Act Science Exam 3


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Act Science Exam 3 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What metric base unit would be used to record the height of a person?

    • A.

      Gram

    • B.

      Inch

    • C.

      Meter

    • D.

      Milliliter

    Correct Answer
    C. Meter
    Explanation
    C. Meter is the metric base unit for length. See Lesson: Designing an Experiment.

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  • 2. 

    A researcher notices a positive correlation between the height of a plant and nutrient concentration over time. Based on this observation, what conclusion does he reach?

    • A.

      The height of a plant increases in the absence and presence of the nutrients.

    • B.

      When the amount of nutrients available to the plant decreases, its height increases.

    • C.

      The amount of nutrients available to a plant is independent of how tall the plant gets.

    • D.

      When the amount of nutrients available to the plant increases, its height also increases.

    Correct Answer
    D. When the amount of nutrients available to the plant increases, its height also increases.
    Explanation
    D. Because this is a positive correlation, if the nutrient concentration increases or decreases, plant height will either increase or decrease accordingly. See Lesson: Designing an Experiment.

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  • 3. 

    How many electrons does a neutral atom of iodine have?

    • A.

      53

    • B.

      74

    • C.

      126

    • D.

      127

    Correct Answer
    A. 53
    Explanation
    A. In a neutral atom, the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons. Because the atomic number of iodine is 53, there are 53 protons and 53 electrons to balance the charge. See Lesson: Scientific Notation.

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  • 4. 

    A nanometer is equal to 1 Ă— 10-9 meter. How is this value written in standard notation?

    • A.

      0.0000000001 m

    • B.

      0.000000001 m

    • C.

      1,000,000,000 m

    • D.

      10,000,000,000 m

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.000000001 m
    Explanation
    B. The exponent is negative 9, which means that the decimal point moves to the left nine spaces when converting to standard notation. See Lesson: Scientific Notation.

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  • 5. 

    What is the Celsius value for 85 K?

    • A.

      −145

    • B.

      −188

    • C.

      −205

    • D.

      −358

    Correct Answer
    B. −188
    Explanation
    B. Using the following formula, K = °C + 273: 85 − 273 = −188. See Lesson: Temperature and the Metric System.

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  • 6. 

    A pharmacist is preparing a 50 μl solution. This value is equivalent to _____.

    • A.

      0.000005 liters

    • B.

      0.0005 deciliters

    • C.

      0.005 milliliters

    • D.

      0.05 centiliters

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.0005 deciliters
    Explanation
    B. A microliter is much smaller than a deciliter. There are 10 deciliters in one liter but 1,000,000 microliters in one liter. That means 1 deciliter equals 100,000 microliters. Using this as the equivalency value, 50 microliters divided by 100,000 yields 0.0005 deciliters. See Lesson: Temperature and the Metric System.

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  • 7. 

    What is a benefit of a taxonomic system?

    • A.

      Researchers can describe how living things behave.

    • B.

      Researchers can develop names for new organisms.

    • C.

      Living things can be distinguished from nonliving things.

    • D.

      Living things can be classified based on their molecular traits.

    Correct Answer
    B. Researchers can develop names for new organisms.
    Explanation
    B. The purpose of a taxonomic system is to classify, describe, and name living things in an organized manner. See Lesson: An Introduction to Biology.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is produced during the Citric Acid Cycle?

    • A.

      Electrons

    • B.

      NADH

    • C.

      Pyruvate

    • D.

      Cellulose

    Correct Answer
    C. Pyruvate
    Explanation
    C. After pyruvate molecules from glycolysis are produced, these sugar molecules are used to make 2 ATP molecules, 6 carbon dioxide molecules, and 6 NADH molecules. While cellulose is a carbohydrate like glucose, it is not used to produce pyruvate. Electrons are created during oxidative phosphorylation. See Lesson: An Introduction to Biology.

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  • 9. 

    What is a characteristic of eukaryotes?

    • A.

      These organisms are all unicellular.

    • B.

      They lack a membrane-bound nucleus.

    • C.

      Many organelles are in their cytoplasm.

    • D.

      Bacteria and plants are examples of eukaryotes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Many organelles are in their cytoplasm.
    Explanation
    C. Eukaryotic cells are unicellular or multicellular organisms that contain a membrane-bound nucleus. Eukaryotic cells contain several different organelles. See Lesson: Cell Structure, Function, and Type.

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  • 10. 

    What is the basis for classifying an organism as either an autotroph or a heterotroph?

    • A.

      The way an organism obtains its energy

    • B.

      The organism’s ranking in the taxonomic system

    • C.

      The type of ecosystem in which an organism lives

    • D.

      Whether the organism is unicellular or multicellular

    Correct Answer
    A. The way an organism obtains its energy
    Explanation
    A. Organisms are classified as either autotrophs or heterotrophs according to how they obtain energy. Autotrophs obtain energy through sunlight, whereas heterotrophs obtain energy through food. See Lesson: Cell Structure, Function, and Type.

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  • 11. 

    Which process is part of photosynthesis?

    • A.

      Anaphase

    • B.

      Glycolysis

    • C.

      Calvin cycle

    • D.

      Pyruvate oxidation

    Correct Answer
    C. Calvin cycle
    Explanation
    C. Photosynthesis consists of light reactions and dark reactions. The dark reactions are referred to as the Calvin cycle. See Lesson: Cellular Reproduction, Cellular Respiration, and Photosynthesis.

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  • 12. 

    If someone needs ATP desperately and has run out of oxygen, what could help?

    • A.

      Meiosis

    • B.

      Calvin cycle

    • C.

      Fermentation

    • D.

      Electron transport chain

    Correct Answer
    C. Fermentation
    Explanation
    C. Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces ATP in the absence of oxygen. Thus, it is an anaerobic form of respiration. See Lesson: Cellular Reproduction, Cellular Respiration, and Photosynthesis.

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  • 13. 

    What are the three parts of a nucleotide?

    • A.

      Sulfate group, five-carbon sugar molecule, and nitrogen base

    • B.

      Phosphate group, five-carbon sugar molecule, and oxygen base

    • C.

      Nitrogen base, phosphate group, and six-carbon sugar molecule

    • D.

      Five-carbon sugar molecule, phosphate group, and nitrogen base

    Correct Answer
    D. Five-carbon sugar molecule, phosphate group, and nitrogen base
    Explanation
    D. Each nucleotide has three parts: a five-carbon sugar molecule, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base. See Lesson: Genetics and DNA.

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  • 14. 

    What is the purpose of RNA polymerase?

    • A.

      To become a protein

    • B.

      To become a nucleotide

    • C.

      To function as an enzyme

    • D.

      To develop into a terminator

    Correct Answer
    C. To function as an enzyme
    Explanation
    C. The RNA polymerase functions as an enzyme. See Lesson: Genetics and DNA.

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  • 15. 

    How can an organism have two alleles for each trait but only one of those alleles is expressed?

    • A.

      One of the alleles is hidden in the chromosome.

    • B.

      One of the alleles is dominant over the other allele.

    • C.

      It depends on which allele is obtained from a parent first.

    • D.

      The allele closest to the top of the chromosomes is expressed.

    Correct Answer
    B. One of the alleles is dominant over the other allele.
    Explanation
    B. One of the alleles is dominant, so it is expressed. See Lesson: Genetics and DNA.

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  • 16. 

    When a sample of dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) undergoes sublimation in a sealed bucket, what happens to its shape and volume?

    • A.

      It retains its original shape and its original volume.

    • B.

      It changes both its shape and its volume to fit those of the bucket.

    • C.

      It retains its original shape, but its volume expands to fit that of the bucket.

    • D.

      It changes its shape to fit that of the bucket, but its volume does not change.

    Correct Answer
    B. It changes both its shape and its volume to fit those of the bucket.
    Explanation
    B. As the dry ice sublimes, it goes from a solid that has a fixed shape and volume to a gas, which takes both the shape and volume of its container. See Lesson: States of Matter.

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  • 17. 

    Given the heating curve of iron, what are the approximate melting and boiling points?

    • A.

      900°C, 2300°C

    • B.

      1500°C, 2900°C

    • C.

      2300°C, 3100°C

    • D.

      2900°C, 3400°C

    Correct Answer
    B. 1500°C, 2900°C
    Explanation
    B. The line between B and C is the melting point, around 1500°C, and the line between D and E is the boiling point, around 2900°C. See Lesson: States of Matter.

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  • 18. 

    _____ is dependent not only on the temperature, but also on the amount of substance available.

    • A.

      Condensation

    • B.

      Deposition

    • C.

      Evaporation

    • D.

      Melting

    Correct Answer
    C. Evaporation
    Explanation
    C. Unlike condensation, deposition, and melting, evaporation is dependent not only on the temperature, but also on the amount of a substance available. See Lesson: Properties of Matter.

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  • 19. 

    Net water movement through a membrane in response to the concentration of a solute is called _____.

    • A.

      Bonding

    • B.

      Diffusion

    • C.

      Osmosis

    • D.

      Polarity

    Correct Answer
    C. Osmosis
    Explanation
    C. Net water movement through a membrane in response to the concentration of a solute is called osmosis. See Lesson: Properties of Matter.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following bonds involves elements with the greatest difference in electronegativity?

    • A.

      Silicon and chlorine

    • B.

      Sodium and chlorine

    • C.

      Aluminum and chlorine

    • D.

      Phosphorus and chlorine

    Correct Answer
    B. Sodium and chlorine
    Explanation
    B. Electronegativity increases moving across a period. Therefore, out of the elements in period 3, sodium has the lowest electronegativity, and chlorine has the highest. The difference between their electronegativities will be greatest. See Lesson: Chemical Bonds.

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  • 21. 

    Octane in gasoline has the formula C8H18. What type of compound is it, and why?

    • A.

      Ionic, because it contains a metal

    • B.

      Covalent, because it contains a metal

    • C.

      Ionic, because it does not contain a metal

    • D.

      Covalent, because it does not contain a metal

    Correct Answer
    D. Covalent, because it does not contain a metal
    Explanation
    D. Octane is a covalent compound that is formed from atoms of two nonmetals, carbon and hydrogen. See Lesson: Chemical Bonds.

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  • 22. 

    What type of reaction will occur between hexane (C6H14) and oxygen (O2)?

    • A.

      Synthesis

    • B.

      Combustion

    • C.

      Decomposition

    • D.

      Single-replacement

    Correct Answer
    B. Combustion
    Explanation
    B. Hexane contains carbon and hydrogen, which means it can be the fuel in a combustion reaction when it reacts with oxygen. See Lesson: Chemical Solutions.

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  • 23. 

    The graph below shows the energy of the species involved in a chemical reaction as the reaction proceeds. What is the activation energy required in this reaction?

    • A.

      30 kJ

    • B.

      40 kJ

    • C.

      70 kJ

    • D.

      100 kJ

    Correct Answer
    B. 40 kJ
    Explanation
    B. The activation energy is the amount of energy required for the reactants to form the transition state. In other words, it is the difference in energy between the reactants (30 kJ) and the transition state (70 kJ). See Lesson: Chemical Solutions.

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  • 24. 

    What is the conjugate base in the following reaction? HNO2 + H2O ⟷ ?

    • A.

      OH-

    • B.

      NO2-

    • C.

      H3O+

    • D.

      HNO3-

    Correct Answer
    B. NO2-
    Explanation
    B. The conjugate base is NO2- because the acid HNO2 donates a hydrogen ion during the reaction. See Lesson: Acids and Bases.

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  • 25. 

    An acid that dissociates into hydrogen ions is defined as a(n)

    • A.

      Weak acid.

    • B.

      Arrhenuis acid.

    • C.

      Conjugate acid.

    • D.

      Brønsted-Lowry acid.

    Correct Answer
    B. Arrhenuis acid.
    Explanation
    B. According to the Arrhenius theory for acids, these substances dissociate into hydrogen ions when dissolved in water. Arrhenius bases dissociate into hydroxide ions. See Lesson: Acids and Bases.

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  • 26. 

    What is the acceleration of a 9.7-kilogram object moving at a velocity (2.3, 8.9) meters per second and subject to a net force of (3.2, –1.8) newtons?

    • A.

      (–0.093, 1.1) m/s2

    • B.

      (0.24, 0.92) m/s2

    • C.

      (0.33, –0.19) m/s2

    • D.

      (0.56, 0.73) m/s2

    Correct Answer
    C. (0.33, –0.19) m/s2
  • 27. 

    If an object experiences a northward force of 5.0 newtons and an eastward force of 12 newtons, what is the magnitude of the resultant force?

    • A.

      6.5 newtons

    • B.

      7.0 newtons

    • C.

      13 newtons

    • D.

      17 newtons

    Correct Answer
    C. 13 newtons
    Explanation
    C. A simple approach to this problem is to note that the two forces are perpendicular to each other. Therefore, placing the head of one on the tail of the other and drawing the resultant (sum) force creates a right triangle with the resultant force as the hypotenuse. Use the Pythagorean theorem to calculate the resultant force in newtons:

    See Lesson: Nature of Motion.

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  • 28. 

    A particle in uniform circular motion has an angular frequency of 7.06 x 104 hertz. What is its period?

    • A.

      1.42 x 10–5 s

    • B.

      8.90 x 10–5 s

    • C.

      1.12 x 104 s

    • D.

      4.44 x 105 s

    Correct Answer
    B. 8.90 x 10–5 s
    Explanation
    B. The angular frequency ω of an object in uniform circular motion is equal to 2πf, where f is its frequency. Furthermore, f is equal to 1/T, where T is the period. Use these relationships to solve for T in seconds.

    See Lesson: Friction.

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  • 29. 

    A particle moves at a constant speed on a circular path at a frequency of 25 hertz. If the radius of the circle is 14 meters, what is the particle’s speed?

    • A.

      3.5 m/s

    • B.

      11 m/s

    • C.

      350 m/s

    • D.

      2,200 m/s

    Correct Answer
    D. 2,200 m/s
  • 30. 

    A scientist has measured a sound wave traveling at 7.2 × 104 feet per minute at a frequency of 1.0 × 103 hertz. What is the wavelength?

    • A.

      0.014 feet

    • B.

      0.083 feet

    • C.

      1.2 feet

    • D.

      72 feet

    Correct Answer
    C. 1.2 feet
  • 31. 

    What is the period of a wave with a wavelength of 10 miles and a frequency of 105 hertz?

    • A.

      10–5 hertz

    • B.

      10–5 miles

    • C.

      10–5 seconds

    • D.

      10–5 miles per second

    Correct Answer
    C. 10–5 seconds
    Explanation
    C. The period is the time between successive crests or troughs of a wave. It is the reciprocal of the frequency—in this case, it is 10–5 seconds. See Lesson: Waves and Sounds.

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  • 32. 

    A ray traveling in air strikes water at an angle of 30.0° from the normal. What will its angle be in the water? (Assume air has a refractive index of 1.00 and water has a refractive index of 1.30.)

    • A.

      22.6°

    • B.

      23.1°

    • C.

      39.0°

    • D.

      40.5°

    Correct Answer
    A. 22.6°
  • 33. 

    A roller coaster car loaded with riders has a mass of 1490 kg. The car reaches its top speed of 26.8 m/s at the bottom of the first hill (along ground level). What was the height of the previous hill?

    • A.

      2.73 m

    • B.

      19.2 m

    • C.

      36.6 m

    • D.

      73.4 m

    Correct Answer
    C. 36.6 m
  • 34. 

    What is the velocity of a 70 kg runner with a momentum of ?

    Correct Answer
    C.
  • 35. 

    The electric field at a certain location is 100 newtons per coulomb. What would be the electric force exerted on an electrically neutral object placed at that location?

    • A.

      0 newtons

    • B.

      50 newtons

    • C.

      100 newtons

    • D.

      200 newtons

    Correct Answer
    A. 0 newtons
    Explanation
    A. Uncharged (electrically neutral) objects neither exert nor experience electric forces. Therefore, the force on the object will be 0 regardless of the field strength. See Lesson: Electricity and Magnetism.

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  • 36. 

    A 5.0-volt battery delivers 0.020 amps to a resistor. What is the resistance of the resistor?

    • A.

      4.0× 10–3 ohms

    • B.

      0.10 ohms

    • C.

      10 ohms

    • D.

      250 ohms

    Correct Answer
    D. 250 ohms
  • 37. 

    What is the electric field 3.0 × 102 meters from a 5.0 × 10–3-coulomb charge? (Assume the electric constant is 9 × 109 when using units of newtons, coulombs, and meters.)

    • A.

      2.5 newtons per coulomb

    • B.

      5.0 × 102 newtons per coulomb

    • C.

      1.5 × 105 newtons per coulomb

    • D.

      2.3 × 105 newtons per coulomb

    Correct Answer
    B. 5.0 × 102 newtons per coulomb
  • 38. 

    What is the name for the regions in space where gravity is so intense that nothing can escape?

    • A.

      Dark matter

    • B.

      Black holes

    • C.

      Dwarf stars

    • D.

      Light-years

    Correct Answer
    B. Black holes
    Explanation
    B. Black holes are regions in space with such intense gravity that nothing, not even light, can escape. See Lesson: Astronomy.

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  • 39. 

    What is geology?

    • A.

      The study of all life on Earth

    • B.

      The study of weather patterns

    • C.

      The study of the moon, stars, and other objects in space

    • D.

      The study of Earth and its physical components and their interactions over time

    Correct Answer
    D. The study of Earth and its physical components and their interactions over time
    Explanation
    D. Geology is the study of Earth and its physical components and their interactions over time. See Lesson: Geology.

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  • 40. 

    What causes the circulation of wind in the atmosphere?

    • A.

      Earth’s rotation and gravity

    • B.

      Earth’s rotation and erosion

    • C.

      The rise and fall of sea levels

    • D.

      Earth’s rotation and the influx of energy from the sun

    Correct Answer
    D. Earth’s rotation and the influx of energy from the sun
    Explanation
    D. The circulation of the atmosphere is caused by Earth’s rotation and the influx of energy from the sun. See Lesson: Meteorology.

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