Aseptic II Practice Exame

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  • 1/83 Questions

    When working in an LAFH, you need work within _______ inside hood

    • 3 inches
    • 4 inches
    • 6 inches
    • 1 foot
    • None of the above
Please wait...
About This Quiz

The 'Aseptic II Practice Exam' assesses knowledge crucial for handling IV medications, working in a Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC), and preparing Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) with a focus on aseptic techniques and safety standards in pharmacy practices.

Aseptic II Practice Exame - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the abbreviation for tatol parenteral nutrition?

    • PPN

    • HA

    • TPN

    • TIVN

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. TPN
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for total parenteral nutrition is TPN. This method involves providing nutrition through intravenous means when a person is unable to consume food orally. PPN stands for partial parenteral nutrition, HA is not a recognized abbreviation for this term, and TIVN is not a commonly used abbreviation in the context of parenteral nutrition. Therefore, the correct answer is TPN.

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  • 3. 

    Needles used to prepare IV solutions should be disposed in?

    • Biohazard Container

    • Autoclave

    • Sharp's Container

    • Trash

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Sharp's Container
    Explanation
    Needles used to prepare IV solutions should be disposed in a Sharp's Container because they are considered sharp medical waste and pose a risk of injury and infection if not properly disposed. A Sharp's Container is specifically designed to safely collect and contain sharps such as needles, preventing accidental needle sticks and ensuring proper disposal. Biohazard containers are typically used for other types of medical waste, such as contaminated gloves or gauze. The autoclave is used for sterilization, not disposal. Trash is not a suitable option as it does not provide the necessary safety measures for sharp waste.

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  • 4. 

    What is the generic for Dilantin?

    • Divalproic Acid

    • Phenytoin

    • Valproate

    • Fosphenytoin

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenytoin
    Explanation
    Phenytoin is the generic name for Dilantin. Generic names are the non-proprietary names of drugs, while brand names like Dilantin are specific to a particular manufacturer. Therefore, Phenytoin is the correct answer as it represents the generic form of the medication.

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  • 5. 

    What is the brand for furosemide?

    • Diuril

    • Dyazide

    • Lasix

    • Lanoxin

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Lasix
    Explanation
    Lasix is the brand name for furosemide.

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  • 6. 

    The generic for Vancocin is

    • Voriconazole

    • Varicella

    • Vancomycin

    • Vfend

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Vancomycin
    Explanation
    Vancomycin is the generic name for the drug Vancocin. The question is asking for the generic name of Vancocin, and out of the given options, Vancomycin is the correct answer.

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  • 7. 

    Glass Ampoules must always be filtered

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Glass ampoules must always be filtered because they are typically used to store and distribute sterile liquids or medications. Filtering the contents of the ampoule helps to remove any impurities or particles that may be present, ensuring that the liquid remains sterile and safe for use. This step is crucial in maintaining the integrity and quality of the product inside the ampoule.

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  • 8. 

    GERD stands for gastroesophageal reflux disease

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The correct answer is true because GERD stands for gastroesophageal reflux disease. GERD is a chronic digestive disorder where stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing. By understanding the acronym, one can easily identify that GERD is an abbreviation for gastroesophageal reflux disease.

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  • 9. 

    BSA stands for

    • Basal surface area

    • Body, Size, Area

    • Body surface area

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Body surface area
    Explanation
    BSA stands for Body Surface Area. This term refers to the total surface area of a person's body, including the skin. It is commonly used in medicine and pharmacology to calculate drug dosages, as the dosage often depends on the individual's body surface area. The other options, Basal Surface Area and Body, Size, Area, are not correct definitions for BSA. Therefore, the correct answer is Body Surface Area.

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  • 10. 

    What is the brand for diltiazem?

    • Demadex

    • Depacon

    • DDAVP

    • Cardizem

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardizem
    Explanation
    Cardizem is the correct answer because it is a brand name for diltiazem. Diltiazem is a medication that belongs to the calcium channel blocker class and is commonly used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions. Demadex, Depacon, and DDAVP are not related to diltiazem and are used for different medical purposes. Therefore, the correct brand name for diltiazem is Cardizem.

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  • 11. 

    What is the generic for Zantac?

    • Nizatidine

    • Cimetidine

    • Amantadine

    • Zantidine

    • Ranitidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ranitidine
    Explanation
    Ranitidine is the generic name for Zantac. Generic drugs are identical or bioequivalent to their brand-name counterparts in terms of dosage form, strength, route of administration, quality, and intended use. Therefore, Ranitidine is the correct generic for Zantac.

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  • 12. 

    Gloves should be worn when using aseptic technique

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When using aseptic technique, it is important to wear gloves to prevent contamination. Aseptic technique involves creating a sterile environment to minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. Wearing gloves acts as a barrier between the hands and the objects being handled, reducing the chance of transferring bacteria or other contaminants. This helps maintain the sterility of the procedure and ensures the safety of both the person performing the technique and the patient. Therefore, the statement "Gloves should be worn when using aseptic technique" is true.

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  • 13. 

    What is the brand for IV metronidazole?

    • Metrogel

    • Sporanox

    • Flagyl

    • Diflucan

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Flagyl
    Explanation
    Flagyl is the correct answer because it is the brand name for IV metronidazole. Metronidazole is an antibiotic used to treat various infections caused by bacteria and parasites. Flagyl is commonly used to treat infections in the gastrointestinal tract, reproductive system, and skin. Sporanox is a brand name for itraconazole, which is an antifungal medication. Metrogel is a brand name for metronidazole gel, which is used topically to treat rosacea. Diflucan is a brand name for fluconazole, which is an antifungal medication. Therefore, none of the other options are correct for the brand name of IV metronidazole.

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  • 14. 

    The largest needle is:

    • 25 gauge

    • 20 gauge

    • 18 gauge

    • 16 gauge

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 gauge
    Explanation
    The largest needle size is determined by the gauge measurement. The gauge number represents the diameter of the needle, with a higher gauge number indicating a smaller needle. Therefore, the correct answer is 16 gauge, as it has a larger diameter compared to the other options listed.

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  • 15. 

    All of these are considered Peripheral line areas except:

    • Hand

    • Arm

    • Foot

    • Femoral

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Femoral
    Explanation
    The femoral area is not considered a peripheral line area because it is located in the upper thigh region, which is closer to the central part of the body. The hand, arm, and foot are all examples of peripheral line areas because they are located further away from the central part of the body.

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  • 16. 

    ICU stands for

    • Intense cardiac unit

    • I see You

    • Intrathecal cathether unit

    • Intensive care unit

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Intensive care unit
    Explanation
    ICU stands for Intensive Care Unit, which is a specialized medical unit in a hospital that provides intensive care to patients who are critically ill or injured. The ICU is equipped with advanced medical equipment and staffed by highly trained healthcare professionals to monitor and treat patients who require close monitoring and support for their vital functions. The other options, such as Intense cardiac unit, I see You, and Intrathecal cathether unit, are not correct as they do not accurately represent the purpose or function of an ICU.

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  • 17. 

    SOB stands for

    • Shortness of Breath

    • Shortness of Breast

    • Son of a B*&#%

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Shortness of Breath
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Shortness of Breath." SOB is an abbreviation commonly used in medical contexts to refer to the symptom of feeling breathless or having difficulty breathing. It is not related to the other options provided, which are incorrect or inappropriate interpretations of the abbreviation.

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  • 18. 

    Gowning is required when making IV's

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Gowning is necessary when making IVs because it helps to maintain a sterile environment. IVs involve inserting a needle into a patient's vein, which can introduce bacteria or other contaminants into the bloodstream if proper precautions are not taken. Gowning, along with other measures such as wearing gloves and using sterile equipment, helps to minimize the risk of infection and ensure patient safety.

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  • 19. 

    Smoking is not allowed in the clean room

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement "Smoking is not allowed in the clean room" is true. Clean rooms are highly controlled environments where the air quality and cleanliness are maintained at a specific standard. Smoking can introduce contaminants into the air, such as smoke particles and chemicals, which can compromise the cleanliness of the room and potentially damage sensitive equipment or products being manufactured in the clean room. Therefore, smoking is strictly prohibited in clean rooms to ensure the integrity and quality of the environment.

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  • 20. 

    MAB stands for monoclonal antibodies

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because MAB does indeed stand for monoclonal antibodies. Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-produced molecules that can mimic the immune system's ability to fight off harmful pathogens, such as bacteria or viruses. They are designed to target specific antigens on cells and can be used for various medical purposes, including diagnosing and treating diseases like cancer. Therefore, MAB is an acronym commonly used to refer to monoclonal antibodies.

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  • 21. 

    MRSA stands for

    • Mr Smart Angel

    • Methicillin resistant Staph Aureaus

    • Mean Resistant Student Agent

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Methicillin resistant Staph Aureaus
    Explanation
    MRSA stands for Methicillin resistant Staph Aureus. Methicillin is a type of antibiotic, and Staph Aureus is a type of bacteria. MRSA refers to a strain of Staph Aureus bacteria that is resistant to the effects of methicillin and other commonly used antibiotics. This makes MRSA infections difficult to treat and control. Therefore, the correct answer is Methicillin resistant Staph Aureus.

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  • 22. 

    The clean room has positive pressure

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A clean room typically has positive pressure to prevent the entry of contaminants from the surrounding environment. This means that the air pressure inside the clean room is higher than the pressure outside, causing air to flow outwards. This helps to keep the clean room free from particles, dust, and other pollutants that could compromise the cleanliness and integrity of the environment. By maintaining positive pressure, the clean room ensures a controlled and sterile atmosphere for sensitive processes such as manufacturing semiconductors, pharmaceuticals, or conducting scientific experiments.

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  • 23. 

    Filters that nursing uses and pharmacy tends to not use for hanging IV medications are called:

    • Membrane

    • Inline

    • Depth

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Inline
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Inline". Inline filters are used by nursing when hanging IV medications. Pharmacy tends to not use these filters.

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  • 24. 

    The brand for epinephrine is

    • Neosynephrine

    • Levophed

    • Adrenalin

    • Demadex

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Adrenalin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Adrenalin because it is a commonly used brand name for epinephrine. Epinephrine is a hormone and medication that is used to treat severe allergic reactions, asthma attacks, and cardiac arrest. Adrenalin is a well-known brand that produces epinephrine auto-injectors, which are used in emergency situations to quickly administer the medication.

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  • 25. 

    What is the generic for Cytoxan?

    • Cyclophosphamide

    • Cytarabine

    • Cisplatin

    • Carboplatin

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyclophosphamide
    Explanation
    Cyclophosphamide is the generic name for the drug Cytoxan. It is a chemotherapy medication that is used to treat various types of cancer, including lymphoma, leukemia, and breast cancer. Cyclophosphamide works by interfering with the growth and spread of cancer cells in the body. It is often used in combination with other chemotherapy drugs to increase its effectiveness.

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  • 26. 

    You can sneeze in the LAFH because it blows the germs outward

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because the LAFH (Local Air Filtration and Handling) system is designed to prevent the spread of germs and contaminants in a controlled environment. It filters the air and removes particles, including germs, rather than blowing them outward. Therefore, sneezing in the LAFH would not cause the germs to be blown outward.

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  • 27. 

    Most IV medications are given how long, after preparation to expire?

    • 6 hours

    • 24 hours

    • 2 days

    • 1 week

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    IV medications are typically given within 24 hours after preparation to expire. This is because after this time, the medication may lose its potency or become contaminated, which can pose a risk to the patient's health. Therefore, it is important to adhere to the recommended expiration time to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the medication.

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  • 28. 

    What size filter do we use with glass ampoules?

    • 0.22 micron

    • 5 micron

    • 1 micron

    • 0.5 micron

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 micron
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5 micron. This size filter is used with glass ampoules to ensure that any particulate matter or contaminants larger than 5 microns are removed, providing a clean and sterile environment for the contents of the ampoules.

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  • 29. 

    What is the generic for Zovirax?

    • Ganciclovir

    • Valacyclovir

    • Acetacyclovir

    • Acyclovir

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Acyclovir
    Explanation
    Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is the generic name for the brand name medication Zovirax. Generic drugs are identical or bioequivalent to their brand name counterparts and usually cost less. In this case, Acyclovir is the active ingredient in Zovirax and is used to treat viral infections such as herpes.

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  • 30. 

    The clean room should have

    • Negative Pressure

    • Positive Pressure

    • Equal Pressure

    • Two doors

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive Pressure
    Explanation
    Positive pressure is necessary in a clean room to prevent the entry of contaminants from the surrounding environment. By maintaining a higher air pressure inside the clean room compared to the outside, any potential contaminants are pushed away, minimizing the risk of contamination. This helps to ensure the cleanliness and integrity of the controlled environment within the clean room, making positive pressure an essential requirement.

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  • 31. 

    Aseptic Technique guidelines and facility guidelines are governed by USP, the specific chapter is:

    • 747

    • 777

    • 797

    • 711

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 797
    Explanation
    Aseptic Technique guidelines and facility guidelines are governed by USP chapter 797. This chapter specifically addresses the requirements for compounding sterile preparations in healthcare settings. It provides guidelines for maintaining sterility and preventing contamination during the preparation, storage, and administration of sterile medications. Compliance with USP chapter 797 is crucial to ensure patient safety and minimize the risk of infections associated with sterile compounding.

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  • 32. 

    The Hepa filter is located in an LAFH

    • On the sides

    • In the back

    • In the front

    • On top

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. In the back
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In the back". This suggests that the Hepa filter is positioned at the back of the LAFH (likely referring to a Laminar Air Flow Hood). This placement is important for efficient air filtration, as it allows the filter to capture and remove airborne particles before the air is released into the environment.

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  • 33. 

    Furosemide is generic for Diuril

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because Furosemide is not generic for Diuril. Furosemide is a loop diuretic medication used to treat fluid retention and high blood pressure, while Diuril is the brand name for chlorothiazide, a different type of diuretic medication. Although both medications are used to treat similar conditions, they belong to different drug classes and have different mechanisms of action. Therefore, Furosemide and Diuril are not generic equivalents.

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  • 34. 

    For glass ampules we generally use a ________ filter size:

    • 1 micron

    • 5 micron

    • 0.2 micron

    • 1.2 micron

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 micron
    Explanation
    For glass ampules, a filter size of 5 micron is generally used. This filter size helps to remove larger particles and impurities from the liquid being filled into the ampules. It provides an effective barrier to ensure the purity and integrity of the contents inside the ampules, preventing any contamination or blockages. Using a 5 micron filter size ensures that the liquid being filled into the ampules is of high quality and meets the required standards.

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  • 35. 

    What is the generic for Rocephin?

    • Cefazolin

    • Ceftazidime

    • Ceftriaxone

    • Cefixime

    • Cefuroxime

    Correct Answer
    A. Ceftriaxone
    Explanation
    Ceftriaxone is the generic name for Rocephin. Generic names are the official names given to drugs that are not brand names. Rocephin is a brand name for the medication ceftriaxone. Therefore, ceftriaxone is the correct generic name for Rocephin.

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  • 36. 

    What is the brand for esmolol?

    • BNP

    • Brevibloc

    • Demadex

    • Angiomax

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Brevibloc
    Explanation
    Brevibloc is the correct answer for the brand of esmolol. Esmolol is a medication used to treat rapid heartbeats and high blood pressure. Brevibloc is the brand name for esmolol and is commonly prescribed by healthcare professionals for these conditions. BNP, Demadex, and Angiomax are not brands for esmolol.

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  • 37. 

    What is the brand for tacrolimus?

    • Sandimmune

    • Prograf

    • BNP

    • DDAVP

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Prograf
    Explanation
    Prograf is the brand name for tacrolimus. Tacrolimus is a medication that is used to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients. It belongs to a class of drugs called immunosuppressants. Prograf works by suppressing the immune system to prevent it from attacking the transplanted organ. It is commonly prescribed for kidney, liver, and heart transplant patients. Other options listed, such as Sandimmune, BNP, DDAVP, and None of the above, are not the correct brand names for tacrolimus.

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  • 38. 

    On a syringe you can safely touch the:

    • Tip

    • Barrel

    • Plunger

    • Port

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Barrel
    Explanation
    The barrel of a syringe is the cylindrical part that holds the medication. It is safe to touch because it does not come into direct contact with the patient's body or any potentially contaminated surfaces. The tip, plunger, and port of the syringe should not be touched to maintain sterility and prevent contamination. Therefore, the correct answer is "Barrel."

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  • 39. 

    What is the angle for hand positioning when working in a BSC?

    • 30 degrees

    • 45 degrees

    • 90 degrees

    • 180 degrees

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 degrees
    Explanation
    The angle for hand positioning when working in a BSC is 45 degrees. This angle allows for a comfortable and ergonomic position while working, reducing strain on the wrists and arms. It also allows for better control and precision in performing tasks. A 45-degree angle is often recommended by ergonomics experts for optimal hand positioning during work.

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  • 40. 

    What is the brand for caspofungin?

    • Camptar

    • Cancida

    • Campath

    • Cardizem

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cancida
    Explanation
    Cancida is the brand name for caspofungin.

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  • 41. 

    What is the brand for nitroprusside?

    • Nitrostat

    • Nitrodur

    • Nipride

    • Presside

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Nipride
    Explanation
    Nipride is the correct answer for the brand of nitroprusside. Nitroprusside is a medication used to lower blood pressure. Nipride is a brand name for nitroprusside and is commonly used in medical settings for its vasodilatory effects. Nitrostat and Nitrodur are brand names for different medications, and Presside is not a known brand for nitroprusside. Therefore, the correct brand for nitroprusside is Nipride.

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  • 42. 

    Medications going in the Peripheral Line must be

    • Very concentrated

    • Less concentrated

    • Preservative Free

    • All of the Above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Less concentrated
    Explanation
    Medications going in the Peripheral Line must be less concentrated. This is because the peripheral line is a smaller vein and cannot handle highly concentrated medications. Medications that are too concentrated can cause irritation, inflammation, or damage to the vein. Therefore, it is important to dilute medications appropriately before administering them through a peripheral line to ensure patient safety and prevent complications.

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  • 43. 

    To prepare sterile products, the LAFH should be running for a minimum of _____ before use.

    • 30 seconds

    • 60 minutes

    • 30 minutes

    • 1 day

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 minutes
    Explanation
    The LAFH (Laminar Air Flow Hood) is a crucial equipment used in preparing sterile products. It provides a controlled environment with filtered air to prevent contamination. Running the LAFH for a minimum of 30 minutes before use allows it to reach a stable and clean state. This ensures that any particles or microorganisms present in the hood are eliminated, reducing the risk of contamination during the preparation of sterile products.

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  • 44. 

    1 amp of Magnesium sulfate is:

    • 4.5 meq

    • 8 meq

    • 9 meq

    • 16 meq

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 meq
    Explanation
    1 amp of Magnesium sulfate is equal to 8 meq.

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  • 45. 

    TPN's are given to

    • Cancer patients

    • Intubated patients

    • Patients on a diet

    • A & B

    • A & C

    Correct Answer
    A. A & B
    Explanation
    TPN stands for Total Parenteral Nutrition, which is a method of delivering essential nutrients directly into the bloodstream when a patient is unable to eat or digest food normally. Cancer patients often require TPN due to the side effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy, which can make it difficult to eat. Intubated patients, who have a tube inserted into their airway to assist with breathing, may also require TPN as they are unable to eat normally. Therefore, the correct answer is A & B, indicating that TPN is given to both cancer patients and intubated patients.

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  • 46. 

    What does PRN stand for?

    • As necessary

    • As needed

    • When needed

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. As needed
    Explanation
    PRN stands for "Pro re nata" which is a Latin term meaning "as needed" or "as necessary". It is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication or treatment should be administered when necessary, rather than on a fixed schedule. Therefore, the correct answer is "As needed".

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  • 47. 

    PCN stands for

    • Peripheral concentrated Neo Drip

    • Penicillin

    • Patient Controlled Narcotics

    • Patented Control Nerves

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Penicillin
    Explanation
    PCN stands for Penicillin. Penicillin is a group of antibiotics used to treat various bacterial infections. It is derived from the fungus Penicillium and is one of the most widely used antibiotics in the world. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria or killing them, thereby helping to eliminate the infection. Penicillin is used to treat a wide range of infections, including respiratory tract infections, skin infections, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted diseases. It is available in different forms, such as tablets, capsules, and injections, and is prescribed by healthcare professionals based on the specific infection and patient's condition.

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  • 48. 

    PCA stands for

    • Patient Control Area

    • Patient Control Analgesia

    • Pain in the center of the aorta

    • Manufacture expiration

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient Control Analgesia
    Explanation
    PCA stands for Patient Control Analgesia. Patient-controlled analgesia is a method of pain management that allows patients to self-administer pain medication within safe limits. It involves the use of a programmable pump that delivers a controlled amount of pain medication when the patient pushes a button. This method provides patients with better pain control and allows them to actively participate in their pain management.

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  • 49. 

    SDV must be used

    • Immediately and discarded

    • Within 2 hours

    • Within 30 days

    • Within 1 week

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately and discarded
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Immediately and discarded." This means that SDV (Single Dose Vial) must be used right away and should not be kept for future use. Single Dose Vials are designed for single use only to ensure medication safety and prevent contamination. Using them immediately and discarding them helps to maintain the effectiveness and sterility of the medication.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 13, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 13, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 03, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Talynstarburst
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