Windows Server 70-292 Comp Quiz
A short, 30-question quiz that covers the span of the material in 70-292. It touches base on the major topics, but you will need to study much more in depth to be successful.
- 1.
You install IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003. After installation, you are surprised to learn that the FTP server is not operational. What is the most likely reason for this?
- A.
IIS does not install the FTP service by default
- B.
The FTP service is being blocked by the Windows Firewall
- C.
The FTP service is not compatible with Windows Server 2003
- D.
IIS does not include an FTP server
- E.
The WWW service is taking precedence over the FTP service
Correct Answer
A. IIS does not install the FTP service by defaultExplanation
IIS does not include any server but WWW by default.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which of the following is true of the distintion between security and distribution groups?
- A.
Security groups control access to resources while distribution groups do not
- B.
Distribution groups control access to resources while security groups do not
- C.
Both security and distribution groups control access to resources
- D.
Neither security nor distribution groups control access to resources
- E.
Security groups are the same as distribution groups
Correct Answer
A. Security groups control access to resources while distribution groups do notExplanation
Security groups are used in ACL lists, including "Administrators," "Power Users," and "Guests."Rate this question:
-
- 3.
You have a shared folder on Windows 2003 with shadow copies configured. A user complains that even though shadow copies appears to be working, he keeps accessing an older version of a file. What is the likely explanation for this?
- A.
The user is using Windows 2000, which is not compatible with shadow copies
- B.
The user does not have file and print sharing enabled
- C.
The server has too many concurrent requests
- D.
The shadow copies schedule is not set to download or shadow often enough
- E.
The user does not have the correct permissions to access the shared folder
Correct Answer
D. The shadow copies schedule is not set to download or shadow often enoughExplanation
Shadow copies are scheduled to update on a regular interval; if the interval has not been met, a new version will not be copied or "shadowed."Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Which key do you press to initiate ASR in Windows Server 2003 recovery?
- A.
F2 during BIOS
- B.
F2 during setup
- C.
F2 during Windows Screen
- D.
F8 during setup
- E.
F8 at login
Correct Answer
B. F2 during setupExplanation
F2 initiates ASR, or automated system recovery.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Which of the following is not always included in an ASR backup?
- A.
Key system configuration settings
- B.
OS components
- C.
System services
- D.
Program files
- E.
System state data
Correct Answer
D. Program filesExplanation
Program and data files are not necessarily backed up through ASR.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
You are the administrator a Windows Server 2003 environment with SUS set up. There is a critical update and one of your subordinates complains that even though the update downloaded, it was not deployed to the computers. What is the most likely reason for this?
- A.
The updates were not downloaded correctly
- B.
The network is not functioning
- C.
Remote Desktop Protocol is not enabled
- D.
WWW Service is not enabled
- E.
You did not approve the updates for deployment
Correct Answer
E. You did not approve the updates for deploymentExplanation
Sometimes, SUS can be setup such that all updates require approval before installation. This is to prevent update conflicts with old software and configuration.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Which of the following commands will add a user PETEROSE in a Windows Server 2003 Active Directory environment?
- A.
Dsadd computer PETEROSE
- B.
Useradd PETEROSE
- C.
Csve PETE ROSE
- D.
Dsadd user PETEROSE
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Dsadd user PETEROSEExplanation
The syntax is dsadd user NAMERate this question:
-
- 8.
Which of the following is not a requirement for the establishment of a terminal services connection?
- A.
RDP must be enabled on the remote host (the server)
- B.
The user must be a member of the Remote Desktop Users Group
- C.
Allow Logon Through Terminal Services must be enabled
- D.
The user must have terminal services installed
- E.
The user's account must be enabled to Allow Terminal Services
Correct Answer
D. The user must have terminal services installedExplanation
The user must have terminal services installed is not a requirement for the establishment of a terminal services connection. Terminal services are installed on the server (remote host), not on the user's computer. The user only needs to have the necessary permissions and be a member of the Remote Desktop Users Group to establish a terminal services connection.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Which of the following is true regarding the use of volume shadow copies?
- A.
Volume shadow copies allows for the opening of locked files but not opened files
- B.
Volume shadow copies allows for the opening of hidden files but not opened files
- C.
Volume shadow copies allows for the opening of opened files but not locked files
- D.
Volume shadow copies allows for the opening of opened files but not hidden files
- E.
Volume shadow copies allows for the opening of both opened and locked files
Correct Answer
E. Volume shadow copies allows for the opening of both opened and locked filesExplanation
Volume shadow copies allow for the opening of both opened and locked files. This means that even if a file is currently in use or locked by another process, volume shadow copies can still access and open the file. This is useful for situations where a user needs to access a previous version of a file that is currently being used or locked.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Which of the following commands will display all updates on a particular Windows 2000 or above PC?
- A.
WMIC.exe QFE
- B.
WSUS.exe QFE
- C.
WMIC.exe
- D.
WSUS.exe
- E.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
A. WMIC.exe QFEExplanation
WMIC.exe QFE is the correct answer because the "QFE" parameter is used with the WMIC.exe command to display all the updates installed on a Windows 2000 or above PC. QFE stands for Quick Fix Engineering, which refers to updates, patches, and hotfixes released by Microsoft to address specific issues or vulnerabilities in the operating system. Using this command will provide a comprehensive list of all the updates applied to the PC. WSUS.exe QFE is not the correct answer as WSUS.exe is the Windows Server Update Services tool and does not have a "QFE" parameter.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which of the following is the default virtual directory for printers in Windows Server 2003?
- A.
/printers/
- B.
/printing/
- C.
#print
- D.
$print
- E.
//print
Correct Answer
A. /printers/Explanation
The default virtual directory for printers in Windows Server 2003 is "/printers/". This directory is specifically designed for managing and accessing printers on the server. It allows users to easily locate and connect to printers, as well as perform various printer-related tasks such as monitoring print jobs and managing printer settings.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Which of the following accurately describes a distinct advantage of shadow volume copies as compared to regular scheduled backups?
- A.
Shadow volume copies are more secure
- B.
Users can easily restore files backed up via shadow volume copies
- C.
Administrators can choose the interval that shadow volume copies operates under
- D.
Regular backups use more file or disk space
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Users can easily restore files backed up via shadow volume copiesExplanation
Users can access files that were accidently deleted via shadow volume copies, a task that would otherwise require administrator intervention.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
What is the purpose of the SOA record in DNS?
- A.
Defines the unique IP address mapped to each zone
- B.
Defines the unique zone mapped to each IP address
- C.
Defines the DNS server that will handle requests to a specific zone
- D.
Defines the MAC address per each unique IP address
- E.
Defines the zone of the requesting client
Correct Answer
C. Defines the DNS server that will handle requests to a specific zoneExplanation
The SOA (Start of Authority) record maps each zone to a specific DNS server capable and possessing the authority to handle each zone.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which of the following is not a valid DNS name?
- A.
Microsoft.com
- B.
Windows.microsoft.com
- C.
Star.company
- D.
Star-company.com
- E.
Explanation
The @ symbol is not allowed.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which of the following records defines the mail server on record in terms of DNS?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
MX
- D.
B
- E.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
C. MXExplanation
The correct answer is MX. MX stands for Mail Exchange and it is a type of DNS record that specifies the mail server responsible for accepting incoming emails for a specific domain. This record is used to route emails to the correct mail server based on the domain name in the email address.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Which of the following is not a fuctional level of Windows Server 2003 domain operation?
- A.
Windows 2000 mixed
- B.
Windows 2000 native
- C.
Windows Server 2003 interim
- D.
Windows Server 2003
- E.
All of the above are functional levels
Correct Answer
E. All of the above are functional levelsExplanation
The given answer states that all of the options provided are functional levels of Windows Server 2003 domain operation. This means that Windows 2000 mixed, Windows 2000 native, Windows Server 2003 interim, and Windows Server 2003 are all valid functional levels in Windows Server 2003 domain operation.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Which of the following accurately describes the "principle of least privilege?"
- A.
Users should be granted permission only to access non-confidential data
- B.
A network should allow only the minority of users to access the majority of confidential data
- C.
Access to data and resources should be granted on an as-needed basis
- D.
No data should ever be allowed to be accessed without some form of login privilege
- E.
Users should be granted as many permissions as possible
Correct Answer
C. Access to data and resources should be granted on an as-needed basisExplanation
Access should only be granted to the users who need the resources, and at the smallest level possible.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Why can't record modification be performed on a secondary zone server?
- A.
Secondary zones do not hold records
- B.
Secondary zones are read-only
- C.
Secondary zones are only used without records
- D.
Secondary zones cannot be used in conjunction with primary zones
- E.
Records are only kept on primary servers
Correct Answer
B. Secondary zones are read-onlyExplanation
Since the secondary zone servers are read-only, they cannot be modified.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
You wish to refresh the DNS cache on a Windows Server 2003 DNS server. You use the command "IPCONFIG /flushdns" to flush the DNS cache, but it doesn't work. What is the issue?
- A.
The syntax of the command is incorrect
- B.
The command only works on Windows Server 2000 DNS servers
- C.
The command only works on DNS clients
- D.
The server requires a reboot before the command is successful
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. The command only works on DNS clientsExplanation
The command is for DNS clients only.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
In which order are software restrictions applied in Windows Server 2003
- A.
Hash rule, certificate rule, path rule, zone rule
- B.
Certificate rule, hash rule, path rule, zone rule
- C.
Hash rule, path rule, zone rule, certificate rule
- D.
Path rule, zone rule, hash rule, certificate rule
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Hash rule, certificate rule, path rule, zone ruleExplanation
Software restrictions in Windows Server 2003 are applied in the following order: Hash rule, certificate rule, path rule, zone rule. This means that the system first checks if there is a hash rule that matches the software, then it checks if there is a certificate rule, followed by a path rule, and finally a zone rule. This order ensures that the most specific rules are applied first, allowing for more granular control over software restrictions.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
By default, you cannot copy files and folders from a hard drive to another drive through recovery console. How can you change this behavior?
- A.
Through Security Options in Local Policy
- B.
Through Group Policy
- C.
By typing in the recovery console prompt: "allowremoveable"
- D.
There is no way to accomplish this
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Through Security Options in Local PolicyExplanation
To change the default behavior of not being able to copy files and folders from a hard drive to another drive through the recovery console, you can access the Security Options in Local Policy. By modifying the settings in the Local Policy, you can enable the ability to copy files and folders between drives. This allows for more flexibility and control when using the recovery console.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
Which of the following is not backed up using ASR?
- A.
System state data
- B.
Service information
- C.
Local security policy
- D.
Local settings
- E.
Password policy
Correct Answer
D. Local settingsExplanation
Local settings are defined at a per-user basis and therefore not part ofthe crucial data backed up through ASRRate this question:
-
- 23.
Which of the following is not included in System State Data?
- A.
Sysvol directory
- B.
Registry
- C.
Active directory
- D.
COM+ files
- E.
All are included
Correct Answer
E. All are includedExplanation
The correct answer is "All are included". This means that all of the options listed (Sysvol directory, Registry, Active directory, and COM+ files) are included in System State Data.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Which of the following regarding group scopes?
- A.
Security groups cannot be universal
- B.
Group scopes are related to group types
- C.
Group scopes are not related to group types
- D.
Distribution groups are always universal
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Group scopes are not related to group typesExplanation
Groups scopes are related to the level of the domain structure the group operates on, whereas group types have to do with whether a group is a security group or a distribution group.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Which of the following is an advantage of cached servers in Windows Server 2003 DNS?
- A.
They increase the availability of primary and secondary zone servers
- B.
They increase the security of a DNS Server by providing SSL and TLS encryption
- C.
They are authoratative
- D.
They allow for increased administrative precision
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. They increase the availability of primary and secondary zone serversExplanation
Cached servers in Windows Server 2003 DNS increase the availability of primary and secondary zone servers by storing recently accessed DNS information in memory. This allows the server to respond quickly to subsequent requests for the same information without having to query other DNS servers. By reducing the need for external queries, cached servers improve the overall performance and availability of the DNS system.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Which of the following accurately describes the limitations of Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Server on an Itanium-based processing system?
- A.
It supports up to 32 GB RAM
- B.
It supports up to 8 CPU's
- C.
It does not support node clustering
- D.
It supports up to 4 node clusters
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. It supports up to 8 CPU'sExplanation
Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Server on an Itanium-based processing system supports up to 8 CPUs. This means that the server can have a maximum of 8 processors installed and utilized.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2022Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Sep 03, 2007Quiz Created by
Vaibhav Agarwal
Back to top