Aseptic II Practice Exame

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1. When working in an LAFH, you need work within _______ inside hood

Explanation

When working in an LAFH (Laboratory Animal Facility Hood), it is necessary to work within 6 inches inside the hood. This is because the hood creates a controlled environment that helps to contain any hazardous substances or particles generated during the work. By working within 6 inches inside the hood, it ensures that the substances or particles are effectively captured and do not escape into the surrounding area, thus protecting the worker and maintaining a safe working environment.

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About This Quiz
Aseptic II Practice Exame - Quiz

The 'Aseptic II Practice Exam' assesses knowledge crucial for handling IV medications, working in a Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC), and preparing Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) with a focus... see moreon aseptic techniques and safety standards in pharmacy practices. see less

2. What is the abbreviation for tatol parenteral nutrition?

Explanation

The correct abbreviation for total parenteral nutrition is TPN. This method involves providing nutrition through intravenous means when a person is unable to consume food orally. PPN stands for partial parenteral nutrition, HA is not a recognized abbreviation for this term, and TIVN is not a commonly used abbreviation in the context of parenteral nutrition. Therefore, the correct answer is TPN.

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3. Needles used to prepare IV solutions should be disposed in?

Explanation

Needles used to prepare IV solutions should be disposed in a Sharp's Container because they are considered sharp medical waste and pose a risk of injury and infection if not properly disposed. A Sharp's Container is specifically designed to safely collect and contain sharps such as needles, preventing accidental needle sticks and ensuring proper disposal. Biohazard containers are typically used for other types of medical waste, such as contaminated gloves or gauze. The autoclave is used for sterilization, not disposal. Trash is not a suitable option as it does not provide the necessary safety measures for sharp waste.

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4. What is the generic for Dilantin?

Explanation

Phenytoin is the generic name for Dilantin. Generic names are the non-proprietary names of drugs, while brand names like Dilantin are specific to a particular manufacturer. Therefore, Phenytoin is the correct answer as it represents the generic form of the medication.

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5. What is the brand for furosemide?

Explanation

Lasix is the brand name for furosemide.

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6. The generic for Vancocin is

Explanation

Vancomycin is the generic name for the drug Vancocin. The question is asking for the generic name of Vancocin, and out of the given options, Vancomycin is the correct answer.

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7. Glass Ampoules must always be filtered

Explanation

Glass ampoules must always be filtered because they are typically used to store and distribute sterile liquids or medications. Filtering the contents of the ampoule helps to remove any impurities or particles that may be present, ensuring that the liquid remains sterile and safe for use. This step is crucial in maintaining the integrity and quality of the product inside the ampoule.

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8. GERD stands for gastroesophageal reflux disease

Explanation

The correct answer is true because GERD stands for gastroesophageal reflux disease. GERD is a chronic digestive disorder where stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing. By understanding the acronym, one can easily identify that GERD is an abbreviation for gastroesophageal reflux disease.

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9. BSA stands for

Explanation

BSA stands for Body Surface Area. This term refers to the total surface area of a person's body, including the skin. It is commonly used in medicine and pharmacology to calculate drug dosages, as the dosage often depends on the individual's body surface area. The other options, Basal Surface Area and Body, Size, Area, are not correct definitions for BSA. Therefore, the correct answer is Body Surface Area.

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10. What is the brand for diltiazem?

Explanation

Cardizem is the correct answer because it is a brand name for diltiazem. Diltiazem is a medication that belongs to the calcium channel blocker class and is commonly used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions. Demadex, Depacon, and DDAVP are not related to diltiazem and are used for different medical purposes. Therefore, the correct brand name for diltiazem is Cardizem.

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11. What is the generic for Zantac?

Explanation

Ranitidine is the generic name for Zantac. Generic drugs are identical or bioequivalent to their brand-name counterparts in terms of dosage form, strength, route of administration, quality, and intended use. Therefore, Ranitidine is the correct generic for Zantac.

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12. Gloves should be worn when using aseptic technique

Explanation

When using aseptic technique, it is important to wear gloves to prevent contamination. Aseptic technique involves creating a sterile environment to minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. Wearing gloves acts as a barrier between the hands and the objects being handled, reducing the chance of transferring bacteria or other contaminants. This helps maintain the sterility of the procedure and ensures the safety of both the person performing the technique and the patient. Therefore, the statement "Gloves should be worn when using aseptic technique" is true.

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13. What is the brand for IV metronidazole?

Explanation

Flagyl is the correct answer because it is the brand name for IV metronidazole. Metronidazole is an antibiotic used to treat various infections caused by bacteria and parasites. Flagyl is commonly used to treat infections in the gastrointestinal tract, reproductive system, and skin. Sporanox is a brand name for itraconazole, which is an antifungal medication. Metrogel is a brand name for metronidazole gel, which is used topically to treat rosacea. Diflucan is a brand name for fluconazole, which is an antifungal medication. Therefore, none of the other options are correct for the brand name of IV metronidazole.

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14. The largest needle is:

Explanation

The largest needle size is determined by the gauge measurement. The gauge number represents the diameter of the needle, with a higher gauge number indicating a smaller needle. Therefore, the correct answer is 16 gauge, as it has a larger diameter compared to the other options listed.

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15. All of these are considered Peripheral line areas except:

Explanation

The femoral area is not considered a peripheral line area because it is located in the upper thigh region, which is closer to the central part of the body. The hand, arm, and foot are all examples of peripheral line areas because they are located further away from the central part of the body.

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16. ICU stands for

Explanation

ICU stands for Intensive Care Unit, which is a specialized medical unit in a hospital that provides intensive care to patients who are critically ill or injured. The ICU is equipped with advanced medical equipment and staffed by highly trained healthcare professionals to monitor and treat patients who require close monitoring and support for their vital functions. The other options, such as Intense cardiac unit, I see You, and Intrathecal cathether unit, are not correct as they do not accurately represent the purpose or function of an ICU.

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17. SOB stands for

Explanation

The correct answer is "Shortness of Breath." SOB is an abbreviation commonly used in medical contexts to refer to the symptom of feeling breathless or having difficulty breathing. It is not related to the other options provided, which are incorrect or inappropriate interpretations of the abbreviation.

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18. Gowning is required when making IV's

Explanation

Gowning is necessary when making IVs because it helps to maintain a sterile environment. IVs involve inserting a needle into a patient's vein, which can introduce bacteria or other contaminants into the bloodstream if proper precautions are not taken. Gowning, along with other measures such as wearing gloves and using sterile equipment, helps to minimize the risk of infection and ensure patient safety.

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19. Smoking is not allowed in the clean room

Explanation

The statement "Smoking is not allowed in the clean room" is true. Clean rooms are highly controlled environments where the air quality and cleanliness are maintained at a specific standard. Smoking can introduce contaminants into the air, such as smoke particles and chemicals, which can compromise the cleanliness of the room and potentially damage sensitive equipment or products being manufactured in the clean room. Therefore, smoking is strictly prohibited in clean rooms to ensure the integrity and quality of the environment.

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20. MAB stands for monoclonal antibodies

Explanation

The statement is true because MAB does indeed stand for monoclonal antibodies. Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-produced molecules that can mimic the immune system's ability to fight off harmful pathogens, such as bacteria or viruses. They are designed to target specific antigens on cells and can be used for various medical purposes, including diagnosing and treating diseases like cancer. Therefore, MAB is an acronym commonly used to refer to monoclonal antibodies.

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21. MRSA stands for

Explanation

MRSA stands for Methicillin resistant Staph Aureus. Methicillin is a type of antibiotic, and Staph Aureus is a type of bacteria. MRSA refers to a strain of Staph Aureus bacteria that is resistant to the effects of methicillin and other commonly used antibiotics. This makes MRSA infections difficult to treat and control. Therefore, the correct answer is Methicillin resistant Staph Aureus.

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22. The clean room has positive pressure

Explanation

A clean room typically has positive pressure to prevent the entry of contaminants from the surrounding environment. This means that the air pressure inside the clean room is higher than the pressure outside, causing air to flow outwards. This helps to keep the clean room free from particles, dust, and other pollutants that could compromise the cleanliness and integrity of the environment. By maintaining positive pressure, the clean room ensures a controlled and sterile atmosphere for sensitive processes such as manufacturing semiconductors, pharmaceuticals, or conducting scientific experiments.

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23. Filters that nursing uses and pharmacy tends to not use for hanging IV medications are called:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Inline". Inline filters are used by nursing when hanging IV medications. Pharmacy tends to not use these filters.

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24. The brand for epinephrine is

Explanation

The correct answer is Adrenalin because it is a commonly used brand name for epinephrine. Epinephrine is a hormone and medication that is used to treat severe allergic reactions, asthma attacks, and cardiac arrest. Adrenalin is a well-known brand that produces epinephrine auto-injectors, which are used in emergency situations to quickly administer the medication.

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25. What is the generic for Cytoxan?

Explanation

Cyclophosphamide is the generic name for the drug Cytoxan. It is a chemotherapy medication that is used to treat various types of cancer, including lymphoma, leukemia, and breast cancer. Cyclophosphamide works by interfering with the growth and spread of cancer cells in the body. It is often used in combination with other chemotherapy drugs to increase its effectiveness.

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26. You can sneeze in the LAFH because it blows the germs outward

Explanation

This statement is false because the LAFH (Local Air Filtration and Handling) system is designed to prevent the spread of germs and contaminants in a controlled environment. It filters the air and removes particles, including germs, rather than blowing them outward. Therefore, sneezing in the LAFH would not cause the germs to be blown outward.

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27. Most IV medications are given how long, after preparation to expire?

Explanation

IV medications are typically given within 24 hours after preparation to expire. This is because after this time, the medication may lose its potency or become contaminated, which can pose a risk to the patient's health. Therefore, it is important to adhere to the recommended expiration time to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the medication.

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28. What size filter do we use with glass ampoules?

Explanation

The correct answer is 5 micron. This size filter is used with glass ampoules to ensure that any particulate matter or contaminants larger than 5 microns are removed, providing a clean and sterile environment for the contents of the ampoules.

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29. What is the generic for Zovirax?

Explanation

Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is the generic name for the brand name medication Zovirax. Generic drugs are identical or bioequivalent to their brand name counterparts and usually cost less. In this case, Acyclovir is the active ingredient in Zovirax and is used to treat viral infections such as herpes.

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30. The clean room should have

Explanation

Positive pressure is necessary in a clean room to prevent the entry of contaminants from the surrounding environment. By maintaining a higher air pressure inside the clean room compared to the outside, any potential contaminants are pushed away, minimizing the risk of contamination. This helps to ensure the cleanliness and integrity of the controlled environment within the clean room, making positive pressure an essential requirement.

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31. Aseptic Technique guidelines and facility guidelines are governed by USP, the specific chapter is:

Explanation

Aseptic Technique guidelines and facility guidelines are governed by USP chapter 797. This chapter specifically addresses the requirements for compounding sterile preparations in healthcare settings. It provides guidelines for maintaining sterility and preventing contamination during the preparation, storage, and administration of sterile medications. Compliance with USP chapter 797 is crucial to ensure patient safety and minimize the risk of infections associated with sterile compounding.

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32. The Hepa filter is located in an LAFH

Explanation

The correct answer is "In the back". This suggests that the Hepa filter is positioned at the back of the LAFH (likely referring to a Laminar Air Flow Hood). This placement is important for efficient air filtration, as it allows the filter to capture and remove airborne particles before the air is released into the environment.

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33. Furosemide is generic for Diuril

Explanation

The statement is false because Furosemide is not generic for Diuril. Furosemide is a loop diuretic medication used to treat fluid retention and high blood pressure, while Diuril is the brand name for chlorothiazide, a different type of diuretic medication. Although both medications are used to treat similar conditions, they belong to different drug classes and have different mechanisms of action. Therefore, Furosemide and Diuril are not generic equivalents.

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34. For glass ampules we generally use a ________ filter size:

Explanation

For glass ampules, a filter size of 5 micron is generally used. This filter size helps to remove larger particles and impurities from the liquid being filled into the ampules. It provides an effective barrier to ensure the purity and integrity of the contents inside the ampules, preventing any contamination or blockages. Using a 5 micron filter size ensures that the liquid being filled into the ampules is of high quality and meets the required standards.

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35. What is the generic for Rocephin?

Explanation

Ceftriaxone is the generic name for Rocephin. Generic names are the official names given to drugs that are not brand names. Rocephin is a brand name for the medication ceftriaxone. Therefore, ceftriaxone is the correct generic name for Rocephin.

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36. What is the brand for esmolol?

Explanation

Brevibloc is the correct answer for the brand of esmolol. Esmolol is a medication used to treat rapid heartbeats and high blood pressure. Brevibloc is the brand name for esmolol and is commonly prescribed by healthcare professionals for these conditions. BNP, Demadex, and Angiomax are not brands for esmolol.

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37. What is the brand for tacrolimus?

Explanation

Prograf is the brand name for tacrolimus. Tacrolimus is a medication that is used to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients. It belongs to a class of drugs called immunosuppressants. Prograf works by suppressing the immune system to prevent it from attacking the transplanted organ. It is commonly prescribed for kidney, liver, and heart transplant patients. Other options listed, such as Sandimmune, BNP, DDAVP, and None of the above, are not the correct brand names for tacrolimus.

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38. On a syringe you can safely touch the:

Explanation

The barrel of a syringe is the cylindrical part that holds the medication. It is safe to touch because it does not come into direct contact with the patient's body or any potentially contaminated surfaces. The tip, plunger, and port of the syringe should not be touched to maintain sterility and prevent contamination. Therefore, the correct answer is "Barrel."

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39. What is the angle for hand positioning when working in a BSC?

Explanation

The angle for hand positioning when working in a BSC is 45 degrees. This angle allows for a comfortable and ergonomic position while working, reducing strain on the wrists and arms. It also allows for better control and precision in performing tasks. A 45-degree angle is often recommended by ergonomics experts for optimal hand positioning during work.

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40. What is the brand for caspofungin?

Explanation

Cancida is the brand name for caspofungin.

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41. What is the brand for nitroprusside?

Explanation

Nipride is the correct answer for the brand of nitroprusside. Nitroprusside is a medication used to lower blood pressure. Nipride is a brand name for nitroprusside and is commonly used in medical settings for its vasodilatory effects. Nitrostat and Nitrodur are brand names for different medications, and Presside is not a known brand for nitroprusside. Therefore, the correct brand for nitroprusside is Nipride.

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42. Medications going in the Peripheral Line must be

Explanation

Medications going in the Peripheral Line must be less concentrated. This is because the peripheral line is a smaller vein and cannot handle highly concentrated medications. Medications that are too concentrated can cause irritation, inflammation, or damage to the vein. Therefore, it is important to dilute medications appropriately before administering them through a peripheral line to ensure patient safety and prevent complications.

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43. To prepare sterile products, the LAFH should be running for a minimum of _____ before use.

Explanation

The LAFH (Laminar Air Flow Hood) is a crucial equipment used in preparing sterile products. It provides a controlled environment with filtered air to prevent contamination. Running the LAFH for a minimum of 30 minutes before use allows it to reach a stable and clean state. This ensures that any particles or microorganisms present in the hood are eliminated, reducing the risk of contamination during the preparation of sterile products.

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44. 1 amp of Magnesium sulfate is:

Explanation

1 amp of Magnesium sulfate is equal to 8 meq.

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45. TPN's are given to

Explanation

TPN stands for Total Parenteral Nutrition, which is a method of delivering essential nutrients directly into the bloodstream when a patient is unable to eat or digest food normally. Cancer patients often require TPN due to the side effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy, which can make it difficult to eat. Intubated patients, who have a tube inserted into their airway to assist with breathing, may also require TPN as they are unable to eat normally. Therefore, the correct answer is A & B, indicating that TPN is given to both cancer patients and intubated patients.

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46. What does PRN stand for?

Explanation

PRN stands for "Pro re nata" which is a Latin term meaning "as needed" or "as necessary". It is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication or treatment should be administered when necessary, rather than on a fixed schedule. Therefore, the correct answer is "As needed".

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47. PCN stands for

Explanation

PCN stands for Penicillin. Penicillin is a group of antibiotics used to treat various bacterial infections. It is derived from the fungus Penicillium and is one of the most widely used antibiotics in the world. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria or killing them, thereby helping to eliminate the infection. Penicillin is used to treat a wide range of infections, including respiratory tract infections, skin infections, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted diseases. It is available in different forms, such as tablets, capsules, and injections, and is prescribed by healthcare professionals based on the specific infection and patient's condition.

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48. PCA stands for

Explanation

PCA stands for Patient Control Analgesia. Patient-controlled analgesia is a method of pain management that allows patients to self-administer pain medication within safe limits. It involves the use of a programmable pump that delivers a controlled amount of pain medication when the patient pushes a button. This method provides patients with better pain control and allows them to actively participate in their pain management.

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49. SDV must be used

Explanation

The correct answer is "Immediately and discarded." This means that SDV (Single Dose Vial) must be used right away and should not be kept for future use. Single Dose Vials are designed for single use only to ensure medication safety and prevent contamination. Using them immediately and discarding them helps to maintain the effectiveness and sterility of the medication.

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50. The concentration of a stock drug is 500 mg/14mL, you need to make 225 mg in D5W 100mL, how much drug will you draw up in your syringe?

Explanation

To calculate the amount of drug to be drawn up in the syringe, we can set up a proportion using the concentration of the stock drug and the desired dose.

The proportion can be set up as follows:
(500mg/14mL) = (x mg/100mL)

Cross-multiplying and solving for x, we get:
x = (500mg/14mL) * 100mL
x = 3,571.43 mg

Since we need to make 225 mg in 100 mL, we can set up another proportion:
3,571.43 mg = (225 mg/100 mL) * y mL

Solving for y, we get:
y = (3,571.43 mg * 100 mL) / 225 mg
y ≈ 1587.5 mL

However, since the maximum volume in the syringe is 14 mL, we can only draw up 14 mL of the drug. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.3 mL.

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51. When taking the Chemo Preparation Test, you are allowed, how many spots?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 dime size. This means that when taking the Chemo Preparation Test, you are allowed to have two spots that are the size of a dime.

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52. What is the generic for Taxol?

Explanation

Paclitaxel is the generic name for Taxol. It is a chemotherapy medication used to treat various types of cancer, including breast, lung, and ovarian cancer. Paclitaxel works by stopping the growth of cancer cells, preventing them from dividing and spreading. It is administered intravenously and is commonly used in combination with other chemotherapy drugs.

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53. When making a TPN, we usually add Lipids (if we add lipids)

Explanation

Lipids are usually added at the end when making a TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition). This is because lipids are prone to oxidation and can become rancid if exposed to air or light for a long time. By adding lipids at the end, we minimize the chances of oxidation and ensure the TPN remains stable and safe for administration.

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54. Vitamin K is usually given

Explanation

Vitamin K is usually given on a weekly basis. This frequency allows for consistent and adequate levels of vitamin K in the body. Giving it once daily would result in excessive dosing, while biweekly or monthly dosing might not provide enough vitamin K to meet the body's needs. Therefore, weekly administration is the most appropriate option.

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55. Intrathecal medications are administered in the:

Explanation

Intrathecal medications are administered in the subarachnoid space of the spine. This space is located between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, which are the membranes that surround the spinal cord. Administering medications in this space allows them to directly access the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that surrounds the spinal cord and brain. This route of administration is often used for medications that need to act directly on the central nervous system, such as anesthesia or pain medications.

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56. You need to make 30g of Calamine 2.5%, How much stock calamine do you need?

Explanation

To make 30g of Calamine 2.5%, you need 0.75g of stock calamine. This is because 2.5% of 30g is equal to 0.75g.

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57. What is our Room Number?

Explanation

The correct answer is IB1421 because it is the only option that matches the format of a room number. The other options do not follow the typical room number format and are therefore not the correct answer.

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58. Circle all that apply: Which of these must not have preservatives in the medication?

Explanation

Intrathecal and epidural medications must not have preservatives because they are directly administered into the spinal cord or the epidural space, respectively. Preservatives can cause irritation or damage to the delicate tissues in these areas. Intravenous, intramuscular, and subcutaneous medications, on the other hand, can have preservatives as they are administered into the bloodstream, muscle, or fatty tissue, respectively, where the preservatives can be safely metabolized or eliminated.

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59. Non-PVC bags should be used with this medication:

Explanation

Prograf is a medication that is known to interact with PVC (polyvinyl chloride) bags, which can cause leaching of chemicals from the bag into the medication. Therefore, non-PVC bags should be used with Prograf to avoid any potential chemical interactions.

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60. Evacuated containers are considered

Explanation

Evacuated containers are considered to have negative pressure because they are sealed and the air or gas inside has been removed, creating a lower pressure compared to the surrounding atmosphere. This negative pressure can be used for various purposes such as preserving food, storing sensitive materials, or conducting experiments in a controlled environment.

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61. The generic of Cellcept is

Explanation

The generic name of a medication refers to its active ingredient, which is the chemical compound responsible for its therapeutic effects. In this case, the generic of Cellcept is Mycophenolate. This medication is commonly used as an immunosuppressant to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients. Miconazole is an antifungal medication, Thymoglobulin is an immunosuppressive agent, and Immune globulin refers to a group of antibodies. Therefore, the correct answer is Mycophenolate.

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62. Which of these medications requires protection from light?

Explanation

Nipride is the correct answer because it is a medication that requires protection from light. Light exposure can degrade the active ingredients in Nipride, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, it is necessary to store and administer Nipride in a way that protects it from light. Nitroglycerin and Natrecor, on the other hand, do not require such protection.

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63. The brand for phenylephrine is

Explanation

Neosynephrine is the correct brand for phenylephrine. Phenylephrine is a medication used as a decongestant and to treat low blood pressure. Neosynephrine is a common brand name for this medication, while the other options (Neophed, Levophed, Adrenalin) are not associated with phenylephrine.

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64. CMV causes

Explanation

CMV (Cytomegalovirus) is a virus that can cause various health issues. While it can lead to conditions such as cancer, bowel obstruction, and shortness of breath (SOB), one of the potential consequences of CMV infection is blindness. This virus can affect the eyes, causing inflammation and damage to the retina, leading to vision loss or blindness. Therefore, blindness is a possible outcome of CMV infection.

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65. All of these drugs require a "DO NOT Refrigerate" sticker except:

Explanation

Meropenem is the only drug among the given options that does not require a "DO NOT Refrigerate" sticker. This means that it is safe to refrigerate Meropenem, while the other drugs should not be refrigerated.

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66. These two medications when put together can cause crystallization

Explanation

When Calcium Gluconate and Sodium Phosphate are combined, they can cause crystallization. Crystallization refers to the formation of solid crystals from a solution. In this case, the combination of these two medications can lead to the formation of crystals, which can be harmful and may cause blockages or damage in the body. Therefore, it is important to avoid mixing Calcium Gluconate and Sodium Phosphate to prevent any potential complications.

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67. You need to make Dextrose 70% in water 250mL and you have dextrose 50 mg/mL and SW, How much dextrose do you need?

Explanation

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68. What is another brand name for Kefzol?

Explanation

Ancef is another brand name for Kefzol.

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69. What is the generic for Demadex?

Explanation

The generic for Demadex is Torsemide. Dexamethasone is not the generic for Demadex.

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70. Vitamin K is also known as:

Explanation

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71. 18 mEq of Calcium is how many amps?

Explanation

This question is asking how many amps are equivalent to 18 mEq of Calcium. The correct answer is 4. The explanation for this answer is not available.

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72. What is thed for imipenem/cilastatin?

Explanation

Primaxin is the correct answer for the drug combination of imipenem/cilastatin. Timentin, Zosyn, and Unasyn are all different drug combinations and not applicable in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is Primaxin.

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73. Preservatives should not be in medications for certain areas of the body because

Explanation

Preservatives should not be in medications for certain areas of the body because they can't be broken down. This is important because medications are meant to be absorbed and utilized by the body, and if preservatives cannot be broken down, they may interfere with the effectiveness of the medication or cause harm. Additionally, if preservatives are not broken down, they may accumulate in certain areas of the body, leading to potential toxicity. Therefore, it is best to avoid using medications with preservatives in areas where they cannot be broken down.

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74. What is the generic for Gamunex?

Explanation

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75. An MDV once puncture must be used or (expires in)

Explanation

Once an MDV (Multi-Dose Vial) is punctured, it must be used within 30 days. This is because once the vial is punctured, it is exposed to air and potential contaminants, which can lead to the growth of bacteria or other microorganisms. Using the vial within 30 days helps to ensure that the medication remains sterile and safe for administration. After 30 days, the risk of contamination increases, and it is recommended to discard the vial to prevent any potential harm to patients.

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76. The smallest marked unit on a 1 cc syringe is

Explanation

The question asks for the smallest marked unit on a 1 cc syringe. However, the given options do not include the correct answer. Therefore, none of the above options is the correct answer.

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77. How much D70W do you need when you need to make 1L of D5W and your other available stock is water?

Explanation

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78. What is the generic for Sandostatin?

Explanation

Octreotide is the generic for Sandostatin. Sandostatin is a brand name medication that contains the active ingredient octreotide. Octreotide is a synthetic hormone that is similar to the natural hormone somatostatin. It is used to treat conditions such as acromegaly, carcinoid tumors, and certain types of gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is Octreotide.

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79. If the doctor orders Penicillin 4 million units and you prepare a 20 million unit vial with a concentration of 250,000 units/mL, how much PCN do you need?

Explanation

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80. BNP is also

Explanation

The correct answer is "A & C" because BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) is also known as Natrecor and Nesiritide. Therefore, options A and C are both correct as they include the alternative names for BNP.

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81. A drug that pharmacy filters but nursing does not is:

Explanation

Ambisome is a drug that is filtered by the pharmacy but not by nursing. This suggests that Ambisome may require specific handling or preparation by the pharmacy before it can be administered to patients. Nursing staff may not be involved in this process and may not need to filter the drug themselves. The other options, Fungizone, Caspofungin, and Cellcept, do not have this specific requirement and can be handled by nursing without the need for filtering. Therefore, Ambisome is the correct answer.

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82. What is the equation for calculating Factor A?

Explanation

The equation for calculating Factor A is (Infuse Volume/Total Volume) X Wt and (Total Volume/(T-M-F X24hr)) X Wt. Both equations involve the weight (Wt) and the total volume, but they differ in the calculation of the infuse volume and the (T-M-F X24hr) term. Therefore, the correct answer is A & C.

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83. How much D5W do you need when you need to make 750mL of D15W and your other available stock D5W?

Explanation

To make 750mL of D15W, which is a solution of 15% dextrose in water, we need to calculate the amount of D5W needed. Since D5W is a solution of 5% dextrose in water, we can assume that the amount of dextrose in the solution is directly proportional to the volume of the solution.

Therefore, to find the amount of D5W needed, we can set up a proportion:

(5% dextrose / 100mL) = (15% dextrose / 750mL)

Simplifying this proportion, we get:

0.05 / 100 = 0.15 / x

Cross-multiplying, we get:

0.05x = 0.15 * 100

x = (0.15 * 100) / 0.05

x = 150 / 0.05

x = 3000 mL

Since we have 3000 mL of D15W, and we need to make 750mL, we subtract 750 from 3000 to get the amount of D5W needed, which is 2250mL or 2.25L.

However, the available stock is D5W, so we don't need to make any additional D5W. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.167L, which is equivalent to 167 mL.

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