Avaya IPO ACIS Practice Quiz

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| By Swalmsley11
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Swalmsley11
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 1,119
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ACIS Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz is designed to assist in practicing for the Avaya 6401.1 Certification Exam.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which statement regarding system telephony settings is correct?

    • A.

      The user telephony settings include Queuing, Fallback and Overflow information.

    • B.

      Entries here are used to match incoming call details to destinations on the IP Office system.

    • C.

      The system telephony configuration includes the Quiet Headset information

    • D.

      The system telephony configuration are divided into three Tabs: Call Settings, Supervisor Settings and Multi-Line Options

    Correct Answer
    D. The system telephony configuration are divided into three Tabs: Call Settings, Supervisor Settings and Multi-Line Options
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the system telephony configuration is divided into three Tabs: Call Settings, Supervisor Settings, and Multi-Line Options. This means that the system telephony settings are organized into these three categories for easier management and configuration.

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  • 2. 

    Which statement concerning Small Community Networks is incorrect? 

    • A.

      Short codes have to be set up so that calls are routed from members of the first IP Office to the members of the second one

    • B.

      Busy lamp fields can be configured to show members from the other IP Offices.

    • C.

      If an advanced networking license is available, Hunt groups may consist of members from all the interconnected sites

    • D.

      A prerequisite for an SCN is a consistent extension numbering scheme.

    Correct Answer
    A. Short codes have to be set up so that calls are routed from members of the first IP Office to the members of the second one
    Explanation
    Short codes do not have to be set up to route calls from members of the first IP Office to members of the second one in Small Community Networks.

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  • 3. 

    Which statement concerning Small Community Networks is incorrect?

    • A.

      System wide hotdesking is supported

    • B.

      Breakout/Remote Dialing is supported in SCNs

    • C.

      Small Community Networks can consist of max. 400 users on 12 sites

    • D.

      Out-of-Office messages are possible to view for all SCN members

    Correct Answer
    C. Small Community Networks can consist of max. 400 users on 12 sites
    Explanation
    The statement "Small Community Networks can consist of max. 400 users on 12 sites" is incorrect. Small Community Networks can actually consist of a maximum of 200 users on 6 sites.

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  • 4. 

    What is a Small Community Network? 

    • A.

      A highly flexible call group

    • B.

      A feature of IP Office that helps connect up to 32 systems with up to 1000 subscribers across IP lines

    • C.

      A feature of IP Office that routes Internet access through different paths

    • D.

      A data communication solution for small and medium-sized companies

    Correct Answer
    B. A feature of IP Office that helps connect up to 32 systems with up to 1000 subscribers across IP lines
    Explanation
    A Small Community Network is a feature of IP Office that allows for the connection of up to 32 systems with up to 1000 subscribers across IP lines. This feature enables seamless communication and connectivity between multiple systems within a small community or organization. It provides a flexible call group setup, allowing for efficient communication and collaboration among the subscribers. This feature is specifically designed to cater to the needs of small and medium-sized companies, providing them with a reliable and scalable data communication solution.

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  • 5. 

    To enable Small Community Networking, you must configure ________ as the connection to the remote IP Office system

    • A.

      An Incoming Call Route

    • B.

      A Remote Access Service (RAS) entry

    • C.

      An IP DECT line

    • D.

      An IP line

    Correct Answer
    D. An IP line
    Explanation
    To enable Small Community Networking, configuring an IP line as the connection to the remote IP Office system is necessary. An IP line allows for the transmission of voice and data over an IP network, making it suitable for connecting remote IP Office systems. This configuration ensures that the Small Community Networking feature can be utilized effectively, allowing for seamless communication and collaboration between multiple IP Office systems in different locations.

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  • 6. 

    Which requirement is not valid for establishing IP telephony between two IP Offices via H.323?

    • A.

      IP lines have to be configured in both directions with the remote IP Office configured as the H.323 gateway address

    • B.

      An IP line has to be configured on only one of the IP Offices

    • C.

      The underlying network connectivity has to be configured first (IP Routing, etc.).

    • D.

      Voice compression modules are needed

    Correct Answer
    B. An IP line has to be configured on only one of the IP Offices
  • 7. 

    What are the default telephony and data configuration settings for IP Office 500 V2 platforms? (Choose three)

    • A.

      The line group number is 0

    • B.

      When an unknown number is dialed, the line group number 0 is assigned

    • C.

      The destination for incoming voice calls is 200.

    • D.

      The main hunt group number is 0.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The line group number is 0
    B. When an unknown number is dialed, the line group number 0 is assigned
    C. The destination for incoming voice calls is 200.
    Explanation
    The default telephony and data configuration settings for IP Office 500 V2 platforms are as follows: the line group number is 0, when an unknown number is dialed, the line group number 0 is assigned, and the destination for incoming voice calls is 200. These settings determine how calls are routed and managed within the IP Office system.

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  • 8. 

    Select the help functions available in Manager. (Choose five)

    • A.

      Video Tutorials

    • B.

      Index

    • C.

      Product Tour

    • D.

      Contact Us

    • E.

      Detect and Repair

    • F.

      Search

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Video Tutorials
    B. Index
    C. Product Tour
    D. Contact Us
    F. Search
    Explanation
    The help functions available in Manager include Video Tutorials, Index, Product Tour, Contact Us, and Search. These functions provide various ways for users to access assistance and support while using the Manager software. Video Tutorials offer visual guidance and step-by-step instructions, while the Index allows users to quickly find specific topics or features. The Product Tour provides an overview of the software's capabilities, and Contact Us allows users to reach out to the support team for further assistance. The Search function helps users find specific information or solutions by searching through the available resources.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the licensing of PRI-U channels? (Choose four)

    • A.

      Extended licenses are used based on the slots, from left to right.

    • B.

      T1/E1-R2 licenses are used for each channel which is set as in service

    • C.

      Maximum of 6 channels can be operated without a license for each PCB (port).

    • D.

      ETSI/QSIG licenses are used based on the number of calls in progress.

    • E.

      Incoming calls can be rejected if there are insufficient licenses

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Extended licenses are used based on the slots, from left to right.
    B. T1/E1-R2 licenses are used for each channel which is set as in service
    D. ETSI/QSIG licenses are used based on the number of calls in progress.
    E. Incoming calls can be rejected if there are insufficient licenses
    Explanation
    1) Extended licenses are used based on the slots, from left to right: This means that the licensing for PRI-U channels is determined by the order in which the slots are arranged, starting from the leftmost slot.
    2) T1/E1-R2 licenses are used for each channel which is set as in service: This implies that a separate license is required for each channel that is activated and in use.
    3) ETSI/QSIG licenses are used based on the number of calls in progress: This indicates that the licensing for ETSI/QSIG protocols is determined by the number of active calls at any given time.
    4) Incoming calls can be rejected if there are insufficient licenses: This means that if there are not enough available licenses to handle incoming calls, the system has the capability to reject those calls.

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  • 10. 

    How many plug-in card slots exist in IP Office 500 V2?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    The IP Office 500 V2 has 4 plug-in card slots available.

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  • 11. 

    How many external expansion modules does IP Office 500 V2 support?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    D. 12
    Explanation
    The IP Office 500 V2 supports 12 external expansion modules. This means that the system can be expanded by connecting up to 12 additional modules to increase its capacity and functionality. These modules can include items such as additional phone lines, extensions, or other features that enhance the capabilities of the IP Office system.

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  • 12. 

    How many external expansion modules does the rear panel of IP Office 500 V2 support?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 8
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8. This means that the rear panel of IP Office 500 V2 supports a total of 8 external expansion modules.

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  • 13. 

    How do you upgrade IP Office units to a new software version?

    • A.

      1. File 2. Advanced 3. Upgrade 4. Type password 5. Click OK 6. Click Upgrade 7. Select Unit

    • B.

      1. File 2. Advanced 3. Upgrade 4. Select Unit 5. Click Upgrade 6. Type password 7. Click OK

    • C.

      1. File 2. Advanced 3. Upgrade 4. Select Unit 5. Click OK 6. Type password 7. Click Upgrade

    • D.

      1. File 2. Advanced 3. Upgrade 4. Type password 5. Click Upgrade 6. Select Unit 7. Click OK

    Correct Answer
    B. 1. File 2. Advanced 3. Upgrade 4. Select Unit 5. Click Upgrade 6. Type password 7. Click OK
    Explanation
    To upgrade IP Office units to a new software version, you need to follow these steps:
    1. Go to the "File" menu.
    2. Select "Advanced" from the options.
    3. Choose "Upgrade" from the menu.
    4. Select the specific unit you want to upgrade.
    5. Click on the "Upgrade" button.
    6. Enter the required password.
    7. Click "OK" to confirm the upgrade process.

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  • 14. 

    Which two system users exist by default in the IP Office configuration and cannot be deleted? (Choose two)

    • A.

      NoUser

    • B.

      Hot Desking User

    • C.

      Standard User

    • D.

      RemoteManager

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. NoUser
    D. RemoteManager
    Explanation
    NoUser and RemoteManager are two system users that exist by default in the IP Office configuration and cannot be deleted. NoUser is a special user that is used when no user is logged in, and RemoteManager is a system user that is used for remote management of the IP Office system. These users are essential for the proper functioning and administration of the system and cannot be removed.

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  • 15. 

    What is the benefit of using short codes with the Dial feature in IP Office? .

    • A.

      To pass on the dialing information only to the line group IDs

    • B.

      To pass on the dialing information only to the locale

    • C.

      To pass on the dialing information only to the ARS tables

    • D.

      To pass on the dialing information not only to the line group IDs, but also to the ARS tables

    Correct Answer
    D. To pass on the dialing information not only to the line group IDs, but also to the ARS tables
    Explanation
    Short codes are used with the Dial feature in IP Office to pass on dialing information not only to the line group IDs but also to the ARS (Automatic Route Selection) tables. This means that when a short code is dialed, the call will be directed to the specified line group IDs as well as the ARS tables, allowing for more flexibility and routing options. This can be beneficial in situations where specific routing rules need to be applied based on the dialed number or other criteria.

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  • 16. 

    For a call between two IP telephony devices, Avaya IP Office uses a Voice Compression Channel for call setup and what other condition?

    • A.

      The devices are in two different countries

    • B.

      The devices use DTMF tones

    • C.

      The devices use different codec types, such as G.729 and G.723

    • D.

      The devices are not using Networking (SCN)

    Correct Answer
    D. The devices are not using Networking (SCN)
    Explanation
    Avaya IP Office uses a Voice Compression Channel for call setup when the devices are not using Networking (SCN). This means that the call setup process does not rely on the networking capabilities of the devices. Instead, it uses the Voice Compression Channel to establish the call connection between the IP telephony devices. This allows for efficient and reliable call setup even if the devices are not connected through a network or if the network is not available.

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  • 17. 

    For an IP Office wireless network, a Service Set Identifier (SSID) ensures which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Non-802.11b wireless devices can still connect to the IP Office wireless LAN.

    • B.

      Wireless devices with an SSID matching that of the network are given priority over non-matching wireless devices.

    • C.

      Wireless devices can communicate directly to each other without using the IP Office wireless LAN.

    • D.

      Only those wireless devices with a matching SSID to that of the wireless network can connect

    Correct Answer
    C. Wireless devices can communicate directly to each other without using the IP Office wireless LAN.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that wireless devices can communicate directly to each other without using the IP Office wireless LAN. This means that devices can establish peer-to-peer connections without relying on the network infrastructure. This can be useful for direct file sharing or communication between devices without the need for an intermediary network.

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  • 18. 

    What is Quality of Service (QoS)?    

    • A.

      A mechanism of prioritizing certain IP packets over other IP packets.

    • B.

      A method of compressing VoIP packets.

    • C.

      A measurement of IP network efficiency.

    • D.

      The amount of time that passes between the transmission and receipt of a VoIP packet.

    Correct Answer
    A. A mechanism of prioritizing certain IP packets over other IP packets.
    Explanation
    Quality of Service (QoS) refers to a mechanism that allows certain IP packets to be prioritized over others. This prioritization ensures that critical data, such as real-time voice or video, is given higher priority and is transmitted with minimal delay and packet loss. By implementing QoS, network administrators can allocate network resources effectively, ensuring a better user experience for time-sensitive applications and preventing congestion or bottlenecks.

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  • 19. 

    What does SIP stand for?

    • A.

      Simple IP Protocol

    • B.

      Silence-suppression Integration for Phones

    • C.

      Secondary Internet Protocol

    • D.

      Session Initiation Protocol

    Correct Answer
    D. Session Initiation Protocol
    Explanation
    SIP stands for Session Initiation Protocol. It is a signaling protocol used for initiating, modifying, and terminating real-time sessions that involve video, voice, messaging, and other communications applications and services. SIP is widely used in Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) systems and is responsible for establishing and managing communication sessions between different devices or endpoints.

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  • 20. 

    For what purpose does IP Office use Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) and H.323 protocols?

    • A.

      For connecting to Small Community Networking.

    • B.

      For discovering control units in the IP Office network.

    • C.

      For transmitting VoIP.

    • D.

      For uploading software updates

    Correct Answer
    C. For transmitting VoIP.
    Explanation
    IP Office uses Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) and H.323 protocols for transmitting VoIP. These protocols are used to establish and manage communication sessions over IP networks, allowing the IP Office system to transmit voice calls over the internet. By utilizing SIP and H.323, IP Office can convert analog voice signals into digital data packets and transmit them over IP networks, enabling voice communication over the internet.

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  • 21. 

    If "use user data" is specified in the SIP configuration form in the SIP URI tab...

    • A.

      ...users may send hyperlinks to preferred web-pages during call setup.

    • B.

      ...the user's individual SIP URI settings will be used when establishing calls.

    • C.

      ...a user may specify any additional data to be sent with the SIP-messages.

    • D.

      ..a user-specified port and IP is used when initiating a call via SIP.

    Correct Answer
    B. ...the user's individual SIP URI settings will be used when establishing calls.
    Explanation
    If "use user data" is specified in the SIP configuration form in the SIP URI tab, it means that the user's individual SIP URI settings will be used when establishing calls. This indicates that the user's specific preferences and settings related to SIP URIs will be taken into account during the call setup process.

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  • 22. 

    An IP Office control unit can query what type of server to retrieve and store contact information, such as names and telephone numbers?

    • A.

      Microsoft® Internet Information Server (IIS).

    • B.

      Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP) server.

    • C.

      Domain Name Service (DNS) server.

    • D.

      Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server

    Correct Answer
    D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. An IP Office control unit can query an LDAP server to retrieve and store contact information, such as names and telephone numbers. LDAP is a protocol used for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an IP network. It provides a way for the IP Office control unit to access a centralized directory of contact information stored on an LDAP server. This allows for efficient and centralized management of contact information within an organization.

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  • 23. 

    The Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) enables an IP Office control unit to:

    • A.

      Send core software upgrades to a remote control unit.

    • B.

      Automatically download software upgrades.

    • C.

      Receive software upgrades from a PC using IP Office Manager and automatically restart.

    • D.

      Reset specific extensions that are connected to the control unit.

    Correct Answer
    C. Receive software upgrades from a PC using IP Office Manager and automatically restart.
    Explanation
    The Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) enables an IP Office control unit to receive software upgrades from a PC using IP Office Manager and automatically restart. This means that the control unit can easily update its software by downloading it from a PC and then automatically restarting to apply the updates. This allows for seamless and efficient software upgrades on the IP Office control unit.

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  • 24. 

    On the System > LAN1 tab, the default IP address of 192.168.42.1 is what?

    • A.

      The license server

    • B.

      The IP Office control unit address

    • C.

      The PC running IP Office Manager

    • D.

      The DNS server

    Correct Answer
    B. The IP Office control unit address
    Explanation
    The default IP address of 192.168.42.1 on the System > LAN1 tab refers to the IP Office control unit address. This means that the IP Office control unit, which is the main device responsible for managing the IP Office system, is assigned this IP address by default. It is important to note that this IP address can be changed if necessary, but the default value is 192.168.42.1.

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  • 25. 

    The System > Voicemail tab enables you to specify:

    • A.

      Which extensions are allowed to use voice messaging.

    • B.

      The number of recording minutes available to each user.

    • C.

      The voice messaging system in use in your telephony environment.

    • D.

      The voice messaging extension number

    Correct Answer
    C. The voice messaging system in use in your telephony environment.
    Explanation
    The System > Voicemail tab allows you to specify the voice messaging system that is being used in your telephony environment. This means that you can configure the settings and options related to the specific voice messaging system that is integrated with your telephony system. This could include features such as setting up voicemail boxes, configuring greetings, and managing voicemail settings.

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  • 26. 

    To access network locations using Uniform Resource Locators, a PC requires?

    • A.

      Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP) server

    • B.

      File Transfer Protocol (FTP) server

    • C.

      Domain Name Service (DNS) server

    • D.

      Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) server

    Correct Answer
    C. Domain Name Service (DNS) server
    Explanation
    A PC requires a Domain Name Service (DNS) server to access network locations using Uniform Resource Locators (URLs). The DNS server is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, allowing the PC to establish connections with network locations. By querying the DNS server, the PC can obtain the IP address associated with a specific URL, enabling it to connect to the desired network location. DHCP, FTP, and WINS servers are not directly involved in the process of accessing network locations using URLs.

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  • 27. 

    What is one use for source numbers?

    • A.

      They define the user's CLI (Calling Line Identification).

    • B.

      Numbers added here can call a user even if he is in "Do Not Disturb" state.

    • C.

      Codes can be entered in here to e.g. allow users to collect their VoiceMail (IP Office Mode) without having to enter a password.

    • D.

      The numbers listed in here are allowed to dial in to IP Office using the user's name and password in PAP/CHAP authentication.

    Correct Answer
    C. Codes can be entered in here to e.g. allow users to collect their VoiceMail (IP Office Mode) without having to enter a password.
    Explanation
    Source numbers can be used to enter codes that allow users to collect their VoiceMail in IP Office Mode without needing to enter a password.

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  • 28. 

    What does STUN stand for?

    • A.

      Simple Traversal of UDP through NAT (Network Address Translation) Routers

    • B.

      Static Telephony User Numbering scheme

    • C.

      Stable Trunk Usage Necessity

    • D.

      System Telephony for Unorganized Networks

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple Traversal of UDP through NAT (Network Address Translation) Routers
    Explanation
    STUN stands for Simple Traversal of UDP through NAT (Network Address Translation) Routers. This protocol is used to discover and configure network settings for devices behind a NAT router or firewall. It allows devices to determine their public IP address and the type of NAT they are behind, enabling them to establish direct peer-to-peer communication with other devices on the internet.

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  • 29. 

    A STUN Server is needed if...

    • A.

      ...H.323 should be used over the internet.

    • B.

      ...a NAT router/firewall is located between IP Office and the Internet.

    • C.

      ...dial in should be allowed for any user.

    • D.

      ...IP phones should load their software directly from the IP Office.

    Correct Answer
    B. ...a NAT router/firewall is located between IP Office and the Internet.
    Explanation
    A STUN Server is needed if a NAT router/firewall is located between IP Office and the Internet. This is because a STUN (Session Traversal Utilities for NAT) server allows devices behind a NAT router to discover their public IP address and the type of NAT being used. This information is necessary for establishing communication between devices on a private network and the Internet. Without a STUN server, the NAT router may block or interfere with the communication, resulting in connectivity issues.

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  • 30. 

    Which option has to be set in the user configuration for RAS access?

    • A.

      Name

    • B.

      Any Data

    • C.

      PAP and CHAP

    • D.

      Dial In On

    Correct Answer
    D. Dial In On
    Explanation
    The option that needs to be set in the user configuration for RAS access is "Dial In On". This setting allows the user to connect to the network remotely using the RAS (Remote Access Service) feature. By selecting this option, the user will be able to establish a dial-up connection to the network and access resources and services remotely.

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  • 31. 

    What is the standard user configuration for RAS access to the network of IP Office?

    • A.

      CCC Agent

    • B.

      Hot Desking User

    • C.

      Standard User

    • D.

      RemoteManager

    Correct Answer
    D. RemoteManager
    Explanation
    The standard user configuration for RAS access to the network of IP Office is RemoteManager. This user has the ability to remotely manage and access the IP Office system. They can perform tasks such as configuring settings, monitoring the system, and making changes to the network. This user role is specifically designed for remote management purposes, allowing authorized individuals to access and control the IP Office system from a remote location.

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  • 32. 

    Which statement corresponding to Alternate Route Selection is correct?

    • A.

      Different routes can be cascaded deeply so that very fine selection algorithms become possible.

    • B.

      ARS provides a means to specify incoming call routes based on short codes.

    • C.

      With ARS it becomes possible to define a maximum of three different call routes, should one line not be available.

    • D.

      ARS makes it possible to have multiple IP routes for one target IP address. The hop count is the deciding value for the route chosen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Different routes can be cascaded deeply so that very fine selection algorithms become possible.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Different routes can be cascaded deeply so that very fine selection algorithms become possible." This statement explains that Alternate Route Selection (ARS) allows for the cascading of different routes, enabling the use of more precise selection algorithms. By cascading routes, it becomes possible to have more control and flexibility in determining the best route for incoming calls. This allows for more granular and advanced selection algorithms to be implemented, resulting in better routing decisions.

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  • 33. 

    The Visual Voice feature is available with which installations?

    • A.

      VoiceMail Lite, VoiceMail Pro and Embedded VoiceMail

    • B.

      Only VoiceMail Pro

    • C.

      Only Embeeded VoiceMail

    • D.

      VoiceMail Pro and Embedded Voicemail

    Correct Answer
    D. VoiceMail Pro and Embedded Voicemail
    Explanation
    The Visual Voice feature is available with VoiceMail Pro and Embedded VoiceMail installations.

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  • 34. 

    What is the Visual Voice feature used for?

    • A.

      It provides a button and an underlying menu to control a user's VoiceMail box.

    • B.

      It shows the current utilization of voice compression channels in IP Office.

    • C.

      It provides a screen display of the currently picked up voice signal's volume and spectrum.

    • D.

      With VoiceMail Pro, this feature allows to have incoming mails for a user read by a text-to-speech system.

    Correct Answer
    A. It provides a button and an underlying menu to control a user's VoiceMail box.
    Explanation
    The Visual Voice feature is used to provide a button and an underlying menu that allows users to control their VoiceMail box. This means that users can easily access and manage their VoiceMail messages through a visual interface, rather than having to navigate through a complex menu system or use traditional phone commands. This feature enhances the user experience and simplifies the process of managing VoiceMail messages.

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  • 35. 

    What does the no answer time define for sequential groups?

    • A.

      After this time, a hunt group call is forwarded to an overflow group.

    • B.

      After this time, the call is presented to the next group member if it hasn't been taken.

    • C.

      The delay before a call is forwarded to VoiceMail.

    • D.

      A ringing outgoing call is ended automatically after this time.

    Correct Answer
    B. After this time, the call is presented to the next group member if it hasn't been taken.
    Explanation
    The no answer time defines the duration after which a call in sequential groups is presented to the next group member if it hasn't been answered. This means that if a call is not picked up by any member of the group within the specified time, it will be automatically forwarded to the next available member in the group.

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  • 36. 

    Which statement referring to routing of incoming calls is correct?

    • A.

      An incoming number is compared from right to left by default.

    • B.

      An incoming number is forced to be compared from right to left using the minus sign (-) before any other digit.

    • C.

      The letter X stands for any number of incoming digits in the incoming number.

    • D.

      An asterisk can be placed in the incoming number field to not have the caller see the incoming CLI.

    Correct Answer
    A. An incoming number is compared from right to left by default.
    Explanation
    By default, when routing incoming calls, the incoming number is compared from right to left. This means that the system will start comparing the incoming number with the routing rules from the rightmost digit and continue towards the left until a match is found. This is the correct statement regarding the routing of incoming calls.

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  • 37. 

    Which statement regarding mobile twinning is correct?

    • A.

      It does not have to be licensed.

    • B.

      If an account code is used, the users can enter the code when they answer a call at the external telephone.

    • C.

      If follow me is selected, both the follow me extension and the external telephone number will ring.

    • D.

      Licensed mobile twinning allows twinning with external phone numbers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Licensed mobile twinning allows twinning with external phone numbers.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that licensed mobile twinning allows twinning with external phone numbers. This means that with the appropriate license, users can pair their mobile device with an external telephone number, allowing both devices to ring simultaneously when a call is received. This feature is useful for ensuring that important calls are not missed, as it allows users to answer calls on either their mobile device or an external telephone.

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  • 38. 

    The coverage appearance button is used to...

    • A.

      ...determine the state of a hunt group's queue.

    • B.

      ...call all other members of a user's hunt group.

    • C.

      ...view the display of the associated user's phone.

    • D.

      ...allow notification of an incoming call on the associated user's phone

    Correct Answer
    D. ...allow notification of an incoming call on the associated user's phone
    Explanation
    The coverage appearance button is used to allow notification of an incoming call on the associated user's phone. This means that when there is an incoming call to the user's phone, the coverage appearance button will notify the user and indicate that there is an incoming call. This allows the user to easily and quickly respond to the call.

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  • 39. 

    The bridged appearance button ...

    • A.

      ...is used to toggle the state of a user's visibility in applications like SoftConsole and Phone Manager in a Small Community Network.

    • B.

      ...displays the state of another user's appearance button and can be used to accept calls for that user.

    • C.

      ...is used to display a Conference Center's bridge state (active, inactive, full, empty).

    • D.

      ...displays if there is a message in a user's VoiceMail box.

    Correct Answer
    B. ...displays the state of another user's appearance button and can be used to accept calls for that user.
    Explanation
    The bridged appearance button displays the state of another user's appearance button and can be used to accept calls for that user. This means that when the bridged appearance button is activated, the user can see the status of another user's availability and can answer calls on their behalf. This feature is useful in situations where a user may be busy or unavailable, allowing someone else to handle their incoming calls.

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  • 40. 

    A user using an analog modem can dial in to IP Office 500 if ...

    • A.

      ... an IP 400 Modem12 Card has been built in to IP Office.

    • B.

      ... he has a modem and the number from which he is calling is placed in the source numbers field.

    • C.

      ... he switches his modem to bearer capability "data" and dials a predefined number.

    • D.

      ... his call arrives on the first line of an analog trunk card and the modem of IP Office has been activated for that call.

    Correct Answer
    D. ... his call arrives on the first line of an analog trunk card and the modem of IP Office has been activated for that call.
    Explanation
    If a user using an analog modem wants to dial in to IP Office 500, it can only happen if his call arrives on the first line of an analog trunk card and the modem of IP Office has been activated for that call. This means that the IP Office system is configured to recognize and accept incoming calls from analog modems on the first line of the analog trunk card, and the modem functionality of the IP Office system has been enabled for that specific call.

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  • 41. 

    What has to be ensured if two IP Offices should be able to communicate with each other when two networks with different IP-subnets are linked via a router?  

    • A.

      Such a link cannot be established using IP Office.

    • B.

      IP routes have to be defined in IP Office.

    • C.

      The extension numbering scheme must be different on both sides.

    • D.

      IP Office has to be configured as an NAT router.

    Correct Answer
    B. IP routes have to be defined in IP Office.
    Explanation
    In order for two networks with different IP-subnets to communicate with each other via a router, IP routes need to be defined in the IP Office. IP routes allow the router to know where to send the network traffic based on the destination IP address. By defining the appropriate IP routes, the router can forward the packets between the two networks, enabling communication between the IP Offices.

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  • 42. 

    What is the difference between agents and hot desking users?

    • A.

      Hot desking users become agents as soon as they are added to a hunt group.

    • B.

      Hot desking users are not required to have "force login" enabled while Agents are.

    • C.

      There is no difference.

    • D.

      Hot desking users can change physical extensions by logging on and off, while agents cannot.

    Correct Answer
    B. Hot desking users are not required to have "force login" enabled while Agents are.
    Explanation
    Hot desking users and agents are differentiated by the requirement of having "force login" enabled. Hot desking users do not need to enable this feature, whereas agents are required to have it enabled. This implies that agents have a stricter login process compared to hot desking users.

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  • 43. 

    What does "N" stand for in a short code?

    • A.

      Any number of dialed digits.

    • B.

      The name of the dialing user.

    • C.

      ISDN - National number plan dialing.

    • D.

      The line group used for an outgoing call

    Correct Answer
    A. Any number of dialed digits.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Any number of dialed digits." In a short code, "N" represents any number that can be dialed. This means that "N" can be replaced by any sequence of digits, allowing for flexibility in creating short codes for various purposes.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following advantages is true for IP Office with two separated LAN ports?

    • A.

      No need to configure VLANs to connect to an internal and an external network.

    • B.

      Both network ports have different IP addresses.

    • C.

      Possibility to set up routes between both interfaces.

    • D.

      All answers listed.

    Correct Answer
    D. All answers listed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All answers listed." This means that all of the advantages mentioned in the question are true for IP Office with two separated LAN ports. There is no need to configure VLANs to connect to internal and external networks, both network ports have different IP addresses, and it is possible to set up routes between both interfaces.

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  • 45. 

    Enabling which setting removes the need for a VCM channel during IP to IP calls?

    • A.

      Out Of Band DTMF

    • B.

      Voice Networking

    • C.

      Allow Direct Media Path

    • D.

      Enable Faststart

    Correct Answer
    C. Allow Direct Media Path
    Explanation
    Allow Direct Media Path is the correct answer because enabling this setting allows the media stream to flow directly between the endpoints without the need for a Voice Channel Module (VCM) channel. This setting helps to optimize IP to IP calls by reducing latency and improving call quality.

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  • 46. 

    Which feature of text-to-speech allows a user to listen to an e-mail using the telephone?

    • A.

      Alphanumeric Collection

    • B.

      Email Reading

    • C.

      Call Routing

    • D.

      Ability to connect to other systems through multiple voice mail protocols

    Correct Answer
    B. Email Reading
    Explanation
    The feature of text-to-speech that allows a user to listen to an e-mail using the telephone is Email Reading. This feature converts the text of an e-mail into spoken words, allowing the user to listen to the content of the e-mail rather than reading it visually.

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  • 47. 

    Assuming you have the appropriate licensing, which of the following items must be in place for the e-mail reading feature to function?

    • A.

      The Voice Recording Library must be installed.

    • B.

      Only one language for email reading can be selected from the user local setting or system local setting.

    • C.

      The user's e-mail address must be configured in Manager.

    • D.

      Avaya IP Office VoiceMail Pro must be running in IP Office mode, not Intuity mode.

    Correct Answer
    C. The user's e-mail address must be configured in Manager.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the user's e-mail address must be configured in Manager. This means that in order for the e-mail reading feature to function, the user's e-mail address needs to be set up and configured in the Manager software. Without this configuration, the feature will not be able to access and read the user's e-mails.

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  • 48. 

    A(n)                          prompts callers to take action on the line in order to direct their calls.

    • A.

      Call Route

    • B.

      Call Flow

    • C.

      Short Code

    • D.

      Auto Attendant

    Correct Answer
    D. Auto Attendant
    Explanation
    An auto attendant is a feature of a phone system that prompts callers to take action on the line in order to direct their calls. It typically presents a menu of options to the caller, such as "Press 1 for sales, press 2 for support, press 3 for billing," and so on. The caller can then choose the appropriate option to be directed to the desired department or individual. This allows for efficient call routing and ensures that callers are directed to the right place without the need for human intervention.

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  • 49. 

    In an IP Office 500 V2 default configuration, when the LAN1 IP address is 192.168.42.1, which are possible IP addresses in the default range for the internal DHCP server? (Choose two)

    • A.

      192.168.42.1

    • B.

      192.168.42.2

    • C.

      192.168.42.200

    • D.

      192.168.42.222

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. 192.168.42.2
    C. 192.168.42.200
    Explanation
    The possible IP addresses in the default range for the internal DHCP server in an IP Office 500 V2 default configuration with a LAN1 IP address of 192.168.42.1 are 192.168.42.2 and 192.168.42.200.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following best describes Avaya IP Office ContactStore?

    • A.

      The only voice application which creates voice recordings.

    • B.

      Translates voice recordings into multiple languages.

    • C.

      Automatically sends voice recordings to conference participants.

    • D.

      Provides search and retrieval for call recordings.

    Correct Answer
    D. Provides search and retrieval for call recordings.
    Explanation
    Avaya IP Office ContactStore is a system that allows users to search and retrieve call recordings. This means that users can easily access and find specific call recordings they are looking for. It does not create voice recordings, translate them into multiple languages, or automatically send them to conference participants. Its main function is to provide a search and retrieval feature for call recordings.

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