SQL: Hardest Trivia Quiz On Relational Database!

60 Questions | Total Attempts: 57

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SQL: Hardest Trivia Quiz On Relational Database!

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    In backtracking search, the most-constrained-variable and most-constraining variable strategies are used to
    • A. 

      Perform forward checking

    • B. 

      Decide what order should the values be tried for a variable

    • C. 

      Detect inevitable failure early

    • D. 

      Decide which variable should be assigned next

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      – P => – Q

    • B. 

      – P V Q

    • C. 

      Q

    • D. 

      Q => P

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      H( n) = 2n

    • B. 

      H( n) = 0

    • C. 

      H( n) = 2

    • D. 

      H( n) = n

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      The solution

    • B. 

      The goal state

    • C. 

      The initial state

    • D. 

      The order of node expansion

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      Infinitely many

    • D. 

      0

  • 6. 
    In problem-solving agents, when a solution is found?
    • A. 

      Whenever a percept is perceived

    • B. 

      After all actions are performed

    • C. 

      Before the first action is performed

    • D. 

      After the first action is performed

  • 7. 
    What is the difference between informed search and uninformed search algorithms
    • A. 

      Uninformed search can find the optimal solution but informed search doesn't

    • B. 

      Uninformed search strategy uses knowledge beyond the definition of the problem itself but informed search strategy doesn't

    • C. 

      Informed search can find the optimal solution but uninformed search doesn't

    • D. 

      Informed search strategy uses knowledge beyond the definition of the problem itself but uninformed search strategy doesn't

  • 8. 
    An agent acts upon its environment through which of the following components?
    • A. 

      Agent program

    • B. 

      Sensors

    • C. 

      Agent function

    • D. 

      Actuators

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Simulated annealing search

    • B. 

      Hill-climbing search

    • C. 

      A* search

    • D. 

      Genetic algorithm

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Finding the path cost

    • B. 

      Finding a initial state

    • C. 

      Finding a goal state

    • D. 

      Finding a solution

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Data are treated as a two-dimensional table from the users’ point of view. Relationship between records are defined by the value of fields in each record

    • B. 

      Relationships between records are expressed by parent-child relationship

    • C. 

      Data fields composing a record are stored in the index format by data type. Access to the record is made through the data gathering in these index values.

    • D. 

      Relationships between records are expressed by network structure

  • 12. 
    In SQL, the SELECT statement is used to extract records from a two-dimensional table. If the following statement is executed for the leased apartments below, which data group is extracted?  SELECT property FROM leased_apartment_table  WHERE (District_area = 'Minami-cho' OR Time_to_work < 15 AND Code > 60 )
    • A. 

      A,C

    • B. 

      A, C, D, E

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      B, D, E

  • 13. 
    Choose a correct answer from the following descriptions concerning characteristics of the CODASYL-type database?
    • A. 

      The data structure is represented as a network

    • B. 

      The data structure is represented by a hierarchy

    • C. 

      SQL is used as its standard database language

    • D. 

      The data structure is represented by a table format consisting of rows and columns

  • 14. 
    In the ERD diagram, the one-to-many relationship, "a company has multiple employees," is expressed as follows: Which of the following statements correctly explains the above diagram?
    • A. 

      One company has one shareholder

    • B. 

      There are multiple companies, and each company has multiple shareholders

    • C. 

      One company has multiple shareholders

    • D. 

      There are multiple companies, and each company has a shareholder

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Operation 1 is PROJECTION and operation 2 is SELECTION

    • B. 

      The table extracted by operation 1 has four rows

    • C. 

      The table extracted by operation 1 has two columns

    • D. 

      The table extracted by operation 2 has two columns

  • 16. 
    Which of the following data models is used for the conceptual design of a database, expressing the targeted world by two concepts of entities and relationships between entities?
    • A. 

      Relational data model

    • B. 

      E-R model

    • C. 

      Hierarchical data model

    • D. 

      Network data model

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Subschema

    • B. 

      Internal schema

    • C. 

      Conceptual schema

    • D. 

      External schema

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      SELECT

    • B. 

      INSERT

    • C. 

      DELETE

    • D. 

      CREATE

  • 19. 
    Regarding relational database manipulation, which of the following statements correctly explains projection?
    • A. 

      Create a new table by combining tuples satisfying conditions from tuples in more than two tables

    • B. 

      Extract the specific columns from the table

    • C. 

      Extract the rows satisfying specific conditions from the table

    • D. 

      Create a table by combining inquiry results from one table and the ones of the other table

  • 20. 
    A school has recorded information on classes taken by students in the following record format. To create a database from these records, each record must be divided into several parts to avoid the problems of duplicated data. A student takes multiple classes, and multiple students can take one class at the same time. Every student can take a class only once. Which of the following is the most appropriate division pattern?
    • A. 

      Answer c.

    • B. 

      Answer d.

    • C. 

      Answer a.

    • D. 

      Answer b.

  • 21. 
    Affordances are:
    • A. 

      The completion times for a typical task

    • B. 

      The cost of buying a user interface component

    • C. 

      User settable preferences

    • D. 

      Possibilities for using an object or interface

  • 22. 
    A pluralistic walkthrough?
    • A. 

      Is often conducted with low-fidelity designs

    • B. 

      Is usually conducted at the end of the development process

    • C. 

      Requires a fully functional prototype

    • D. 

      Requires having several alternate designs

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      GDI

    • B. 

      CAI

    • C. 

      CUI

    • D. 

      GUI

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Easy to use

    • B. 

      Usefulness

    • C. 

      Learnability

    • D. 

      Generalisability

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      The system preventive maintenance is performed in order to extend the MTBF

    • B. 

      The system operating ratio is improved by extending the MTTR and MTBF

    • C. 

      System remote maintenance improves the operating ratio, by improving the MTBF

    • D. 

      The more complicated the system configuration is, the longer the MTBF becomes

  • 26. 
    The cognitive walkthrough mainly evaluates a product's?
    • A. 

      Efficiency

    • B. 

      Utility

    • C. 

      Learnability

    • D. 

      Likeability

  • 27. 
    Which of the following are recognized kinds of prototypes:
    • A. 

      Conceptual models

    • B. 

      Interactive sketches

    • C. 

      Beta versions

    • D. 

      Paper

  • 28. 
    Which of the following improve drawing and designing efficiency by using computer for designing industrial products and building constructions?
    • A. 

      CAM

    • B. 

      CAD

    • C. 

      CIM

    • D. 

      CAI

  • 29. 
    Post-test questionnaires (conducted after a usability test) are particularly useful for measuring?
    • A. 

      Efficiency

    • B. 

      User satisfaction

    • C. 

      Safety

    • D. 

      Learnability

  • 30. 
    A method that does not require human participants serving as test users is the
    • A. 

      Rubin’s comparison test

    • B. 

      Usability test

    • C. 

      Heuristic evaluation

    • D. 

      Pluralistic walkthrough

  • 31. 
    Which of the following adequately describes the characteristic of packet switching?
    • A. 

      Is not suitable for transmission of information between equipment where transmission speeds and protocols differ.

    • B. 

      Enables efficient use of communication circuits (by sharing multiple communication path)

    • C. 

      Suitable for transmission of large amounts of consecutive data.

    • D. 

      Delays do not occur inside the switched network.

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      16

    • D. 

      64

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Ipconfig

    • B. 

      Tracert

    • C. 

      Ping

    • D. 

      Nmap

  • 34. 
    Three IP routers are connected by leased lines as shown in the figure below. Which of the following statements correctly describes the operation of router a in relaying a TCP/IP packets from terminal a to terminal b?
    • A. 

      Router a learns the location of terminal b from the MAC address of the destination in the packet and relays the packets to router b only.

    • B. 

      Router a relays all packets to both router b and router c.

    • C. 

      Router a relays packets to router b only based on the destination IP address in the packet.

    • D. 

      Router a relays packets to router b only according to the relay router specified in the packet.

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Voice and data are sent by time-divided multiplexing.

    • B. 

      Optical fiber cable is laid down to the home to enable various communication services such as telephony, ISDN, and data communications.

    • C. 

      It enables high-speed data transmission of differing incoming and outgoing speeds, using the existing telephone line (twisted pair).

    • D. 

      Voice and data are separated by a terminal adapter (TA), so they can share the same line.

  • 36. 
    To use E-mail on the Internet, the two protocols SMTP and POP3 are used on mail servers. Which is the appropriate explanation of this?
    • A. 

      SMTP is the protocol for the Internet, and POP3 is the protocol for LAN.

    • B. 

      SMTP is the protocol used under normal circumstances when reception is possible, and POP3 is the protocol for fetching mail from the mailbox when connected.

    • C. 

      The SMTP is a protocol used when one side is client, and POP3 is a protocol used when both sides to transmit are mail servers.

    • D. 

      SMTP is a protocol for receiving, and POP3 is a protocol for sending.

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      16,777,214

    • B. 

      126

    • C. 

      65,534

    • D. 

      254

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to employ preventive measures such as encryption.

    • B. 

      When e-mail is transmitted, a one-to-one id established with the remote party based on the remote party’s address. Therefore, confidentiality is ensured.

    • C. 

      Text files created with word processing programs and the file are translated into a computer’s internal code, so there is no risk that their contents will be read on the communication path.

    • D. 

      In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to request the provider connecting the sender to register a receiver’s ID.

  • 39. 
    • A. 

      NTSC

    • B. 

      JPEG

    • C. 

      MPEG

    • D. 

      PCM

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Packet switching service is not possible with ISDN.

    • B. 

      In order to carry out communication by packet switching, both the sender and the receiver must be packet mode terminals. (PT)

    • C. 

      By setting multiple logical circuits, concurrent communication with multiple parties can be performed using one physical line.

    • D. 

      Compare to circuit switching, the latency within the network is short.

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      Password

    • B. 

      User ID

    • C. 

      Access right

    • D. 

      IP address

  • 42. 
    In biometrics, a good measure of performance of a system is the:
    • A. 

      False detection.

    • B. 

      Positive acceptance rate.

    • C. 

      Sensitivity

    • D. 

      Crossover Error Rate (CER).

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Screen Saver

    • B. 

      Vaccine

    • C. 

      Trojan hourse

    • D. 

      Hidden file

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      Reduce all risks regardless of cost

    • B. 

      Reduce the risk to a tolerable level.

    • C. 

      Transfer any risk to external third parties.

    • D. 

      Prosecute any employees that are violating published security policies.

  • 45. 
    There is a transposition cryptosystem in which plain text is devided into four-character blocks and in each block, the first character is moved to the third, the second to the first, the third to the fourth, and the fourth to the second. In this system, which is the correct cipher text for the plain text "DEERDIDDREAMDEEP"?
    • A. 

      DIDDDEEPDEERREAM

    • B. 

      ERDEIDDDEMRAEPDE

    • C. 

      IDDDEPDEERDEEMRA

    • D. 

      EDREDDDIARMEEDPE

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      A user having multiple user IDs should set the same password for all the IDs.

    • B. 

      All the users involved in the same project should use the same user ID.

    • C. 

      When privileges are set for a user ID, they should be minimized.

    • D. 

      When a user ID is to be deleted, an adequate time interval should be taken after the termination of its use has been notified.

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      If a password is not modified within a priviously specified period of time, it will no longer be possible to connect using this password.

    • B. 

      If the password is entered wrongly for a number of times determined in advanced, the line will be disconnected.

    • C. 

      When there is a request for connection, a callback will be made to a specific telephone number to establish the connection.

    • D. 

      To ensure that the user does not forget the password, it is displayed on the terminal at the time of log on.

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Apotential incident that could cause harm

    • B. 

      The minimization of loss associated with an incident

    • C. 

      Acompany resource that could be lost due to an incident

    • D. 

      Aweakness in a system that could be exploited

  • 49. 
    When as shown in the figure below, Mr.M sends to Ms.N a message they want to keep confidential, which is the appropriate combination of the keys used for encryption and decryption?
    • A. 

      Key A: M's private key Key B: M's public key

    • B. 

      Key A: Common public key Key B: N's private key

    • C. 

      Key A: Common private key Key B: Common public key

    • D. 

      Key A: N's public key Key B: N's private key

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      Activating the system from an infected floppy disk loads the macro virus into the main meory, and then the virus infects the boot sectors of other floppy disks.

    • B. 

      The execution of an infected application loads in the macro virus into the main memory, and in this process, the virus infects program files of other applications.

    • C. 

      Since it can be easily determined as to whether a macro function is infected by a virus, infection can be prevented at the time of opening a document file.

    • D. 

      A macro virus infects document files opened or newly created after an infected document file is opened.

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      Answer C

    • B. 

      Answer B

    • C. 

      Answer D

    • D. 

      Answer A

  • 52. 
    Which of the following data models is used in the conceptual design of data bases, and expresses its target world through the two notions of “entities” and “relationships between two entities”?
    • A. 

      Relational model

    • B. 

      E-R model

    • C. 

      Hierarchical model

    • D. 

      Network model

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      Subschema

    • B. 

      Internal schema

    • C. 

      Conceptual schema

    • D. 

      External schema

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      The minimum value and that adding 1 to the value

    • B. 

      The minimum and maximum values, and those adding 1 to each of the values

    • C. 

      The maximum value and that adding 1 to the value

    • D. 

      The minimum and maximum values

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      Source program-analyzing function

    • B. 

      System analysis and definition function

    • C. 

      Automatic program generation function

    • D. 

      Test-supporting function

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      PERT diagram

    • B. 

      NS chart

    • C. 

      State transition diagram

    • D. 

      Bubble chart

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      Equivalence partitioning

    • B. 

      Condition coverage

    • C. 

      The cause-effect graph

    • D. 

      The experimental design method

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      The software is classified into software whose specifications are fixed and do not require modification, and software whose specifications require modification. Then, for the software whose specifications require modification, the process of development, reconsideration and modification is repeated.

    • B. 

      A large-scale application is broken down into sub-units, each of which is highly independent. Then, for each sub-unit, the process of design, programming and test is repeated, gradually expanding the development area.

    • C. 

      N experimental product is produced in an early phase of system development, enabling the removing of ambiguities and differences in recognition between the user and development organizations.

    • D. 

      Work is performed in the order of basic planning, external design, internal design, program design, programming and test. Therefore, with the technique, a perspective of the work as a whole is gained, making the determination of schedules and allocation of resources easier.

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Operation tests

    • B. 

      Regression tests

    • C. 

      Linkage tests

    • D. 

      System tests

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      So-called "end-user computing," in which users by themselves build systems and have access to or process information for their own applications, is gaining support.

    • B. 

      To cut costs or to shorten software development time, applications have been developed based on orders received rather than by use of package software.

    • C. 

      In view of profitability, businesses have increased the degree of manufacturing internally without outsourcing systems or operations to external companies.

    • D. 

      Widely spreading use of networks reduces the range affected by a system failure, making security management easier.