Book Club Quiz 2 Chap 5-6-8 &pi

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Book Club Quiz 2 Chap 5-6-8 &pi - Quiz


Chapter 1-4. Sepsis Handbook


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Diagnosis of infection includes:

    • A.

      Identifying that source

    • B.

      Identifying the existence

    • C.

      Uncovering the Microorganism

    • D.

      Severity assessment

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Identifying that source
    B. Identifying the existence
    C. Uncovering the Microorganism
    D. Severity assessment
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes four components: identifying the source, identifying the existence, uncovering the microorganism, and severity assessment. These components are essential for the diagnosis of an infection. Identifying the source helps determine how the infection was acquired, whether it was from a person, object, or environment. Identifying the existence involves recognizing the presence of infection symptoms or signs. Uncovering the microorganism involves identifying the specific pathogen responsible for the infection, which helps determine the appropriate treatment. Severity assessment involves evaluating the extent and impact of the infection on the individual's health.

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  • 2. 

    The initial management of a serious infection must proceed in a timely and systematic way. It is recommended that within the first hour blood samples should be taken?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In the initial management of a serious infection, it is crucial to proceed in a timely and systematic manner. Taking blood samples within the first hour is recommended because it allows for early identification of the causative organism and helps guide appropriate treatment. Blood samples can provide valuable information about the infection, such as the presence of bacteria or viruses, and can help determine the most effective antibiotics or antiviral medications to use. This early intervention can significantly improve patient outcomes and increase the chances of successful treatment.

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  • 3. 

    Blood cultures remain the cornerstone of microbiological documentation of sepsis?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Blood cultures are considered the gold standard for diagnosing sepsis, a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an infection in the bloodstream. They help identify the specific bacteria or fungi causing the infection, allowing for targeted antibiotic therapy. Blood cultures are essential for documenting the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream, confirming the diagnosis of sepsis, and guiding appropriate treatment decisions. Therefore, blood cultures are indeed the cornerstone of microbiological documentation of sepsis.

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  • 4. 

    Drawbacks of blood cultures are 

    • A.

      Specificity

    • B.

      Sensitivity

    • C.

      Slow growing organisms

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Sensitivity
    C. Slow growing organisms
    Explanation
    Blood cultures have certain drawbacks, including sensitivity and slow-growing organisms. Sensitivity refers to the ability of the blood culture to accurately detect the presence of microorganisms. If the sensitivity is low, it means that the blood culture may miss detecting certain infections, leading to false-negative results. Slow-growing organisms can also pose a challenge as they may take longer to grow in the culture, delaying the diagnosis and initiation of appropriate treatment. Therefore, both sensitivity and slow-growing organisms are valid drawbacks of blood cultures.

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  • 5. 

    Sepsis is defined as (check all that apply)

    • A.

      Deleterious host response to infection which is generally attributed to an uncontrolled and excessive, cytokine-mediated, host inflammatory response.

    • B.

      The body's systemic response to infection.

    • C.

      Presence of infection plus other sign and symptoms.

    • D.

      An infection that can be deadly if not diagnosed and treated promptly.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Deleterious host response to infection which is generally attributed to an uncontrolled and excessive, cytokine-mediated, host inflammatory response.
    B. The body's systemic response to infection.
    C. Presence of infection plus other sign and symptoms.
    D. An infection that can be deadly if not diagnosed and treated promptly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes all of the statements provided. Sepsis is defined as a deleterious host response to infection, which is characterized by an uncontrolled and excessive, cytokine-mediated, host inflammatory response. It is also the body's systemic response to infection and is characterized by the presence of infection along with other signs and symptoms. Sepsis can be deadly if not diagnosed and treated promptly.

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  • 6. 

    Identify the most common sources of serious infections (Check all that apply)

    • A.

      UTI

    • B.

      Community-Acquired Pneumonia

    • C.

      Ventilaor-Associated Pneumonia

    • D.

      Acute Meningitis

    • E.

      Biliary Sepsis (Acute Cholecystitis)

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. UTI
    B. Community-Acquired Pneumonia
    C. Ventilaor-Associated Pneumonia
    D. Acute Meningitis
    E. Biliary Sepsis (Acute Cholecystitis)
    Explanation
    The most common sources of serious infections include UTI, Community-Acquired Pneumonia, Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia, Acute Meningitis, and Biliary Sepsis (Acute Cholecystitis). These sources are frequently associated with severe infections and can lead to serious health complications if not treated promptly and appropriately.

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  • 7. 

    What is the SIRS Criteria. Check all that apply

    • A.

      Edema

    • B.

      Temperature >100.4 degrees Fahrenheit < 96.8 degrees Fahrenheit

    • C.

      Blood Glucose > 150 mb/ml in absence of diabeties

    • D.

      Diabeties > 120

    • E.

      HR - > 90bmp

    • F.

      Respirtory rate > 20 breaths/min

    • G.

      PaCO2 < 32 mm Hg

    • H.

      WBC . >12,000/mm3 or > 10% immature bands

    • I.

      New Onset of Confusion

    • J.

      Rash form on skin 20% visable

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Edema
    B. Temperature >100.4 degrees Fahrenheit < 96.8 degrees Fahrenheit
    C. Blood Glucose > 150 mb/ml in absence of diabeties
    E. HR - > 90bmp
    F. Respirtory rate > 20 breaths/min
    G. PaCO2 < 32 mm Hg
    H. WBC . >12,000/mm3 or > 10% immature bands
    I. New Onset of Confusion
    Explanation
    The SIRS Criteria is a set of clinical indicators used to identify systemic inflammatory response syndrome. According to the given answer, the criteria that apply are: Edema, Temperature >100.4 degrees Fahrenheit < 96.8 degrees Fahrenheit, Blood Glucose > 150 mb/ml in absence of diabetes, HR - > 90bmp, Respiratory rate > 20 breaths/min, paCO2 < 32 mm Hg, WBC . >12,000/mm3 or > 10% immature bands, and New Onset of Confusion. These criteria are used to assess the severity of a patient's inflammatory response and guide medical treatment.

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  • 8. 

    ______________ and ____________________are among priority measures during the 6 hour resuscitation period of initial sepsis managment?

    • A.

      Early antibiotic therapy

    • B.

      Throat Swab

    • C.

      Blood Cultures

    • D.

      Skin test

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Early antibiotic therapy
    C. Blood Cultures
    Explanation
    During the initial 6-hour resuscitation period of sepsis management, early antibiotic therapy and blood cultures are among the priority measures. Early antibiotic therapy is crucial in order to target the infection and prevent its progression. Blood cultures are necessary to identify the specific pathogen causing the sepsis, which helps in determining the appropriate antibiotic treatment. These two measures are essential in the early management of sepsis to improve patient outcomes and decrease mortality rates.

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  • 9. 

    Due to problems and limitations of blood culures and becuase bacteremais or fungmias are intermittent, guidelines recommend to obtain two or three repeated blood cultures

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that blood cultures have limitations and may not always accurately detect bacteremia or fungemia. These infections can be intermittent, meaning that the presence of bacteria or fungi in the blood may not be consistently detectable. Therefore, guidelines recommend obtaining two or three repeated blood cultures to increase the chances of detecting these infections.

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  • 10. 

    Bacterial load in quantitative blood cultures are very low in adults this effecting a dely to detect positivity.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because in quantitative blood cultures, the bacterial load is typically very low in adults. This low bacterial load can result in a delay in detecting positivity, meaning it may take longer to identify the presence of bacteria in the blood sample.

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  • 11. 

    On blood culture systems, only ________ to________ of all blood cultures become positive.

    • A.

      10-15%

    • B.

      5-10%

    • C.

      20-30%

    • D.

      40-50%

    Correct Answer
    B. 5-10%
    Explanation
    Blood culture systems are used to detect the presence of microorganisms in the blood. However, not all blood cultures will yield a positive result indicating an infection. The given answer of 5-10% suggests that only a small percentage of all blood cultures become positive. This indicates that the majority of blood cultures are negative, possibly due to various factors such as the absence of infection, improper collection techniques, or the presence of fastidious or difficult-to-detect microorganisms.

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  • 12. 

    Molecular assays consist of three major steps. (Check all that apply)

    • A.

      Detection of amplified product

    • B.

      Speciman Processing (DNA or RNA Extraction)

    • C.

      Nucleic acid amplificaion

    • D.

      Growing of the organism

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Detection of amplified product
    B. Speciman Processing (DNA or RNA Extraction)
    C. Nucleic acid amplificaion
    Explanation
    Molecular assays involve three major steps: detection of the amplified product, specimen processing (DNA or RNA extraction), and nucleic acid amplification. These steps are essential for the accurate detection and analysis of genetic material. The detection of the amplified product allows researchers to determine the presence or absence of specific genetic sequences. Specimen processing involves extracting DNA or RNA from the sample, which is necessary for further analysis. Nucleic acid amplification refers to the process of amplifying specific genetic sequences using techniques such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR). These steps collectively enable the identification and analysis of genetic material in molecular assays.

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  • 13. 

    C-reactive Protein (CRP) is an acute pahse proten that is released after simulation of inflammatory indicators like IL-6 and IL-8. CRP levels peak after 24 hours of injurious stimulia.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    CRP is indeed an acute phase protein that is released in response to inflammatory indicators like IL-6 and IL-8. However, CRP levels typically peak within 48-72 hours after the injurious stimuli, not after 24 hours. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 14. 

    Blood Lactate levels correlate with mortality rates in septic shock and are related the development of organ failure and mortality following severe trauma.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Blood lactate levels are indeed correlated with mortality rates in septic shock and are also related to the development of organ failure and mortality following severe trauma. Elevated blood lactate levels indicate tissue hypoperfusion, which is a common characteristic of septic shock and severe trauma. When tissues do not receive enough oxygen, they switch to anaerobic metabolism, leading to the production of lactate. High levels of lactate in the blood indicate tissue hypoxia and are associated with poor outcomes and increased mortality rates in these conditions. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 15. 

    A PCT reagent Kit come with the following items

    • A.

      60 PCT strips

    • B.

      2 Calibrators

    • C.

      2 Controls

    • D.

      60 SPRs

    • E.

      Package Insert

    • F.

      Master Lot Entry Card

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 60 PCT strips
    B. 2 Calibrators
    C. 2 Controls
    D. 60 SPRs
    E. Package Insert
    F. Master Lot Entry Card
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes all the items that come with a PCT reagent kit. It consists of 60 PCT strips, 2 calibrators, 2 controls, 60 SPRs, a package insert, and a master lot entry card. These items are essential for conducting PCT testing and ensuring accurate and reliable results.

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  • 16. 

    It is recommended that you can use human serum or plasma collected in EDTA tubes

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The given statement is false. It is not recommended to use human serum or plasma collected in EDTA tubes. EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is an anticoagulant that chelates calcium ions, which is necessary for blood clotting. Therefore, using EDTA tubes would prevent the blood from clotting, resulting in the collection of plasma rather than serum. Serum is obtained by allowing the blood to clot and then separating the liquid portion from the clotted cells.

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  • 17. 

    It is recommended to retest PCT within __________________ hours if any concentrations < 2 ng/mL are obtained.

    • A.

      3-5

    • B.

      6-24

    • C.

      1-3

    • D.

      24-48

    Correct Answer
    B. 6-24
    Explanation
    If any concentrations less than 2 ng/mL are obtained, it is recommended to retest PCT within 6-24 hours. This suggests that the initial test result may not be accurate or reliable, and a retest is necessary to confirm the PCT levels. Waiting for 6-24 hours allows enough time for any potential fluctuations in PCT levels to stabilize and provide a more accurate result.

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  • 18. 

    The VIDAS B·R·A·H·M·S PCT is intended for use in conjunction with other laboratory findings and clinical assessments to aid in the risk assessment of critically ill patients on their first day of ICU admission for progression to severe sepsis and septic shock. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The VIDAS B.R.A.H.M.S PCT is a diagnostic tool that is used alongside other laboratory findings and clinical assessments to help assess the risk of critically ill patients progressing to severe sepsis and septic shock. This means that the test is not used as a standalone diagnostic tool, but rather as a part of a comprehensive assessment. Therefore, the statement is true.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 16, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 06, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    DymekaHarrison
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