SQL: Hardest Trivia Quiz On Relational Database!

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SQL: Hardest Trivia Quiz On Relational Database! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In backtracking search, the most-constrained-variable and most-constraining variable strategies are used to

    • A.

      Perform forward checking

    • B.

      Decide what order should the values be tried for a variable

    • C.

      Detect inevitable failure early

    • D.

      Decide which variable should be assigned next

    Correct Answer
    D. Decide which variable should be assigned next
    Explanation
    The most-constrained-variable and most-constraining variable strategies in backtracking search are used to decide which variable should be assigned next. These strategies prioritize variables that have the fewest possible values remaining or that are involved in the most constraints. By selecting the most constrained or most constraining variable, the algorithm can potentially reduce the search space more quickly and increase the chances of finding a solution efficiently.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following sentences is equivalent to the sentence P => Q?

    • A.

      – P => – Q

    • B.

      – P V Q

    • C.

      Q

    • D.

      Q => P

    Correct Answer
    B. – P V Q
    Explanation
    The given sentence P => Q can be rewritten as -P V Q, which is the answer provided. This is because the implication "P => Q" is equivalent to saying "if not P, then Q", which can be represented as "-P V Q" in symbolic logic.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following functions is admissible heuristic function for any problem?

    • A.

      H( n) = 2n

    • B.

      H( n) = 0

    • C.

      H( n) = 2

    • D.

      H( n) = n

    Correct Answer
    B. H( n) = 0
    Explanation
    The function h(n) = 0 is an admissible heuristic function for any problem because it always underestimates the actual cost to reach the goal. Since the heuristic value is always 0, it means that the estimated cost from the current state to the goal is always 0 or less. This is a valid admissible heuristic because it guarantees that the estimated cost will never exceed the actual cost, ensuring that the A* search algorithm will always find the optimal solution.

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  • 4. 

    What is the main difference between breadth-first search and depth-first search?

    • A.

      The solution

    • B.

      The goal state

    • C.

      The initial state

    • D.

      The order of node expansion

    Correct Answer
    D. The order of node expansion
    Explanation
    The main difference between breadth-first search and depth-first search is the order of node expansion. In breadth-first search, the nodes at the current level are expanded before moving to the next level, resulting in a level-by-level exploration of the search space. On the other hand, in depth-first search, the nodes are expanded as deep as possible before backtracking and exploring other branches, leading to a deeper exploration of a single branch before moving to another.

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  • 5. 

    How many heuristic function are there for a given problem?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      Infinitely many

    • D.

      0

    Correct Answer
    C. Infinitely many
    Explanation
    The statement "infinitely many" implies that there is no limit to the number of heuristic functions that can be created for a given problem. A heuristic function is a technique used in problem-solving to estimate the cost or value of reaching a goal. Since there are no restrictions or constraints mentioned in the question, it can be assumed that any number of heuristic functions can be devised based on different approaches, strategies, or perspectives towards solving the problem. Therefore, the answer "infinitely many" suggests that there is no fixed or finite number of heuristic functions for a given problem.

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  • 6. 

    In problem-solving agents, when a solution is found?

    • A.

      Whenever a percept is perceived

    • B.

      After all actions are performed

    • C.

      Before the first action is performed

    • D.

      After the first action is performed

    Correct Answer
    C. Before the first action is performed
    Explanation
    In problem-solving agents, the solution is typically found before the first action is performed. This means that the agent goes through a process of analyzing the problem, generating a solution, and then executing the first action based on that solution. This approach allows the agent to plan and optimize its actions before actually taking any physical or logical steps towards solving the problem. By finding the solution before the first action, the agent can ensure that it is moving towards the desired outcome in the most efficient and effective manner.

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  • 7. 

    What is the difference between informed search and uninformed search algorithms

    • A.

      Uninformed search can find the optimal solution but informed search doesn't

    • B.

      Uninformed search strategy uses knowledge beyond the definition of the problem itself but informed search strategy doesn't

    • C.

      Informed search can find the optimal solution but uninformed search doesn't

    • D.

      Informed search strategy uses knowledge beyond the definition of the problem itself but uninformed search strategy doesn't

    Correct Answer
    D. Informed search strategy uses knowledge beyond the definition of the problem itself but uninformed search strategy doesn't
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that informed search strategy uses knowledge beyond the definition of the problem itself, while uninformed search strategy does not. This means that informed search algorithms have access to additional information or heuristics that can guide them towards finding the optimal solution. On the other hand, uninformed search algorithms rely solely on the problem definition and do not have any additional knowledge to assist in finding the optimal solution.

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  • 8. 

    An agent acts upon its environment through which of the following components?

    • A.

      Agent program

    • B.

      Sensors

    • C.

      Agent function

    • D.

      Actuators

    Correct Answer
    D. Actuators
    Explanation
    Actuators are the components that allow an agent to physically interact with its environment. They are responsible for carrying out the actions determined by the agent program based on the information received from the sensors. Without actuators, an agent would not be able to execute any actions in the environment, rendering it ineffective in achieving its goals. Therefore, actuators play a crucial role in enabling an agent to act upon its environment.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following algorithms is NOT a local search algorithm?

    • A.

      Simulated annealing search

    • B.

      Hill-climbing search

    • C.

      A* search

    • D.

      Genetic algorithm

    Correct Answer
    C. A* search
    Explanation
    A* search is not a local search algorithm because it uses a heuristic function to guide its search towards the goal state. It explores the entire search space and keeps track of the best path found so far, unlike local search algorithms which only consider the current state and its neighbors. A* search combines both breadth-first and best-first search strategies, making it a complete and optimal algorithm.

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  • 10. 

    What is the role of a searching algorithm in problem-solving agents?

    • A.

      Finding the path cost

    • B.

      Finding a initial state

    • C.

      Finding a goal state

    • D.

      Finding a solution

    Correct Answer
    D. Finding a solution
    Explanation
    A searching algorithm plays a crucial role in problem-solving agents by finding a solution. It explores different possible states and paths to identify a sequence of actions that lead to a goal state. By considering various search strategies, such as breadth-first search or depth-first search, the algorithm can efficiently navigate through the problem space to find the optimal or satisfactory solution. Therefore, the primary function of a searching algorithm is to discover a solution that satisfies the given problem's requirements.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following statements correctly explains relational database?

    • A.

      Data are treated as a two-dimensional table from the users’ point of view. Relationship between records are defined by the value of fields in each record

    • B.

      Relationships between records are expressed by parent-child relationship

    • C.

      Data fields composing a record are stored in the index format by data type. Access to the record is made through the data gathering in these index values.

    • D.

      Relationships between records are expressed by network structure

    Correct Answer
    A. Data are treated as a two-dimensional table from the users’ point of view. Relationship between records are defined by the value of fields in each record
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that in a relational database, data is organized and presented as a two-dimensional table. Each table represents a specific entity, and the relationships between the records are defined by the values of the fields in each record. This means that the data is structured in a way that allows for efficient storage, retrieval, and manipulation of information by users. The answer highlights the fundamental principles of a relational database, emphasizing the importance of tables, records, and relationships based on field values.

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  • 12. 

    In SQL, the SELECT statement is used to extract records from a two-dimensional table. If the following statement is executed for the leased apartments below, which data group is extracted?  SELECT property FROM leased_apartment_table  WHERE (District_area = 'Minami-cho' OR Time_to_work < 15 AND Code > 60 )

    • A.

      A,C

    • B.

      A, C, D, E

    • C.

      A

    • D.

      B, D, E

    Correct Answer
    A. A,C
    Explanation
    The SELECT statement is used to specify the columns that will be retrieved from the table. In this case, the "property" column will be retrieved. The WHERE clause is used to specify the conditions that the records must meet in order to be included in the result set. The conditions in this case are that the District_area must be 'Minami-cho' or the Time_to_work must be less than 15 and the Code must be greater than 60. Therefore, the data group that will be extracted will include the records where the District_area is 'Minami-cho' and also the records where the Time_to_work is less than 15 and the Code is greater than 60. So, the correct answer is A,C.

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  • 13. 

    Choose a correct answer from the following descriptions concerning characteristics of the CODASYL-type database?

    • A.

      The data structure is represented as a network

    • B.

      The data structure is represented by a hierarchy

    • C.

      SQL is used as its standard database language

    • D.

      The data structure is represented by a table format consisting of rows and columns

    Correct Answer
    A. The data structure is represented as a network
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the data structure is represented as a network. In a CODASYL-type database, the data is organized using a network model, where records are connected to each other through relationships. This allows for complex relationships and navigation between records. Unlike a hierarchical database, where data is organized in a tree-like structure, a network database allows for multiple parent-child relationships and provides more flexibility in representing complex data relationships. SQL is not specific to CODASYL-type databases and can be used with various database models. The table format consisting of rows and columns is characteristic of a relational database, not a CODASYL-type database.

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  • 14. 

    In the ERD diagram, the one-to-many relationship, "a company has multiple employees," is expressed as follows: Which of the following statements correctly explains the above diagram?

    • A.

      One company has one shareholder

    • B.

      There are multiple companies, and each company has multiple shareholders

    • C.

      One company has multiple shareholders

    • D.

      There are multiple companies, and each company has a shareholder

    Correct Answer
    B. There are multiple companies, and each company has multiple shareholders
    Explanation
    The given answer correctly explains the one-to-many relationship between a company and its employees. It states that there are multiple companies, and each company has multiple shareholders. This means that each company can have multiple shareholders, and there can be multiple companies in the system.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following two descriptions on the operation of the customer_table is wrong?  Operation 1: SELECT Customer_name, Address FROM Customer  Operation 2: SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE Customer_no = ‘D0010’

    • A.

      Operation 1 is PROJECTION and operation 2 is SELECTION

    • B.

      The table extracted by operation 1 has four rows

    • C.

      The table extracted by operation 1 has two columns

    • D.

      The table extracted by operation 2 has two columns

    Correct Answer
    D. The table extracted by operation 2 has two columns
    Explanation
    The table extracted by operation 2 has two columns because the SELECT statement in operation 2 specifies that all columns should be selected using the asterisk symbol (*). Therefore, the table extracted will have all the columns from the Customer table, which includes two columns.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following data models is used for the conceptual design of a database, expressing the targeted world by two concepts of entities and relationships between entities?

    • A.

      Relational data model

    • B.

      E-R model

    • C.

      Hierarchical data model

    • D.

      Network data model

    Correct Answer
    B. E-R model
    Explanation
    The E-R (Entity-Relationship) model is used for the conceptual design of a database, expressing the targeted world by two concepts of entities and relationships between entities. This model allows for the representation of entities as tables and relationships as links between those tables. It helps in visualizing and understanding the structure of the database and how different entities are related to each other.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following describes the storage method of databases in storage devices?

    • A.

      Subschema

    • B.

      Internal schema

    • C.

      Conceptual schema

    • D.

      External schema

    Correct Answer
    B. Internal schema
    Explanation
    The internal schema describes the physical storage structure of a database in storage devices. It specifies how the data is organized and stored on the storage medium, such as hard disks or solid-state drives. It includes details like file organization, indexing techniques, and data compression methods. The internal schema is important for database administrators and system designers as it helps in optimizing the performance and efficiency of the database system.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following SQL statements defines a schema?

    • A.

      SELECT

    • B.

      INSERT

    • C.

      DELETE

    • D.

      CREATE

    Correct Answer
    D. CREATE
    Explanation
    The CREATE statement in SQL is used to define a schema. It is used to create a new database, table, view, index, or other database objects. It allows the user to specify the name of the object and define its structure, including the columns, data types, constraints, and other properties. The CREATE statement is essential for setting up the structure and organization of a database.

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  • 19. 

    Regarding relational database manipulation, which of the following statements correctly explains projection?

    • A.

      Create a new table by combining tuples satisfying conditions from tuples in more than two tables

    • B.

      Extract the specific columns from the table

    • C.

      Extract the rows satisfying specific conditions from the table

    • D.

      Create a table by combining inquiry results from one table and the ones of the other table

    Correct Answer
    B. Extract the specific columns from the table
    Explanation
    Projection in relational database manipulation refers to extracting specific columns from a table. It involves selecting only the desired attributes or columns from a table while discarding the rest. This operation helps in reducing the amount of data retrieved and simplifies data analysis by focusing on the relevant information. It does not involve combining tuples from multiple tables or extracting rows based on conditions.

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  • 20. 

    A school has recorded information on classes taken by students in the following record format. To create a database from these records, each record must be divided into several parts to avoid the problems of duplicated data. A student takes multiple classes, and multiple students can take one class at the same time. Every student can take a class only once. Which of the following is the most appropriate division pattern?

    • A.

      Answer c.

    • B.

      Answer d.

    • C.

      Answer a.

    • D.

      Answer b.

    Correct Answer
    B. Answer d.
  • 21. 

    Affordances are:

    • A.

      The completion times for a typical task

    • B.

      The cost of buying a user interface component

    • C.

      User settable preferences

    • D.

      Possibilities for using an object or interface

    Correct Answer
    D. Possibilities for using an object or interface
    Explanation
    Affordances refer to the potential actions or uses that an object or interface offers to the user. It encompasses the various ways in which a user can interact with a system or utilize its features. Affordances are not related to completion times, costs, or user preferences, but rather focus on the potential functionalities and possibilities that an object or interface provides to the user.

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  • 22. 

    A pluralistic walkthrough?

    • A.

      Is often conducted with low-fidelity designs

    • B.

      Is usually conducted at the end of the development process

    • C.

      Requires a fully functional prototype

    • D.

      Requires having several alternate designs

    Correct Answer
    A. Is often conducted with low-fidelity designs
    Explanation
    A pluralistic walkthrough is often conducted with low-fidelity designs because it allows for early feedback and iteration. Low-fidelity designs are quick and inexpensive to create, making them ideal for gathering input from multiple stakeholders. By conducting a pluralistic walkthrough with low-fidelity designs, designers can gather diverse perspectives and identify potential issues or improvements before investing time and resources into creating a fully functional prototype. This approach helps ensure that the final design meets the needs and preferences of a wide range of users.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following corresponds to the computer interface technology that uses icon, etc?

    • A.

      GDI

    • B.

      CAI

    • C.

      CUI

    • D.

      GUI

    Correct Answer
    D. GUI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GUI, which stands for Graphical User Interface. GUI is a computer interface technology that uses icons, menus, and other visual elements to interact with the user. It allows users to interact with the computer system through graphical representations rather than text-based commands. GUIs are widely used in modern operating systems and software applications to provide a more intuitive and user-friendly experience.

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  • 24. 

    Which of these are attributes of usability?

    • A.

      Easy to use

    • B.

      Usefulness

    • C.

      Learnability

    • D.

      Generalisability

    Correct Answer
    C. Learnability
    Explanation
    Learnability is an attribute of usability because it refers to how easily users can learn and understand how to use a product or system. A usable product should have a low learning curve, allowing users to quickly grasp its functionality and features without much effort. This attribute ensures that users can easily navigate and interact with the product, ultimately enhancing their overall experience.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following descriptions related to computer system reliability is correct?

    • A.

      The system preventive maintenance is performed in order to extend the MTBF

    • B.

      The system operating ratio is improved by extending the MTTR and MTBF

    • C.

      System remote maintenance improves the operating ratio, by improving the MTBF

    • D.

      The more complicated the system configuration is, the longer the MTBF becomes

    Correct Answer
    A. The system preventive maintenance is performed in order to extend the MTBF
    Explanation
    System preventive maintenance refers to the regular maintenance activities performed on a computer system to prevent any potential failures or issues. By conducting preventive maintenance, the system's Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) can be extended. This means that the system will have a longer average time between failures, resulting in increased reliability and reduced downtime.

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  • 26. 

    The cognitive walkthrough mainly evaluates a product's?

    • A.

      Efficiency

    • B.

      Utility

    • C.

      Learnability

    • D.

      Likeability

    Correct Answer
    C. Learnability
    Explanation
    The cognitive walkthrough mainly evaluates a product's learnability. This means that it assesses how easy it is for users to learn how to use the product effectively and efficiently. It focuses on the user's ability to understand and remember the product's features and functions, as well as their ability to apply that knowledge in real-world scenarios. By evaluating learnability, the cognitive walkthrough helps identify any potential usability issues and allows for improvements to be made to enhance the user's learning experience.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following are recognized kinds of prototypes:

    • A.

      Conceptual models

    • B.

      Interactive sketches

    • C.

      Beta versions

    • D.

      Paper

    Correct Answer
    B. Interactive sketches
    Explanation
    Interactive sketches are recognized kinds of prototypes because they allow for the exploration and testing of ideas in a visual and interactive way. They are often used in the early stages of the design process to quickly iterate and gather feedback. Interactive sketches can help designers and stakeholders better understand the user experience and functionality of a product before investing time and resources into more advanced prototypes or development.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following improve drawing and designing efficiency by using computer for designing industrial products and building constructions?

    • A.

      CAM

    • B.

      CAD

    • C.

      CIM

    • D.

      CAI

    Correct Answer
    B. CAD
    Explanation
    CAD (Computer-Aided Design) improves drawing and designing efficiency by using computers to create detailed and accurate digital representations of industrial products and building constructions. CAD software allows designers to easily manipulate and modify designs, perform simulations and tests, and generate precise measurements and specifications. This eliminates the need for manual drafting and allows for faster and more efficient design iterations. CAD also enables easy collaboration and sharing of designs, leading to improved productivity and accuracy in the design process.

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  • 29. 

    Post-test questionnaires (conducted after a usability test) are particularly useful for measuring?

    • A.

      Efficiency

    • B.

      User satisfaction

    • C.

      Safety

    • D.

      Learnability

    Correct Answer
    B. User satisfaction
    Explanation
    Post-test questionnaires conducted after a usability test are particularly useful for measuring user satisfaction. This is because these questionnaires allow participants to provide feedback on their overall satisfaction with the product or system being tested. By collecting this feedback, researchers can gain insights into how satisfied users are with the usability of the product, as well as identify any areas for improvement. User satisfaction is an important metric in evaluating the success of a usability test and can help guide future design decisions.

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  • 30. 

    A method that does not require human participants serving as test users is the

    • A.

      Rubin’s comparison test

    • B.

      Usability test

    • C.

      Heuristic evaluation

    • D.

      Pluralistic walkthrough

    Correct Answer
    C. Heuristic evaluation
    Explanation
    Heuristic evaluation is a method that does not require human participants serving as test users. It involves a small group of evaluators who examine a system or interface based on a set of predefined usability principles or heuristics. These evaluators identify potential usability issues and provide recommendations for improvement. This method is efficient and cost-effective as it does not require the involvement of actual users, making it suitable for early-stage evaluations or when user participation is not feasible.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following adequately describes the characteristic of packet switching?

    • A.

      Is not suitable for transmission of information between equipment where transmission speeds and protocols differ.

    • B.

      Enables efficient use of communication circuits (by sharing multiple communication path)

    • C.

      Suitable for transmission of large amounts of consecutive data.

    • D.

      Delays do not occur inside the switched network.

    Correct Answer
    B. Enables efficient use of communication circuits (by sharing multiple communication path)
    Explanation
    Packet switching is a method of transmitting data in which messages are divided into small packets and sent individually over a network. The characteristic of packet switching described in the given answer is that it enables efficient use of communication circuits by sharing multiple communication paths. This means that instead of dedicating a single communication path for the entire duration of a transmission, packet switching allows multiple packets to be sent simultaneously over different paths, thereby maximizing the utilization of the network resources. This helps in improving the overall efficiency and capacity of the network.

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  • 32. 

    How many bits are there in an IPv4 IP address?

    • A.

      32

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      16

    • D.

      64

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    An IPv4 IP address consists of 32 bits. Each bit represents a binary value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 32 bits. These bits are divided into four octets, with each octet consisting of 8 bits. The 32-bit IP address allows for a maximum of 4.3 billion unique addresses, which are used to identify devices on a network.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following commands shows the path from local host to a remote host?

    • A.

      Ipconfig

    • B.

      Tracert

    • C.

      Ping

    • D.

      Nmap

    Correct Answer
    B. Tracert
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "tracert". Tracert is a command used in Windows operating systems to trace the route that packets take from the local host to a remote host. It displays the IP addresses of the routers along the path and the time it takes for the packets to reach each router. This command is useful for troubleshooting network connectivity issues and identifying network bottlenecks.

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  • 34. 

    Three IP routers are connected by leased lines as shown in the figure below. Which of the following statements correctly describes the operation of router a in relaying a TCP/IP packets from terminal a to terminal b?

    • A.

      Router a learns the location of terminal b from the MAC address of the destination in the packet and relays the packets to router b only.

    • B.

      Router a relays all packets to both router b and router c.

    • C.

      Router a relays packets to router b only based on the destination IP address in the packet.

    • D.

      Router a relays packets to router b only according to the relay router specified in the packet.

    Correct Answer
    C. Router a relays packets to router b only based on the destination IP address in the packet.
    Explanation
    Router a relays packets to router b only based on the destination IP address in the packet. This implies that router a uses the IP address of the destination terminal to determine the next hop for the packet, and in this case, the next hop is router b. The MAC address of the destination is not relevant in this scenario.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning an ADSL?

    • A.

      Voice and data are sent by time-divided multiplexing.

    • B.

      Optical fiber cable is laid down to the home to enable various communication services such as telephony, ISDN, and data communications.

    • C.

      It enables high-speed data transmission of differing incoming and outgoing speeds, using the existing telephone line (twisted pair).

    • D.

      Voice and data are separated by a terminal adapter (TA), so they can share the same line.

    Correct Answer
    C. It enables high-speed data transmission of differing incoming and outgoing speeds, using the existing telephone line (twisted pair).
    Explanation
    An ADSL (Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line) enables high-speed data transmission of differing incoming and outgoing speeds, using the existing telephone line (twisted pair). This means that users can have faster download speeds compared to upload speeds, which is suitable for activities such as streaming or downloading large files. The use of the existing telephone line allows for easy implementation without the need for additional infrastructure.

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  • 36. 

    To use E-mail on the Internet, the two protocols SMTP and POP3 are used on mail servers. Which is the appropriate explanation of this?

    • A.

      SMTP is the protocol for the Internet, and POP3 is the protocol for LAN.

    • B.

      SMTP is the protocol used under normal circumstances when reception is possible, and POP3 is the protocol for fetching mail from the mailbox when connected.

    • C.

      The SMTP is a protocol used when one side is client, and POP3 is a protocol used when both sides to transmit are mail servers.

    • D.

      SMTP is a protocol for receiving, and POP3 is a protocol for sending.

    Correct Answer
    B. SMTP is the protocol used under normal circumstances when reception is possible, and POP3 is the protocol for fetching mail from the mailbox when connected.
    Explanation
    The explanation provided states that SMTP is the protocol used when reception is possible, indicating that it is used for sending emails. On the other hand, POP3 is described as the protocol for fetching mail from the mailbox when connected, suggesting that it is used for receiving emails. This explanation highlights the specific roles of SMTP and POP3 in the process of using email on the Internet.

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  • 37. 

    What is the maximum number of host address that can be set within the one and same subnet when the 255.255.255.0 subnet mask is used with the Class B IP address?

    • A.

      16,777,214

    • B.

      126

    • C.

      65,534

    • D.

      254

    Correct Answer
    D. 254
    Explanation
    The maximum number of host addresses that can be set within the one and same subnet when the 255.255.255.0 subnet mask is used with the Class B IP address is 254. The subnet mask 255.255.255.0 implies that the first three octets of the IP address are part of the network address, while the last octet can be used for host addresses. Since the last octet has 8 bits, it can represent 2^8 = 256 possible values. However, the first and last addresses in the subnet are reserved for network and broadcast addresses respectively, leaving 254 usable host addresses.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is suitable as a description of e-mail confidentiality on the Internet?

    • A.

      In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to employ preventive measures such as encryption.

    • B.

      When e-mail is transmitted, a one-to-one id established with the remote party based on the remote party’s address. Therefore, confidentiality is ensured.

    • C.

      Text files created with word processing programs and the file are translated into a computer’s internal code, so there is no risk that their contents will be read on the communication path.

    • D.

      In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to request the provider connecting the sender to register a receiver’s ID.

    Correct Answer
    A. In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to employ preventive measures such as encryption.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to employ preventive measures such as encryption." This answer is suitable because encryption is a widely recognized and effective method for protecting the confidentiality of e-mails. Encrypting the content of an e-mail ensures that it cannot be read or understood by unauthorized individuals, even if it is intercepted during transmission. By employing encryption, sensitive information in e-mails can be securely communicated and protected from unauthorized access.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is an international standard for a video image compression coding system?

    • A.

      NTSC

    • B.

      JPEG

    • C.

      MPEG

    • D.

      PCM

    Correct Answer
    C. MPEG
    Explanation
    MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group) is an international standard for video image compression coding system. It is widely used for encoding and decoding digital video and audio data. MPEG standards are designed to achieve high compression ratios while maintaining good video and audio quality. It allows efficient storage and transmission of video files, making it a widely adopted standard in various industries, including broadcasting, multimedia, and internet streaming.

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  • 40. 

    What is the correct description of packet switching?

    • A.

      Packet switching service is not possible with ISDN.

    • B.

      In order to carry out communication by packet switching, both the sender and the receiver must be packet mode terminals. (PT)

    • C.

      By setting multiple logical circuits, concurrent communication with multiple parties can be performed using one physical line.

    • D.

      Compare to circuit switching, the latency within the network is short.

    Correct Answer
    C. By setting multiple logical circuits, concurrent communication with multiple parties can be performed using one physical line.
    Explanation
    Packet switching allows for concurrent communication with multiple parties by setting multiple logical circuits using one physical line. Unlike circuit switching, which establishes a dedicated communication path, packet switching breaks data into small packets and sends them independently over the network. This allows for more efficient use of the network resources and reduces latency within the network. ISDN, on the other hand, is a circuit-switched technology and does not support packet switching.

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  • 41. 

    Which is the appropriate term to describe the information given to users for purpose of checking the authenticity to use a computer system and grasping the condition of use?

    • A.

      Password

    • B.

      User ID

    • C.

      Access right

    • D.

      IP address

    Correct Answer
    B. User ID
    Explanation
    The appropriate term to describe the information given to users for the purpose of checking the authenticity to use a computer system and grasping the condition of use is "User ID". A User ID is a unique identifier assigned to an individual user, allowing them to access a computer system or network. It helps in verifying the user's identity and determining their access rights and permissions within the system.

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  • 42. 

    In biometrics, a good measure of performance of a system is the:

    • A.

      False detection.

    • B.

      Positive acceptance rate.

    • C.

      Sensitivity

    • D.

      Crossover Error Rate (CER).

    Correct Answer
    D. Crossover Error Rate (CER).
    Explanation
    The Crossover Error Rate (CER) is a good measure of performance in biometrics because it represents the point at which the false acceptance rate and false rejection rate are equal. This means that the system is effectively balancing the rate at which it incorrectly accepts valid users (false acceptance) and incorrectly rejects valid users (false rejection). A lower CER indicates better performance as it means the system is accurately identifying and accepting valid users while minimizing the number of false acceptances and rejections.

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  • 43. 

    What is the item used for detection and extermination of virus infection in connection with already-known computer viruses?

    • A.

      Screen Saver

    • B.

      Vaccine

    • C.

      Trojan hourse

    • D.

      Hidden file

    Correct Answer
    B. Vaccine
    Explanation
    A vaccine is used to detect and exterminate virus infections in connection with already-known computer viruses. Similar to a medical vaccine, a computer vaccine is designed to prevent or eliminate the harmful effects of a specific virus. It works by identifying and neutralizing the virus, protecting the computer system from further damage. A screen saver, Trojan horse, and hidden file are unrelated to virus detection and extermination.

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  • 44. 

    What is the prime directive of Risk Management?

    • A.

      Reduce all risks regardless of cost

    • B.

      Reduce the risk to a tolerable level.

    • C.

      Transfer any risk to external third parties.

    • D.

      Prosecute any employees that are violating published security policies.

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduce the risk to a tolerable level.
    Explanation
    The prime directive of Risk Management is to reduce the risk to a tolerable level. This means that the goal is not to eliminate all risks, as that may not be feasible or cost-effective. Instead, the focus is on identifying and implementing measures to mitigate risks to a level that is acceptable and manageable for the organization. This approach allows for a balanced and practical approach to risk management, taking into consideration the potential impact and likelihood of risks occurring.

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  • 45. 

    There is a transposition cryptosystem in which plain text is devided into four-character blocks and in each block, the first character is moved to the third, the second to the first, the third to the fourth, and the fourth to the second. In this system, which is the correct cipher text for the plain text "DEERDIDDREAMDEEP"?

    • A.

      DIDDDEEPDEERREAM

    • B.

      ERDEIDDDEMRAEPDE

    • C.

      IDDDEPDEERDEEMRA

    • D.

      EDREDDDIARMEEDPE

    Correct Answer
    B. ERDEIDDDEMRAEPDE
    Explanation
    The given transposition cryptosystem swaps the positions of characters in each four-character block. Applying this system to the plain text "DEERDIDDREAMDEEP" results in the cipher text "ERDEIDDDEMRAEPDE".

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  • 46. 

    Which is the most appropriate practice for user ID management?

    • A.

      A user having multiple user IDs should set the same password for all the IDs.

    • B.

      All the users involved in the same project should use the same user ID.

    • C.

      When privileges are set for a user ID, they should be minimized.

    • D.

      When a user ID is to be deleted, an adequate time interval should be taken after the termination of its use has been notified.

    Correct Answer
    C. When privileges are set for a user ID, they should be minimized.
    Explanation
    The most appropriate practice for user ID management is to minimize the privileges set for a user ID. This means that each user should only be given the necessary privileges required to perform their job functions, and no more. This helps to reduce the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of sensitive information. By minimizing privileges, organizations can enhance security and ensure that users only have access to the resources they need to perform their roles effectively.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following operation methods is NOT appropriate for use with a computer system used with public telephone network?

    • A.

      If a password is not modified within a priviously specified period of time, it will no longer be possible to connect using this password.

    • B.

      If the password is entered wrongly for a number of times determined in advanced, the line will be disconnected.

    • C.

      When there is a request for connection, a callback will be made to a specific telephone number to establish the connection.

    • D.

      To ensure that the user does not forget the password, it is displayed on the terminal at the time of log on.

    Correct Answer
    D. To ensure that the user does not forget the password, it is displayed on the terminal at the time of log on.
    Explanation
    The operation method of displaying the password on the terminal at the time of log on is not appropriate for use with a computer system used with a public telephone network. This is because displaying the password on the terminal can compromise the security of the system, as anyone who has access to the terminal can see the password. It is important to keep passwords confidential to prevent unauthorized access to the system.

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  • 48. 

    Which choice below is the BEST description of a vulnerability?

    • A.

      Apotential incident that could cause harm

    • B.

      The minimization of loss associated with an incident

    • C.

      Acompany resource that could be lost due to an incident

    • D.

      Aweakness in a system that could be exploited

    Correct Answer
    D. Aweakness in a system that could be exploited
    Explanation
    A vulnerability refers to a weakness in a system that has the potential to be exploited. It signifies a flaw or a gap in the system's security measures that could be taken advantage of by attackers or malicious entities. This weakness can lead to various incidents, including unauthorized access, data breaches, or system failures, causing harm to the system or organization. Therefore, the best description of a vulnerability is a weakness in a system that could be exploited.

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  • 49. 

    When as shown in the figure below, Mr.M sends to Ms.N a message they want to keep confidential, which is the appropriate combination of the keys used for encryption and decryption?

    • A.

      Key A: M's private key Key B: M's public key

    • B.

      Key A: Common public key Key B: N's private key

    • C.

      Key A: Common private key Key B: Common public key

    • D.

      Key A: N's public key Key B: N's private key

    Correct Answer
    D. Key A: N's public key Key B: N's private key
    Explanation
    The appropriate combination of keys used for encryption and decryption in this scenario is Key A: N's public key and Key B: N's private key. This is because Mr. M wants to send a confidential message to Ms. N, and the use of Ms. N's public key for encryption ensures that only she can decrypt the message using her private key.

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  • 50. 

    Which is the correct statement about the recent increase in macro viruses?

    • A.

      Activating the system from an infected floppy disk loads the macro virus into the main meory, and then the virus infects the boot sectors of other floppy disks.

    • B.

      The execution of an infected application loads in the macro virus into the main memory, and in this process, the virus infects program files of other applications.

    • C.

      Since it can be easily determined as to whether a macro function is infected by a virus, infection can be prevented at the time of opening a document file.

    • D.

      A macro virus infects document files opened or newly created after an infected document file is opened.

    Correct Answer
    D. A macro virus infects document files opened or newly created after an infected document file is opened.

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