By gathering information about the diseases that run in the family, healthcare professionals can better understand the potential hereditary factors that may contribute to a person's current health condition.

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About This Quiz
CCA Quizzes & Trivia

CCA Prep Exam 1 - 100 Questions - Entered 03/12/2012
Domain 1: Health Records and Data Content
Domain 2: Health Information Requirements and Standards
Domain 3: Clinical Classification Systems
Domain 4: Reimbursement... see moreMethodologies
Domain 5: Information and Communication Technologies
Domain 6: Privacy, Confidentiality, Legal, and Ethical Issues
see less

2. What is the name of the formal document prepared by the surgeon at the conclusion of surgery to describe the surgical procedure performed?

Explanation

The formal document prepared by the surgeon at the conclusion of surgery to describe the surgical procedure performed is called the operative report. This report contains detailed information about the procedure, including the patient's preoperative condition, the surgical technique used, any complications encountered, and the surgeon's findings. It serves as a permanent record of the surgery and is important for future reference and medical documentation.

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3. What should a hospital do when a state law requires more stringent privacy protection than the federal HIPAA privacy standard?

Explanation

When a state law requires more stringent privacy protection than the federal HIPAA privacy standard, a hospital should comply with both the state law and the HIPAA standard. This means that the hospital must adhere to the requirements of the state law in order to meet the higher privacy standards set by the state, while still following the baseline privacy protections mandated by HIPAA at the federal level. By complying with both, the hospital ensures that it is meeting the minimum requirements set by HIPAA while also meeting the more stringent requirements set by the state law.

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4. All documentation entered in the medical record relating to the patient's diagnosis and treatment are considered this type of data:

Explanation

All documentation entered in the medical record relating to the patient's diagnosis and treatment are considered clinical data. Clinical data refers to information that is directly related to the patient's medical condition, including symptoms, medical history, test results, treatment plans, and progress notes. This type of data is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about the patient's care and monitor their progress. It is also important for research, quality improvement, and billing purposes.

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5. The technology commonly utilized for automated claims processing (sending bills directly to third-party payers) is ___________.

Explanation

Electronic data interchange (EDI) is the technology commonly utilized for automated claims processing. EDI allows for the electronic exchange of data between different computer systems, making it efficient and accurate for sending bills directly to third-party payers. It eliminates the need for manual data entry and reduces errors and processing time. EDI enables seamless communication and data transfer between healthcare providers and insurance companies, streamlining the claims processing workflow.

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6. The release of information function requires the HIM professional to have knowledge of _______________.

Explanation

The release of information function in healthcare requires HIM professionals to have knowledge of federal and state confidentiality laws. This is because these laws govern the privacy and security of patient information and dictate how it can be shared and disclosed. HIM professionals need to understand these laws to ensure that they are compliant and protect patient confidentiality when releasing information to authorized individuals or entities. This knowledge is crucial in maintaining patient privacy and upholding legal and ethical standards in healthcare.

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7. The coder notes that the physician has prescribed Synthroid for the patient. The coder might find which of the following on the patient's problem list?

Explanation

The coder notes that the physician has prescribed Synthroid for the patient. Synthroid is a medication commonly used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones. Therefore, the coder might find "Hypothyroidism" on the patient's problem list as the reason for prescribing Synthroid.

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8. The HIM director is having difficulty with the on-cal physicians in the emergency services department completing their health records. Currently, three deficiency notices are sent to the physicians including an initial notice, a second reminder, and a final notification. Which of the following would be the best first step in trying to rectify the current situations?

Explanation

The best first step in trying to rectify the current situation would be to consult with the physician in charge of the on-call doctors for suggestions on how to improve response to the current notices. This step allows for open communication and collaboration with the physician who has authority over the on-call doctors. By seeking their input and suggestions, the HIM director can gain valuable insights into the reasons behind the non-compliance and work towards finding effective solutions. This approach promotes teamwork and a proactive approach to resolving the issue.

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9. Which of the following software applications would be used to aid in the coding function in a physician's office?

Explanation

An encoder is a software application that would be used to aid in the coding function in a physician's office. Coding involves assigning specific codes to medical procedures and diagnoses for billing and record-keeping purposes. An encoder helps in accurately assigning the appropriate codes by providing a database of codes and guidelines, allowing the user to search for specific terms or conditions and find the corresponding codes. It helps streamline the coding process and ensures accuracy in medical documentation and billing.

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10. Dr. Smith, a member of the medical staff, asks to see the medical records of his adult daughter who was hospitalized in your institution for a tonsillectomy at age 16. The daughter is now 25. Dr. Jones was the patient's physician. Of the option listed here, what is best course of action?

Explanation

The best course of action is to inform Dr. Smith that he cannot access his daughter's health record without her signed authorization. This is because the daughter is now an adult at the age of 25, and her medical records are protected by patient confidentiality laws. Even though Dr. Smith was her guardian at the time of the tonsillectomy, he no longer has automatic access to her records without her explicit permission. It is important to respect the patient's privacy and follow legal and ethical guidelines regarding the release of medical records.

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11. HIM coding professionals and the orgs that employ them have the responsibility to not tolerate behavior that adversely affects data quality. Which of the following is an example of behavior that should not be tolerated?

Explanation

Assigning codes to an incomplete record goes against the responsibility of HIM coding professionals and the organizations that employ them to maintain data quality. It is important to ensure that codes are reviewed after the records are complete to accurately capture the diagnoses and procedures. By assigning codes to incomplete records, there is a risk of coding errors and inaccuracies, which can adversely affect data quality. Therefore, this behavior should not be tolerated.

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12. A hospital HIM department wants to purchase an electronic system that records the location of health records removed from the filing system and documents the date of their return to the HIM departments. Which of the following electronic systems would fullfill this purpose?

Explanation

A chart tracking system would fulfill the purpose of recording the location of health records removed from the filing system and documenting the date of their return to the HIM department. This system would allow the hospital HIM department to keep track of the movement of health records, ensuring their proper management and retrieval. It would provide a digital record of when and where each record is taken, allowing for efficient tracking and monitoring of the records' whereabouts.

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13. An electrolyte panel (80051) in the laboratory section of CPT consists of tests for carbon dioxide (82374), chloride (82435), potassium (84132), and sodium (84295). If each of the component codes are reported and billed individually on a claim form, this would be a form of:

Explanation

Unbundling refers to the practice of reporting and billing individual component codes separately, instead of grouping them together as a panel. In this case, if the electrolyte panel is reported and billed by reporting and billing each component code individually, it would be considered as unbundling.

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14. The physician orders a chest x-ray for a patient who presents at the office with fever, productive cough, a shortness of breath. The physician indicates in the progress notes: "Ruled out pneumonia" What diagnosis (es) should be coded for the visit when the results have not yet been received?

Explanation

The physician has indicated in the progress notes that pneumonia has been ruled out. Therefore, it would not be appropriate to code for pneumonia as a diagnosis for the visit. However, the patient is presenting with symptoms of fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath. These symptoms should be coded as the diagnosis for the visit, as the results of the chest x-ray have not yet been received.

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15. Which term describes the linking of every procedure or service received by a patient to a diagnosis that justifies the need to performing the service?

Explanation

Medical necessity refers to the requirement that every procedure or service received by a patient must be linked to a diagnosis that justifies the need for performing the service. This ensures that medical treatments and services are provided based on the patient's medical condition and are deemed necessary for their health and well-being. It helps prevent unnecessary or inappropriate medical interventions and ensures that healthcare resources are used efficiently and effectively.

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16. A health record with deficiencies that is not complete within the timeframe specified in the medical staff rules and regulations is called a(n) _____________ .

Explanation

A health record with deficiencies that is not complete within the timeframe specified in the medical staff rules and regulations is called a delinquent record. This means that the record has not been properly completed or updated within the required timeframe, and may be considered incomplete or non-compliant with the regulations.

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17. This document includes a microscopic description of tissue excised during surgery:

Explanation

A pathology report is the most likely document to include a microscopic description of tissue excised during surgery. Pathologists analyze tissue samples under a microscope to identify any abnormalities or diseases. The report provides detailed information about the tissue, including its cellular composition, presence of any tumors or lesions, and any other relevant findings. This information is crucial for diagnosing and treating patients, as well as monitoring their progress post-surgery. The recovery room record, operative report, and discharge summary may contain important information about the patient's condition and the surgical procedure, but they are unlikely to provide a microscopic description of the excised tissue.

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18. A 65-year-old white male was aditted to the hospital on 1/15 complaining of abdominal pain. The Attending physician requested an upper GI series and laboratory evaluation of CBC and UA. The x-ray revealed possible cholelithiasis and the UA showed an increased white blood cell count. The patient was taken to surgery for an exploratory laparoscopy and ruptured appendix was discovered. The chief complaint was:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Abdominal pain" because the patient's chief complaint upon admission to the hospital was abdominal pain. The other options (ruptured appendix, exploratory laparoscopy, cholelithiasis) are findings or procedures that were discovered or performed as a result of the patient's abdominal pain.

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19. Standardizing medical terminology to avoid differences in naming various medical conditions and procedures (such as the synonyms bunionectomy, McBride procedure, and repair of hallus valgus) is one purpose of __________.

Explanation

Vocabulary standards are used to standardize medical terminology to avoid differences in naming various medical conditions and procedures. This helps to ensure that healthcare professionals and systems use consistent and standardized terms, preventing confusion and miscommunication. By using vocabulary standards, healthcare information can be easily shared and understood across different healthcare settings and systems.

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20. A family practitioner requests the opinion of a physician specialist in endocrinology who reviews the patient's health record and examines the patient. The physician specialist would record findings, impressions, and recommendations in which type of report?

Explanation

The physician specialist would record findings, impressions, and recommendations in a consultation report. This type of report is typically used when a healthcare provider seeks the opinion or advice of another specialist in order to assist in the diagnosis or treatment of a patient. In this case, the family practitioner is seeking the opinion of the endocrinologist, who will review the patient's health record and examine the patient before documenting their findings and recommendations in a consultation report.

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21. There are several codes to describe a colonoscopy. CPT code 45378 describes the most basic colonoscopy without additional services. Additional codes in the colonoscopy section of CPT further defines removal of foreign body (45379) and bipsy, single or multiple (45380) and others. Reporting the basic form of a colonoscopy (45378) with a foreign body (45379) or biopsy code (45380) would violate which rule?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Unbundling". Unbundling refers to the practice of reporting multiple codes for separate components of a procedure that should be reported as a single code. In this case, reporting the basic form of a colonoscopy (45378) along with a separate code for removal of a foreign body (45379) or biopsy (45380) would be considered unbundling, as these services are already included in the basic colonoscopy code.

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22. What did the Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services develop to promote national correct coding methodologies and to control improper coding leading to inappropriate payment in Part B claims?

Explanation

The Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services developed the National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) to promote national correct coding methodologies and to control improper coding leading to inappropriate payment in Part B claims. NCCI is a set of coding edits that identify pairs of codes that should not be reported together in certain circumstances. These edits help ensure that medical services are coded accurately and that payments are made appropriately based on the services provided.

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23. The Medical Record Committee is reviewing the privacy policies for a large outpatient clinic. One of the members of the committee remarks that he feels the clinic's practice of calling out a patient's full name in the waiting room is not in compliance with HIPAA regulations and that only the patient's first name should be used. Other committee members disagree with this assessment. What should the HIM director advise the committee?

Explanation

The HIM director should advise the committee that there is no HIPAA violation for announcing a patient's name in a waiting room. However, the committee may want to consider implementing practices that could reduce this practice in order to prioritize patient privacy and confidentiality.

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24. Which of the following is not a function of the discharge summary?

Explanation

The discharge summary serves multiple functions, such as ensuring the continuity of future care, providing concise information for information requests, and supporting the activities of the medical staff review committee. However, it does not typically include information about the patient's insurance coverage. This information is usually handled separately by the billing or insurance department.

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25. Ensuring the continuity of future care by providing information to the patient's attending physician, referring physician, and any consulting physicians is a function of the:

Explanation

A discharge summary is a document that contains important information about a patient's hospital stay, including their medical history, diagnosis, treatment plan, and any follow-up care needed. It is typically sent to the patient's attending physician, referring physician, and any consulting physicians to ensure continuity of care. This allows the receiving healthcare providers to have a comprehensive understanding of the patient's condition and treatment, enabling them to provide appropriate and effective care in the future.

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26. Which part of the problem-oriented medical record is used by many facilities that have not adopted the whole problem-oriented format?

Explanation

Many facilities that have not adopted the whole problem-oriented format still use the SOAP form of progress notes. SOAP stands for Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan, which is a structured format for documenting patient information. This format allows healthcare providers to organize and communicate patient data effectively, making it a commonly used part of the problem-oriented medical record even in facilities that have not fully adopted the entire format.

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27. Mildred Smith was admitted from an acute hospital to a nursing facility with the following information: "Patient is being admitted for Organic Brain Syndrome".  Underneath the diagnosis was listed her medical information along with her rehabilitation potential. On which form is this information documented.

Explanation

Transfer or referral - document between care givers in multiple healthcare setting

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28. How do accrediation organizations such as the Join Commission use the health record?

Explanation

Accreditation organizations like the Joint Commission use health records to determine whether standards of care are being met. By reviewing the documentation in the health records, these organizations can assess if healthcare providers are following the established standards and guidelines for patient care. This helps ensure that patients are receiving the quality of care they deserve and that healthcare facilities are meeting the necessary requirements for accreditation.

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29. Bob Smith was admitted to Mercy Hospital on June 21. The physical was completed on June 23. According to Joint Commission standards, which statement applies to this situation?

Explanation

According to Joint Commission standards, the physical exam must be completed within 24 hours of admission. In this situation, the physical exam was completed on June 23, which is more than 24 hours after Bob Smith was admitted on June 21. Therefore, the record is not in compliance with the standards.

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30. According to the Joint Commission Accreditation Standards, which document must be placed in the patient's record before a surgical procedure may be performed?

Explanation

According to the Joint Commission Accreditation Standards, the report of history and physical examination must be placed in the patient's record before a surgical procedure may be performed. This document provides crucial information about the patient's medical history, current condition, and any potential risks or complications that may arise during the surgery. It helps the surgical team make informed decisions and ensures that the patient receives appropriate and safe care.

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31. In the laboratory section of CPT, if a group of tests overlaps two or more panels, report the panel that incorporate the greater number of tests to fulfill the code definition. What would a coder do with the remaining test codes that are not part of the panel?

Explanation

If a group of tests in the laboratory section of CPT overlaps two or more panels, the coder would report the panel that incorporates the greater number of tests to fulfill the code definition. However, the remaining test codes that are not part of the panel should still be reported using individual test codes according to CPT guidelines. Therefore, the correct answer is to report the remaining tests using individual test codes according to CPT.

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32. What does audit trail check for?

Explanation

Audit trails are used to track and record all activities and events within a system. They provide a detailed log of user actions, such as login attempts, file access, and system changes. By checking for unauthorized access to a system, the audit trail helps to identify any potential security breaches or unauthorized activities. It helps in ensuring the integrity and security of the system by monitoring and detecting any unauthorized access attempts.

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33. What types of covered entity health records are subject to HIPAA privacy regulations?

Explanation

HIPAA privacy regulations apply to health records in any format. This means that whether the health records are in paper or electronic format, they are subject to the regulations. This ensures that the privacy and security of individuals' health information is protected, regardless of the medium in which it is stored or transmitted.

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34. The coder notes that the physician has ordered potassium replacement for the patient. The coder might expect to see a diagnosis of:

Explanation

The coder notes that the physician has ordered potassium replacement for the patient. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. The physician's order for potassium replacement suggests that the patient may have hypokalemia and requires additional potassium to correct the deficiency.

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35. A patient requests copies of her personal health information on CD. When the patient goes home, she finds that she cannot read the CD on her computer. The patient requests the hospital provide the medical records in paper format. How should the hospital respond?

Explanation

The hospital should respond by providing the medical records in paper format. This is because the patient requested the records in this format after finding that she cannot read the CD on her computer.

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36. While the focus of inpatient data collection is on the principal diagnosis, the focus of outpatient data collection is on __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Reason for encounter". Inpatient data collection primarily focuses on the principal diagnosis, which refers to the main reason for a patient's hospitalization. On the other hand, outpatient data collection emphasizes the reason for encounter, which refers to the primary purpose of a patient's visit to a healthcare facility. This can include routine check-ups, consultations, or treatment for specific symptoms or conditions. Therefore, the focus of outpatient data collection is on the reason for the encounter rather than the reason for admission or discharge diagnosis.

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37. A hospital receives a valid request from a patient for copies of her medical records. The HIM clerk who is preparing the records removes copies of the patient's records from another hospital where the patient was previouosly treated. According to HIPAA regulations, was this action correct?

Explanation

According to HIPAA regulations, the records from the previous hospital are considered part of the designated record set and should be given to the patient. This means that the HIM clerk's action of removing those records from another hospital without providing them to the patient was incorrect. HIPAA requires the release of all relevant medical records to the patient upon request, including records from previous healthcare providers.

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38. What is the best reference tool to receive ICD-9-CM coding advice?

Explanation

The best reference tool to receive ICD-9-CM coding advice is AHA's Coding Clinic for ICD-9-CM. This resource specifically focuses on providing guidance and advice for ICD-9-CM coding. AMA's CPT Assistant primarily provides guidance for Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) coding, AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS focuses on Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) coding, and the National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) provides guidance on correct coding practices in general. Therefore, AHA's Coding Clinic for ICD-9-CM is the most appropriate tool for ICD-9-CM coding advice.

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39. Coronary arteriography serves as a diagnostic tool in detecting obstruction within the coronary arteries. Identify the tachnique using two catheters inserted percutaneously through the femoral artery.

Explanation

Judkins (88.56) is the correct answer because it refers to a technique in coronary arteriography where two catheters are inserted percutaneously through the femoral artery. This technique allows for the visualization and detection of obstructions within both the right and left coronary arteries. The other options listed, such as Combined right and left (88.54), Stones (88.55), and Other and unspecified (88.57), do not specifically describe the technique of using two catheters inserted through the femoral artery.

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40. Before healthcare organizations can provide services, they usually must obtain ________ by government entities such as the state in which they are located.

Explanation

Healthcare organizations must obtain licensure from government entities such as the state in which they are located before they can provide services. Licensure ensures that the organization meets specific standards and regulations set by the government to protect the health and safety of patients. It also ensures that the organization has the necessary qualifications and resources to provide quality healthcare services. Accreditation and certification are similar processes but are usually voluntary and focus on meeting specific industry standards, while licensure is a legal requirement for operating as a healthcare organization. Permission is a general term that does not specifically indicate the legal authorization required for healthcare services.

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41. The right of an individual to keep information about himself or herself from being disclosed to anyone is a definition of:

Explanation

Privacy refers to the right of an individual to keep their personal information confidential and prevent it from being disclosed to others. It involves maintaining control over personal data and ensuring that it is protected from unauthorized access or use. Privacy is essential in maintaining trust and autonomy, allowing individuals to have control over their own personal information and make decisions about how it is shared or used. It is a fundamental right that is protected by laws and regulations in many jurisdictions.

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42. A software interface is a ___________.

Explanation

A software interface refers to a program that facilitates the exchange of data between different software systems. It acts as a bridge, enabling communication and data transfer between various applications or components. This allows different software programs to interact and share information seamlessly, enhancing interoperability and functionality.

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43. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code(s) and procedure code(s) for the following: term pregnancy with failure of cervical dilation; lower uterine segment Cesarean delivery with single live-born female.

Explanation

The correct answer is 661.01, V27.0, 74.1. This answer includes the appropriate ICD-9-CM diagnostic code (661.01) for term pregnancy with failure of cervical dilation, the procedure code (74.1) for lower uterine segment Cesarean delivery, and the V-code (V27.0) for the single live-born female.

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44. To comply with Joint Commission standards, the HIM director wants to ensure that history and physical examinations are documented in the patient's health  record no later than 24 hours after amission.  Which of the following would by the best way to ensure the completeness of health records?

Explanation

Reviewing each patient's medical report concurrently to make sure history and physical examinations are present and meet the accreditation standards would be the best way to ensure the completeness of health records. This approach ensures that the documentation is reviewed in a timely manner, within 24 hours of admission, and allows for any necessary corrections or additions to be made promptly. It also ensures that the documentation meets the accreditation standards set by the Joint Commission, ensuring compliance with their requirements.

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45. Identify the ICD-9-CM dx code for blighted ovum

Explanation

The correct answer is 631. A blighted ovum is a type of early pregnancy loss where a fertilized egg implants in the uterus but does not develop into an embryo. In medical coding, the ICD-9-CM dx code 631 is used to identify blighted ovum.

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46. Identify the ICD-9-CM code(s) for infected ingrown nail.

Explanation

The correct answer is 703.0. This code represents an infected ingrown nail according to the ICD-9-CM coding system.

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47. Which of the following is the correct ICD-9-CM code(s) for laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

Explanation

The correct ICD-9-CM code for laparoscopic cholecystectomy is 51.23. This code specifically represents the laparoscopic removal of the gallbladder. The other options either include additional procedures or do not accurately represent the laparoscopic approach.

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48. Medical record completion compliance is a problem at Community Hospital. The number of incomplete charts often exceed the standard set by the Joint Commission, risking a type I violation. Previous HIM committee chairpersons tried multiple methods to improve compliance, including suspension of privileges and deactivating the parking garage keycard of any physician in poor standing. To improve compliance, which of the following would be a next step to overcoming noncompliance?

Explanation

To overcome noncompliance with medical record completion at Community Hospital, contacting other hospitals to see what methods they use to ensure compliance would be a next step. This approach can provide valuable insights and best practices from hospitals that have successfully addressed similar challenges. By learning from their experiences, Community Hospital can identify effective strategies and implement them to improve compliance. This proactive approach demonstrates a commitment to finding solutions and continuous improvement in addressing the problem.

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49. Identify the appropriate ICD-9-CM diagnosis code(s) for right and left bundle branch block.

Explanation

The appropriate ICD-9-CM diagnosis code for right and left bundle branch block is 426.53. This code specifically represents bilateral bundle branch block, indicating that both the right and left bundle branches are affected. This code is the most accurate and specific choice among the given options.

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50. Identify the ICD-9-CM code for diaper rash, elderly patient.

Explanation

The correct answer is 691.0. Diaper rash is a common condition in infants, but it can also occur in elderly patients who wear adult diapers or have incontinence issues. The ICD-9-CM code 691.0 specifically refers to diaper rash in adults.

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51. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnosis code for chondromalacia of the patella.

Explanation

The correct answer is 717.7. Chondromalacia of the patella is a condition characterized by softening and degeneration of the cartilage on the underside of the kneecap. The ICD-9-CM diagnosis code 717.7 specifically identifies this condition. The other options (733.92, 748.3, and 716.86) do not pertain to chondromalacia of the patella.

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52. The patient had a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. The coder assigned the following codes: 58150, Total abdominal hysterectomy, with/without removal of tubes and ovaries 58700, Salpingectomy, complete or partial, unilateral/bilateral (separate procedure) What error has the coder made by using these codes?

Explanation

Unbundling is the practice of coding services separately that should be coded together as a package because all parts are included within one code and therefore, one price. Unbundling done deliberately is FRAUD.

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53. This is a condition with an imprecise diagnosis with various characteristics. The condition may be diagnosed when a patient presents with sinus arrest, sinoatrial exit block, or persistent sinus bradycardia. This syndrome is often the result of drug therapy, such as digitalis, calcium channel blockers, beta-blockers, sympatholytic agents, or antiarrhythmics. Another presentation includes recurrent supraventricular tachycardias associated with brady-arrhythmias. Prolonged includes insertions of a permament cardiac pacemaker.

Explanation

Sick sinus syndrome (SSS) is the correct answer because it matches the description provided in the question. The condition is characterized by various symptoms such as sinus arrest, sinoatrial exit block, persistent sinus bradycardia, and recurrent supraventricular tachycardias associated with brady-arrhythmias. SSS is often caused by drug therapy and may require the insertion of a permanent cardiac pacemaker for prolonged treatment. Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia are not mentioned in the description and do not match the given characteristics of the condition.

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54. Identify the ICD-9-CM code for acute lymphadenitis.

Explanation

The correct answer is 683. Acute lymphadenitis refers to the inflammation of lymph nodes, which is commonly caused by an infection. In the ICD-9-CM coding system, code 683 is specifically used to represent acute lymphadenitis. This code helps healthcare professionals accurately document and track cases of acute lymphadenitis for statistical and billing purposes.

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55. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code for primary localized osteoarthrosis of the hip.

Explanation

The correct answer is 715.15. This code represents primary localized osteoarthrosis of the hip in the ICD-9-CM coding system. The code 715.95 represents osteoarthrosis, unspecified whether generalized or localized, not specified as primary or secondary, and the code 721.90 represents unspecified disorder of joint, not elsewhere classified. The code 715.16 represents osteoarthrosis, localized, not specified whether primary or secondary, and it affects other specified sites. Therefore, the correct code for primary localized osteoarthrosis of the hip is 715.15.

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56. The coder might find which of the following on a patient's problem list if the medication list contains the drug Protonix?

Explanation

If the medication list contains the drug Protonix, it suggests that the patient is being treated for acid reflux or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Esophagitis is inflammation of the esophagus caused by the reflux of stomach acid. Therefore, it is likely to be found on the patient's problem list if they are taking Protonix. High blood pressure, congestive heart failure, and AIDS are unrelated to the use of Protonix and would not be expected to be found on the problem list in this context.

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57. Identify the appropriate ICD-9-CM diagnosis code for Lou Gehrig's disease.

Explanation

The correct answer is 335.20 because it is the specific ICD-9-CM diagnosis code for Lou Gehrig's disease, also known as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The other options are not the correct codes for this condition.

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58. Identify the appropriate ICD-9-CM procedure code(s) for a double internal mammary-coronary artery bypass.

Explanation

The appropriate ICD-9-CM procedure code for a double internal mammary-coronary artery bypass is 36.16. This code specifically represents a bilateral procedure, indicating that both internal mammary arteries were used for the bypass. The other options either do not specify the use of both internal mammary arteries (36.15) or include additional procedures that are not necessary for a double bypass (36.12, 36.16).

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59. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code for Paget's disease of the bone (no bone tumor noted)

Explanation

The correct answer is 731.0. This code represents Paget's disease of the bone without a bone tumor. ICD-9-CM code 170.9 is for malignant neoplasm of bone and connective tissue, 213.9 is for benign neoplasm of bone and articular cartilage, and 238.0 is for neoplasm of uncertain behavior of bone and articular cartilage. Therefore, the correct code for Paget's disease of the bone is 731.0.

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60. What is the best reference tool to determine how CPT codes should be assigned?

Explanation

CPT Assistant is the official source for CPT Coding

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61. CMS developed Medically Unlikely Edits (MUEs) to prevent providers from billing units of services greater than the norm would indicate. These MUEs were implemented on January 1, 2007 and are applied to which code set?

Explanation

FYI: This new editing is a result of the OPPS which pays the provider based on the HCPCS/CPT codes.

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62. Which of the following is the correct ICD-9-CM code(s) for thoracoscopic lobectomy of left lung?

Explanation

The correct ICD-9-CM code for thoracoscopic lobectomy of the left lung is 32.41. This code specifically represents the procedure of a thoracoscopic lobectomy, which involves the removal of a lobe of the lung using a minimally invasive surgical technique. The other options provided do not accurately represent this specific procedure.

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63. Which payment system was introduced in 1992 and replaced Medicare's customary, prevailing, and reasonable (CPR) payment system?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Resource-based relative value scale system. This payment system was introduced in 1992 and replaced Medicare's customary, prevailing, and reasonable (CPR) payment system. The Resource-based relative value scale system is a method of determining payment for medical services based on the resources required to provide the service, such as time, skill, and intensity of the service. It is used to calculate the fees that Medicare and other insurance programs will reimburse healthcare providers for their services.

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64. Which of the following definitions best describes the concept for confidentiality?

Explanation

Confidentiality in healthcare refers to the expectation that personal information shared by an individual with a healthcare provider during the course of care will be used only for its intended purpose. This means that the healthcare provider should not disclose or use the personal information for any other reason without the individual's consent. It ensures that the patient's privacy is respected and their information is kept confidential and secure.

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65. Where would information on treatment given on a particular encounter be found in the health record?

Explanation

FYI - These are cronological statements about the patient response to treatments during his/her stay.

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66. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code for other specified aplastic anemia secondary to chemotherapy.

Explanation

The correct answer is 284.89. This code represents other specified aplastic anemia secondary to chemotherapy. Aplastic anemia is a condition where the body does not produce enough new blood cells. In this case, it is specifically caused by chemotherapy. The ICD-9-CM code 284.89 is used to identify this specific type of aplastic anemia in medical coding and billing.

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67. Identify the ICD-9-CM dx code(s) for neonatal tooth eruption

Explanation

Neonatal tooth eruption refers to the eruption of a tooth in a newborn baby. The ICD-9-CM code for this condition is 520.6. This code specifically represents "supernumerary teeth," which are additional teeth that can erupt in neonates. The other options, 525.0 and 520.9, do not specifically pertain to neonatal tooth eruption. Therefore, the correct answer is 520.6.

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68. An individual designated as an inpatient coder may have access to an electronic medical record in order to code the record. Under what access security mechanism is the coder allowed access to the system?

Explanation

The individual designated as an inpatient coder is allowed access to the system through a role-based access security mechanism. This means that their access privileges are determined based on their specific role or job function within the organization. This ensures that they only have access to the necessary information and functions required for their coding responsibilities, while also maintaining data security and privacy.

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69. Which of the following programs have been in place in hospitals for years and have been required by the Medicare and Medicaid programs and accreditation standards?

Explanation

Quality improvement programs have been in place in hospitals for years and have been required by the Medicare and Medicaid programs and accreditation standards. These programs aim to enhance patient care and outcomes by continuously monitoring and evaluating the quality of healthcare services provided. They involve systematic data collection, analysis, and implementation of interventions to improve the delivery of care. Quality improvement programs help healthcare organizations identify areas for improvement, reduce medical errors, and ensure compliance with regulatory standards.

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70. What is the best source of documentation to determine the size of a removed malignant lesion?

Explanation

The operative report is the best source of documentation to determine the size of a removed malignant lesion. This report provides detailed information about the surgical procedure, including the size and location of the lesion. It includes information about the incision made, the extent of the excision, and any other relevant details. The pathology report may provide information about the nature of the lesion, but it may not necessarily include specific details about its size. The postacute care unit record and physical examination are unlikely to provide accurate information about the size of the removed lesion.

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71. Which of the following is the correct ICD-9-CM procedure code for a Mayo operation known as a bunionectomy?

Explanation

The correct ICD-9-CM procedure code for a Mayo operation known as a bunionectomy is 77.59.

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72. What type of data is exemplified by the insured party's member identification number?

Explanation

The insured party's member identification number is an example of financial data because it is used to track and identify individuals for billing and payment purposes. This data is typically associated with financial transactions and is used to manage and process insurance claims, premiums, and reimbursements.

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73. Identify the appropriate diagnostic and/or procedure ICD-9-CM code(s) for reprogramming of a cardiac pacemaker.

Explanation

The appropriate diagnostic code for reprogramming a cardiac pacemaker is V53.31. This code is used to indicate a procedure for adjustment and management of the pacemaker. It specifically refers to the reprogramming of the device to optimize its functioning. The other codes listed (37.85 and V53.02) are not relevant to this specific procedure.

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74. Which of the following statements about a firewall is false?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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75. Mary Smith has gone to her doctor to discuss her current medical condition. What is the legal term that best describes the type of communication that has occurred between Mary and her physician?

Explanation

Privileged communication - legal concept designed to protect confidentiality

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76. Identify the correct ICD-9-CM procedure code(s) for replacement of an old dual pacemaker with a new dual pacemaker.

Explanation

The correct ICD-9-CM procedure code for replacement of an old dual pacemaker with a new dual pacemaker is 37.87.

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77. Identify the CPD code(s) for the following patient: A 2-yr-old male presented to the emergency room in the middle of the night to have his nasogastric feeding tube repositioned through the duodenum under fluoroscopic guidance.

Explanation

The correct answer is 43761; 76000. CPD codes are used to classify medical procedures for billing and reimbursement purposes. In this case, the patient is a 2-year-old male who came to the emergency room to have his nasogastric feeding tube repositioned through the duodenum under fluoroscopic guidance. The CPD code 43761 represents the repositioning of a nasogastric tube using fluoroscopic guidance, while the CPD code 76000 represents the fluoroscopic guidance itself. Therefore, both codes are applicable in this scenario.

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78. Identify the ICD-9-CM procedure code(s) for insertion of tissue expander in breast, post mastectomy.

Explanation

The correct answer is 85.95. This code specifically refers to the insertion of a tissue expander in the breast after a mastectomy. The other options do not accurately represent this procedure.

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79. Jack Mitchell, a patient in Ross Hospital, is being treated for gallstones. He has not opted out of the facility directory. Callers who request information about him may be given:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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80. A health information technician receives a subpoena duces tecum for the records of a discharged patient. To respond to the subpoena, which of the following should the technician do?

Explanation

The correct answer is to review the subpoena to determine what document must be produced. This is because a subpoena duces tecum is a legal order that requires the production of specific documents or records. By reviewing the subpoena, the health information technician can identify exactly what documents are being requested and ensure that they are provided in a timely manner. Consulting with legal counsel or notifying the hospital administrator may be necessary steps depending on the specific circumstances, but the first step should always be to review the subpoena itself.

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81. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code(s) for acute osteomyelitis of ankle due to staphylococcus.

Explanation

The ICD-9-CM diagnostic code for acute osteomyelitis of the ankle is 730.07. Additionally, the code 041.10 is included to indicate that the infection is due to staphylococcus.

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82. Identify the code for a patient with a closed transcervical fracture of the epiphysis.

Explanation

The code 820.01 represents a patient with a closed transcervical fracture of the epiphysis. This code specifically indicates a fracture in the neck of the femur (thigh bone) that is closed, meaning the bone has not broken through the skin. The term "transcervical" refers to the location of the fracture, which is in the neck of the femur. Therefore, 820.01 is the correct code for this specific type of fracture.

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83. Which of the following is the correct ICD-9-CM procedure code(s) for cystoscopy with biopsy?

Explanation

The correct ICD-9-CM procedure code for cystoscopy with biopsy is 57.33.

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84. Identify the ICD-9-CM dx code(s) for the following:  threatened abortion with hemorrhage at 15 weeks; home undelivered.

Explanation

The correct answer is 640.03. This ICD-9-CM code represents a threatened abortion with hemorrhage at 15 weeks. It specifically indicates that the patient was at home and the abortion was not delivered.

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85. A male patient is seen by the physician and diagnosed with pneumonia. The doctor took cultures to try to determine which organism was causing the pneumonia. Which of the following organisms would alert the coder to code it as a gram-negative pneumonia?

Explanation

Klebsiella is the correct answer because it is a gram-negative organism. Gram-negative pneumonia is caused by bacteria that stain pink when subjected to the Gram stain test. Klebsiella is a type of gram-negative bacteria that can cause pneumonia in certain cases. Staphylococcus, Clostridium, and Streptococcus are all gram-positive organisms, so they would not be coded as gram-negative pneumonia.

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86. Identify the correct diagnosis ICD-9-CM code(s) for a patient who arrives at the hospital for outpatient laboratory services ordered by the physician to monitor the patient's coumadin levels. A prothrombin time (PT) is performed to check the patient's long-term use of his anticoagulant treatment.

Explanation

The correct diagnosis ICD-9-CM code(s) for a patient who arrives at the hospital for outpatient laboratory services ordered by the physician to monitor the patient's coumadin levels would be V58.83 and V58.61. V58.83 represents the need for long-term monitoring of the patient's anticoagulant treatment, while V58.61 indicates the need for other specified prophylactic measures, such as monitoring of PT levels. These codes accurately capture the reason for the patient's visit and the specific monitoring required.

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87. The patient is seen in the physician office with a chief complaint of shortness of breath. In the patient's progress notes, the physician documents the diagnosis of asthma and recommends the patient present to the emergency department of XYZ Hospital immediately. The physician further documents that the patient has severe wheezing and no obvious relief with bronchodilators. Which action will the coder take?

Explanation

The correct answer is to query the physician for more detail about asthma. This is because the physician's documentation is not clear enough to determine the specific type or severity of asthma. By querying the physician for more information, the coder can ensure accurate coding and billing for the patient's condition.

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88. Identify CPT code(s) for the following Medicare patient. A 67-year-old female undergoes a fine needle aspiration of the left breast with ultrasound guidance to place a localization clip during a braest biopsy.

Explanation

The correct answer is 10022; 19295-LT; 76942. The CPT code 10022 represents fine needle aspiration biopsy without imaging guidance. The code 19295-LT represents the placement of a localization clip during a breast biopsy under ultrasound guidance. The code 76942 represents the use of ultrasound guidance during the procedure. Therefore, all three codes accurately describe the procedures performed on the Medicare patient in this scenario.

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89. An outpatient clinic is reviewing the functionality of a computer system it is considering purchasing. Which of the following datasets should the clinic consult to ensure all the federally required data elements for Medicare and Medicaid outpatient clinical encounters are collected by the system?

Explanation

The clinic should consult the UACDS dataset to ensure all the federally required data elements for Medicare and Medicaid outpatient clinical encounters are collected by the system.

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90. Identify the ICD-9-CM procedure code(s) for insertion of dual chamber cardiac pacemaker and atrial and ventricular leads.

Explanation

The correct answer is 37.83, 37.72. The insertion of a dual chamber cardiac pacemaker and both atrial and ventricular leads is coded using two procedure codes. The first code, 37.83, represents the insertion of a dual chamber cardiac pacemaker. The second code, 37.72, represents the insertion of both atrial and ventricular leads. Therefore, the correct answer includes both of these codes.

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91. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code(s) for the following: A 6-month-old child is scheduled for a clinic visit for a routine well child exam. The physician documents, "well child, ex-preemie".

Explanation

The correct answer is V20.2, 765.10. The ICD-9-CM code V20.2 represents a routine infant or child health check-up, while the code 765.10 represents a history of prematurity. Since the physician documented that the child is a "well child, ex-preemie," both codes are applicable in this case.

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92. Valley High, a skilled nursing facility, wants to become certified to take part in federal government reimbursement programs such as Medicare. What standards must be facility meet in order to become certified for these programs?

Explanation

In order for Valley High, a skilled nursing facility, to become certified for federal government reimbursement programs such as Medicare, it must meet the Conditions of Participation. These are a set of standards and requirements that healthcare providers must adhere to in order to participate in these programs. By meeting these conditions, Valley High can ensure that it is providing quality care and meeting the necessary criteria to be eligible for reimbursement from the government.

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93. Which of the following four sources of law is also known as judge-made or case law?

Explanation

Common law is also known as judge-made or case law because it refers to the body of law that is derived from judicial decisions and precedents rather than from statutes or constitutions. Common law is developed and evolved through the rulings and interpretations of judges in various court cases over time. It is based on the principle of stare decisis, which means that courts are bound to follow the legal precedents set by previous court decisions unless there is a compelling reason to deviate from them.

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94. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code for atypical ductal hyperplasia

Explanation

The correct answer is 610.8. Atypical ductal hyperplasia is a condition characterized by abnormal cell growth in the milk ducts of the breast. In the ICD-9-CM coding system, code 610.8 is used to identify other specified benign mammary dysplasias, which includes atypical ductal hyperplasia.

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95. The sequence of the correct steps when evaluating an ethical problem is:

Explanation

The correct sequence of steps when evaluating an ethical problem is to first determine the facts, then consider the values and obligations of others, followed by considering the choices that are both justified and not justified, and finally identifying prevention options. This sequence ensures that all relevant information is gathered and analyzed before making a decision, taking into account the perspectives and ethical considerations of others, and exploring various options for preventing or addressing the issue at hand.

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96. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code for allogeneic donor lymphocyte stem cell infusion.

Explanation

The correct answer is 41.05. This code specifically represents the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code for allogeneic donor lymphocyte stem cell infusion.

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97. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code(s) for the following: A 73-year-old female was treated for hemorrhage of the inferior mesenteric artery. She was admitted to the hospital for a transcatheter embolization of the bleeders with polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) microspheres and coils and abdominal angiography.

Explanation

The correct answer is 39.79, 88.47. The ICD-9-CM diagnostic code 39.79 represents the procedure of transcatheter embolization of the bleeders with polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) microspheres and coils. The code 88.47 represents the procedure of abdominal angiography. These codes accurately describe the treatments and procedures performed on the patient for the hemorrhage of the inferior mesenteric artery.

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98. Identify CPT code(s) for the following patient. A 35-year-old female undergoes an excision of a 3.0-cm tumor of her forehead. An incision is made through the skin and subcutaneous tissue. The tumor is dissected free of surrounding structures. The wound is closed in layers and interrupted sutures.

Explanation

The correct answer is 21012. This code is used for the excision of a benign or malignant tumor, subcutaneous tissue, or fascia, without extensive undermining or dissecting. In this case, the 3.0-cm tumor on the forehead was excised, with an incision made through the skin and subcutaneous tissue, and the wound closed in layers with interrupted sutures.

Submit
99. Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code for diastolic dysfunction

Explanation

The correct answer is 429.9 because diastolic dysfunction is a general term that refers to abnormalities in the relaxation or filling of the heart during diastole. It is not specific to a particular disease or condition, so it does not have a specific ICD-9-CM diagnostic code. Instead, it is classified under the general category of "other disorders of the circulatory system," which is represented by the code 429.9.

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100. Identify the CPT code(s) for the following patient:  A 2-yr-old male presented to the hospital to have his gastrostomy tube changed under flouroscopic guidance.

Explanation

The correct answer is 49450. This code represents the insertion of a gastrostomy tube without a laparotomy. In this case, the patient is only having the tube changed, not inserted, so the correct code would be for the change of the tube. The other codes listed are not applicable to this scenario.

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Identify the ICD-9-CM code for acute lymphadenitis.
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Which of the following statements about a firewall is false?
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Identify the correct ICD-9-CM procedure code(s) for replacement of an...
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Identify the ICD-9-CM procedure code(s) for insertion of tissue...
Jack Mitchell, a patient in Ross Hospital, is being treated for...
A health information technician receives a subpoena duces tecum for...
Identify the ICD-9-CM diagnostic code(s) for acute osteomyelitis of...
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