Micro Dr Sloma Questions

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1. Which of the following describes negative selection of immature B cells?

Explanation

Negative selection of immature B cells refers to the process where B cells that recognize self antigens are eliminated or signaled to undergo programmed cell death (apoptosis). This is an important mechanism to prevent the development of B cells that could potentially attack the body's own tissues (autoimmunity). By eliminating self-reactive B cells, the immune system ensures that only B cells capable of recognizing foreign antigens are allowed to mature and participate in immune responses.

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Micro Dr Sloma Questions - Quiz

The 'Micro dr sloma questions' quiz assesses knowledge on immune system functions, focusing on B and T cell selection, activation, and immunodeficiencies. It is ideal for medical students... see moreand professionals preparing for exams like USMLE. see less

2. What do Rickettsia sp., Coxiella sp., and Chalmydia sp. have in common?

Explanation

Rickettsia sp., Coxiella sp., and Chlamydia sp. all have an obligate requirement for growth within host cells. This means that they cannot grow and replicate outside of a host cell and are dependent on the host cell's machinery for their survival and reproduction.

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3. Which of the following best describes the mechanism behind β‐hemolysis, resulting in the complete clearing of the media around a colony growing on blood agar?

Explanation

β-hemolysis refers to the complete lysis of red blood cells in the media. This is caused by the organism producing a hemolysin, which is a toxin that specifically targets and lyses red blood cells. As a result, the media around the colony appears clear because the red blood cells have been completely lysed.

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4. You are awaiting results of a throat culture from your patient, a 7‐year old girl. You call the lab for a preliminary report. The lab technologist tells you that the culture is positive for Gram+ cocci in chains, Gram‐positive bacilli, and Gram‐negative cocci.   The technologist adds, "I'm going to subculture the Gram‐positive rod to a tellurite agar today." Growth of the Gram‐positive rod on tellurite would indicate the organism is which of the following?

Explanation

The growth of the Gram-positive rod on tellurite agar indicates that the organism is Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This is because Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the only organism among the options that is known to produce tellurite reductase, an enzyme that allows it to reduce tellurite and grow on tellurite agar. This characteristic is used as a diagnostic test for identifying Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

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5. Th2 T cells exert their effector functions through which of the following mechanisms?

Explanation

Th2 T cells exert their effector functions through the secretion of IL-4 and IL-5. These cytokines play a crucial role in the activation and recruitment of other immune cells, particularly B cells and eosinophils. IL-4 promotes the differentiation of B cells into antibody-producing plasma cells, while IL-5 stimulates the production and activation of eosinophils, which are involved in the defense against parasitic infections and allergic reactions. Therefore, the secretion of IL-4 and IL-5 by Th2 T cells is essential for the immune response against certain pathogens and the regulation of allergic responses.

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6. The difference between chocolate agar and blood agar is:

Explanation

The correct answer is "The blood used in chocolate agar has been heated." This is because chocolate agar is made by heating sheep blood to inactivate certain enzymes that could interfere with the growth of bacteria. Heating the blood also helps release nutrients that are essential for bacterial growth. This process is important in creating a suitable environment for bacterial culture and identification in the laboratory.

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7. Blood cultures were collected from a patient and cultured under aerobic conditions. After 48 hours, the cultures were positive, and a Gram stain of the culture revealed large, spore‐forming Gram‐positive bacilli. Which of the following describes the organisms growing in this patient's blood culture?

Explanation

The correct answer describes the organisms growing in the patient's blood culture as saprophytic organisms found in the soil or intestinal tract of humans and animals. This suggests that the organisms are likely to be normal flora or opportunistic pathogens that have entered the bloodstream.

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8. You are awaiting results of a throat culture from your patient, a 7‐year old girl. You call the lab for a preliminary report. The lab technologist tells you that the culture is positive for Gram+ cocci in chains, Gram‐positive bacilli, and Gram‐negative cocci.  Which of the following organisms could be growing in her specimen?

Explanation

The presence of Gram+ cocci in chains suggests the presence of Streptococcus spp. The presence of Gram‐positive bacilli suggests the presence of Corynebacterium spp. The presence of Gram‐negative cocci suggests the presence of Neisseria spp. Therefore, Neisseria spp., Streptococcus spp., and Corynebacterium spp. could be growing in her specimen.

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9. A 45‐year old woman presents with a rashy skin lesion. She takes daily walks with her dogs in the woods and recalls having removed a tick from her back 3 days ago. A Gram‐stain of a biopsy of the lesion is negative. You suspect she is infected with Borrelia sp. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding Borrelia sp.?

Explanation

Dark field microscopy is a technique that allows for the visualization of organisms that are difficult to see using traditional bright field microscopy. Borrelia sp., the bacteria responsible for Lyme disease, is a spirochete that is better visualized using dark field microscopy due to its thin, helical shape. This technique allows for the visualization of the organism's characteristic motility and helps in the identification of Borrelia sp. Therefore, dark field microscopy is a more accurate method for visualizing Borrelia sp. compared to a Gram stain.

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10. Positive selection is an important step in T cell development. Which of the following best describes this process?

Explanation

During T cell development, immature T cells with receptors that associate with self major histocompatibility complex (MHC) with adequate affinity are selected to mature. This selection process ensures that T cells are able to recognize and respond to antigens presented by self MHC molecules. T cells that do not have receptors that associate with self MHC or have receptors with too high or too low affinity for self MHC are signaled to undergo apoptosis, preventing the development of T cells that may cause autoimmune reactions. This process is crucial for the proper functioning of the immune system.

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11. In addition to recognition of specific peptide presented by MHC, T cells require other signals to drive activation, proliferation and differentiation. What are these other signals?

Explanation

T cells require CD28:B7 co-stimulation and IL-2 cytokine signaling in addition to the recognition of specific peptides presented by MHC in order to undergo activation, proliferation, and differentiation. CD28:B7 interaction provides a co-stimulatory signal that enhances T cell activation, while IL-2 is a crucial cytokine that promotes T cell proliferation and survival. Therefore, both CD28:B7 co-stimulation and IL-2 cytokine signaling are necessary for T cell activation and subsequent immune response.

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12. Asad is a 25‐year old HIV‐positive man. He returned from visiting relatives in Somalia 3 months ago. For the last 2 months, he has been experiencing fevers, night sweats, weight loss and a dry cough. Within the last two weeks his cough has become productive of bloody sputum. His chest x‐ray is remarkable for bilateral anterior cervical and axillary adenopathy with interstitial infiltrates. A smear of his sputum is positive for acid fast bacilli. The causative agent of this infection was able to establish active infection due the failure to generate which of the following?

Explanation

The causative agent of the infection was able to establish active infection due to the failure to generate Th1 T cells. Th1 T cells play a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity and are responsible for activating macrophages to kill intracellular pathogens, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis (the causative agent of tuberculosis). Without Th1 T cell activation, the immune response is impaired, allowing the infection to persist and cause symptoms such as fevers, night sweats, weight loss, and a productive cough with bloody sputum.

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13. A 30‐year old man presents to his local emergency department with symptoms of sepsis. His blood cultures flag positive for Gram‐positive cocci in clusters. As the laboratory technologist, which of the following describes the test(s) that will be most conclusive for confirming his infection is caused by Staphylococcus aureus?   I) Observation of β‐hemolysis on blood agar II) Test for the production an enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin III) Test for the organism's ability to ferment glucose IV) Test for the production of an enzyme that converts H2O2 to O2 and water V) Test for the organism's ability to grow at low temperatures VI) Test for the production of cytochrome c oxidase

Explanation

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14. Organism Z causes over 1 million causes of Z fever annually worldwide. Scientists have determined that a live, attenuated vaccine is most appropriate for this organism. What type of organism is Organism Z likely to be?

Explanation

Vaccines containing killed pathogens or antigenic components (subunits like peptides) do not enter host cells. Hence, they induce a B cell-mediated humoral response. On the other hand, live ATTENUATED LIVE VACCINES do penetrate cells, eliciting a cell-mediated immune response against intracellular antigens. SO FOR INTRACELLULAR ORGANISMS, LIVE ATTENUATED VACCINES ARE MORE EFFECTIVE!

Inactivated Vaccines:
Inactivated vaccines, as the name implies, can produce a protective immune response without the risk of infection by the agent. They are used for agents that cannot be attenuated, that may cause recurrent infection, or that have ONOGENIC POTENTIAL.

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15. A defect in expression of which molecule(s) on the surface of a B cell would prohibit B cell activation?   A) CD19 B) IL‐2 receptor C) Igβ D) CD40L E) CD80/86

Explanation

A defect in the expression of CD19 and Igβ molecules on the surface of a B cell would prohibit B cell activation. CD19 is a co-receptor that plays a crucial role in B cell signaling and activation, while Igβ is a component of the B cell receptor complex that is essential for antigen recognition and signaling. Therefore, a defect in the expression of these molecules would impair the ability of B cells to respond to antigens and initiate an immune response.

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Which of the following describes negative selection of immature B...
What do Rickettsia sp., Coxiella sp., and Chalmydia sp. have in...
Which of the following best describes the mechanism behind...
You are awaiting results of a throat culture from your patient, a...
Th2 T cells exert their effector functions through which of the...
The difference between chocolate agar and blood agar is:
Blood cultures were collected from a patient and cultured under...
You are awaiting results of a throat culture from your patient, a...
A 45‐year old woman presents with a rashy skin lesion. She takes...
Positive selection is an important step in T cell development. Which...
In addition to recognition of specific peptide presented by MHC, T...
Asad is a 25‐year old HIV‐positive man. He returned from visiting...
A 30‐year old man presents to his local emergency department with...
Organism Z causes over 1 million causes of Z fever annually worldwide....
A defect in expression of which molecule(s) on the surface of a B cell...
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