5j0x1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 2

101 Questions | Total Attempts: 211

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5j0x1 Quizzes & Trivia

Paralegal course


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not a reason for requesting a voluntary discharge?
    • A. 

      Accepting public office

    • B. 

      Early release for Chirstmas

    • C. 

      Sole surviving son or daughter

    • D. 

      Conditions that interfere with military service

  • 2. 
    What is the first thing an Airman wishing to leave active Air Force service must do?
    • A. 

      Submit his/her request in writing to MPS

    • B. 

      Submit the request to his/her unit commander

    • C. 

      Submit the request to his/her separation authority

    • D. 

      Submit an AF Form 31

  • 3. 
    What must a commander ensure before recommending any type of involuntary discharge?
    • A. 

      All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted.

    • B. 

      Airman has met with the ADC and understands their options

    • C. 

      Convening authority has concurred with the proposed action

    • D. 

      Legal office has reviewed the file, and it is legally sufficient

  • 4. 
    After how many days of continuous active duty is a commander not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge?
    • A. 

      80

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      180

    • D. 

      190

  • 5. 
    The first step in a notification discharge is when the member
    • A. 

      Reports for a medical examination

    • B. 

      Submits a statement in rebuttal of the discharge

    • C. 

      Receives oral notice of the reason(s) for disharge

    • D. 

      Receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge

  • 6. 
    After an Airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, what is his next action?
    • A. 

      Go to the MPS for discharge processing

    • B. 

      Report to the Medical Group for a medical examination

    • C. 

      Make an appotinment with the ADC

    • D. 

      Submit a statement in rebuttal of the discharge.

  • 7. 
    In an administrative discharge board hearing, to whom does the legal advisor administer the oath?
    • A. 

      Reporter

    • B. 

      Recorder

    • C. 

      Legal Advisor

    • D. 

      Voting Member

  • 8. 
    Once opening statements have been made, who first presents evidence in an administrative discharge board proceeding?
    • A. 

      Respondent's counsel

    • B. 

      Legal advisor

    • C. 

      Recorder

    • D. 

      Reporter

  • 9. 
    Who normally authenitcates the record of proceedings for an administrative discharge board?
    • A. 

      Legal advisor

    • B. 

      Respondent

    • C. 

      Reporter

    • D. 

      Judge

  • 10. 
    What is the standard of proof in an administrative discharge board proceeding?
    • A. 

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • B. 

      Preponderance of the evidence

    • C. 

      Clear and convincing evidence

    • D. 

      Standards of proof do not apply to discharge boards

  • 11. 
    If acting as an assisant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you will
    • A. 

      Need to have a copy of the script

    • B. 

      Need to be organized and ready to proceed

    • C. 

      Need to have a copy of the convening order

    • D. 

      Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times

  • 12. 
    When a squadron commander believes he or she has an officer that should be discharged, you must tell the commander their first step is to
    • A. 

      Send the officer to the ADC

    • B. 

      Serve a notification memorandum on the officer

    • C. 

      Send the file to the SPCMCA

    • D. 

      Evaluate the information and consult with the SJA

  • 13. 
    When a BOI is to be convened, within how many days must the officer be notified, in writing, before the BOR hearing?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      45

  • 14. 
    A commander may continued demotion action based on incidents that occurred before an Airman's reenlistment.
    • A. 

      By special approval of the SecAF

    • B. 

      By special approval of the MAJCOM commander

    • C. 

      If the Airman was promoted based on achievements prior to the reenlistment

    • D. 

      If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment

  • 15. 
    Within what maximom number of days must an Airman submit an appeal to a demotion action to the MPS?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Seven

    • D. 

      Ten

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is considered to be the least severe form a administrative discipline?
    • A. 

      LOR

    • B. 

      LOA

    • C. 

      Placement on a control roster

    • D. 

      RIC

  • 17. 
    If a commander places an active duty Airman on a control roster on 1 September 2011, what is the latest date he or she may remove the inidividual from the control roster?
    • A. 

      2 March 2012

    • B. 

      31 January 2012

    • C. 

      29 February 2012

    • D. 

      31 December 2011

  • 18. 
    Prior to filing an optional document in an Airman's UIF, the decision authority must first notify the member of the intent to do so by using
    • A. 

      DD Form 1058

    • B. 

      AF IMT 1058

    • C. 

      DD Form 2907

    • D. 

      AF IMT 2907

  • 19. 
    If a commander assumes command of his squadron on 5 September 2011, by what date must he review the UIF on his assigned personnel?
    • A. 

      4 January 2012

    • B. 

      31 January 2012

    • C. 

      4 December 2011

    • D. 

      31 December 2011

  • 20. 
    Assessments of the installation drug testing program must be performed at least?
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Bi-annually

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Every two years

  • 21. 
    For the drug demand reduction program, an audit of collection procedures at a GSU is required at least
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Bi-annually

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Every two years

  • 22. 
    While TJAG is responsible for the Legal Assistance and Preventive Law Program Air Force-wide, who is responsible for monitoring the program?
    • A. 

      Community Legal Services Division (AFLOA/JACA)

    • B. 

      MAJCOM Staff Judge Advocate

    • C. 

      NAF Staff Judge Advocate

    • D. 

      Base staff judge advocate

  • 23. 
    To ensure mission readiness, who may add requirements for mobilization and deployment related legal assistance?
    • A. 

      Base staff judge advocates

    • B. 

      TJAG

    • C. 

      NAF staff judge advocates

    • D. 

      MAJCOM staff judge advocates

  • 24. 
    Once you have determined that a client is eligible for legal assistance, what is your next step?
    • A. 

      Ask if they have retained a civilian attorney

    • B. 

      Check to see if a legal assistance attorney is available

    • C. 

      Make copies of all documents they brought with them

    • D. 

      Enter their personal information into the WebLIONS

  • 25. 
    In determining eligibility of legal assisantce you find the client has hired a civilian attorney, what is your immediate response?
    • A. 

      Defer to the SJA for a decision on the matter

    • B. 

      Refer the client to their civilian attorney

    • C. 

      Refer them to another agency on base

    • D. 

      Sign them in for legal assistance

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