5j0x1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 2
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Paralegal course
- 1.Which of the following is not a reason for requesting a voluntary discharge?
- A.
Accepting public office
- B.
Early release for Chirstmas
- C.
Sole surviving son or daughter
- D.
Conditions that interfere with military service
- 2.What is the first thing an Airman wishing to leave active Air Force service must do?
- A.
Submit his/her request in writing to MPS
- B.
Submit the request to his/her unit commander
- C.
Submit the request to his/her separation authority
- D.
Submit an AF Form 31
- 3.What must a commander ensure before recommending any type of involuntary discharge?
- A.
All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted.
- B.
Airman has met with the ADC and understands their options
- C.
Convening authority has concurred with the proposed action
- D.
Legal office has reviewed the file, and it is legally sufficient
- 4.After how many days of continuous active duty is a commander not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge?
- A.
80
- B.
90
- C.
180
- D.
190
- 5.The first step in a notification discharge is when the member
- A.
Reports for a medical examination
- B.
Submits a statement in rebuttal of the discharge
- C.
Receives oral notice of the reason(s) for disharge
- D.
Receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge
- 6.After an Airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, what is his next action?
- A.
Go to the MPS for discharge processing
- B.
Report to the Medical Group for a medical examination
- C.
Make an appotinment with the ADC
- D.
Submit a statement in rebuttal of the discharge.
- 7.In an administrative discharge board hearing, to whom does the legal advisor administer the oath?
- A.
Reporter
- B.
Recorder
- C.
Legal Advisor
- D.
Voting Member
- 8.Once opening statements have been made, who first presents evidence in an administrative discharge board proceeding?
- A.
Respondent's counsel
- B.
Legal advisor
- C.
Recorder
- D.
Reporter
- 9.Who normally authenitcates the record of proceedings for an administrative discharge board?
- A.
Legal advisor
- B.
Respondent
- C.
Reporter
- D.
Judge
- 10.What is the standard of proof in an administrative discharge board proceeding?
- A.
Beyond a reasonable doubt
- B.
Preponderance of the evidence
- C.
Clear and convincing evidence
- D.
Standards of proof do not apply to discharge boards
- 11.If acting as an assisant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you will
- A.
Need to have a copy of the script
- B.
Need to be organized and ready to proceed
- C.
Need to have a copy of the convening order
- D.
Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times
- 12.When a squadron commander believes he or she has an officer that should be discharged, you must tell the commander their first step is to
- A.
Send the officer to the ADC
- B.
Serve a notification memorandum on the officer
- C.
Send the file to the SPCMCA
- D.
Evaluate the information and consult with the SJA
- 13.When a BOI is to be convened, within how many days must the officer be notified, in writing, before the BOR hearing?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
30
- D.
45
- 14.A commander may continued demotion action based on incidents that occurred before an Airman's reenlistment.
- A.
By special approval of the SecAF
- B.
By special approval of the MAJCOM commander
- C.
If the Airman was promoted based on achievements prior to the reenlistment
- D.
If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment
- 15.Within what maximom number of days must an Airman submit an appeal to a demotion action to the MPS?
- A.
Three
- B.
Five
- C.
Seven
- D.
Ten
- 16.Which of the following is considered to be the least severe form a administrative discipline?
- A.
LOR
- B.
LOA
- C.
Placement on a control roster
- D.
RIC
- 17.If a commander places an active duty Airman on a control roster on 1 September 2011, what is the latest date he or she may remove the inidividual from the control roster?
- A.
2 March 2012
- B.
31 January 2012
- C.
29 February 2012
- D.
31 December 2011
- 18.Prior to filing an optional document in an Airman's UIF, the decision authority must first notify the member of the intent to do so by using
- A.
DD Form 1058
- B.
AF IMT 1058
- C.
DD Form 2907
- D.
AF IMT 2907
- 19.If a commander assumes command of his squadron on 5 September 2011, by what date must he review the UIF on his assigned personnel?
- A.
4 January 2012
- B.
31 January 2012
- C.
4 December 2011
- D.
31 December 2011
- 20.Assessments of the installation drug testing program must be performed at least?
- A.
Quarterly
- B.
Bi-annually
- C.
Annually
- D.
Every two years
- 21.For the drug demand reduction program, an audit of collection procedures at a GSU is required at least
- A.
Quarterly
- B.
Bi-annually
- C.
Annually
- D.
Every two years
- 22.While TJAG is responsible for the Legal Assistance and Preventive Law Program Air Force-wide, who is responsible for monitoring the program?
- A.
Community Legal Services Division (AFLOA/JACA)
- B.
MAJCOM Staff Judge Advocate
- C.
NAF Staff Judge Advocate
- D.
Base staff judge advocate
- 23.To ensure mission readiness, who may add requirements for mobilization and deployment related legal assistance?
- A.
Base staff judge advocates
- B.
TJAG
- C.
NAF staff judge advocates
- D.
MAJCOM staff judge advocates
- 24.Once you have determined that a client is eligible for legal assistance, what is your next step?
- A.
Ask if they have retained a civilian attorney
- B.
Check to see if a legal assistance attorney is available
- C.
Make copies of all documents they brought with them
- D.
Enter their personal information into the WebLIONS
- 25.In determining eligibility of legal assisantce you find the client has hired a civilian attorney, what is your immediate response?
- A.
Defer to the SJA for a decision on the matter
- B.
Refer the client to their civilian attorney
- C.
Refer them to another agency on base
- D.
Sign them in for legal assistance
- 26.After you have entered or verified a client's information for their legal assistance appointment in the WebLIONS, what is your next step?
- A.
Select the "client waiting list" button
- B.
Select the "complete AF 1175 inputs" button
- C.
Select either the "all open visits" or "your open vists" button
- D.
Select either the "legal assistance" or "documents/notaries" button
- 27.When producing a POA in the WebLIONS, after you've entered all the information required for the power of attorney, your next step is to select the
- A.
"produce POA" button
- B.
"print POA" button
- C.
"submit" button
- D.
"next" button
- 28.When producing a POA in the WebLIONS for a client on the waiting list, the first step from the "actions" drop down menu is to select
- A.
"all open vists"
- B.
"your open vists"
- C.
"client waiting list"
- D.
"POA office setup"
- 29.Which WebLIONS report lists all legal assistance activities, grades and services of clients served, and services broken down by subject?
- A.
Notary report
- B.
Annual report
- C.
Workload report
- D.
Client saving report
- 30.What additional identifiers should be included on a notary's raised seal or inked stamp to ensure notarized documents are accepted as authentic?
- A.
"U.S Air Force and Judge Advocate"
- B.
"U.S Air Force and Authentic"
- C.
"U.S Air Force and Paralegal"
- D.
"U.S Air Force and Civilian"
- 31.A notary act should be performed when the client
- A.
Makes changes to their will
- B.
Requires a copy of their birth certificate
- C.
Has a completed document signed in your presence
- D.
Has a completed document not signed in your presence
- 32.When drafting a last will and testament, what term describes when a gift fails or goes away?
- A.
Issue
- B.
Adeem
- C.
Devise
- D.
Bequeath
- 33.When drafting a last will and testament, what term describes all the possessions of one who has died that are subject to probate administration and distribution to heirs and beneficiaries?
- A.
Estate
- B.
Domicile
- C.
Real property
- D.
Personal propert
- 34.Once a client provides you with his/her ticket number, what do you log into in order to access his/her Will and Advance Medical Directive worksheet?
- A.
The DL Wills Program
- B.
The Air Force Legal Assisstance administration site
- C.
The JAGUARS
- D.
The WebLIONS
- 35.Who supervises and manages the tax assistance program at base level?
- A.
Wing commander
- B.
Staff Judge Advocate
- C.
Squadron Commander
- D.
Chief of legal assistance
- 36.When is the final report for tax filing due?
- A.
March
- B.
June
- C.
September
- D.
December
- 37.Under which area of the preventive law program would the importance of preparing a will be stressed?
- A.
Legal assistance and consumer protection
- B.
Deployment readiness preparation
- C.
Commander awareness
- D.
Reports
- 38.Which category is not a part of the US Air Force LAWS?
- A.
Legal information
- B.
Legal worksheets
- C.
Online survey
- D.
Reports
- 39.After an inquiry or investigation is completed, what type of report provides for a logical step-by-step layout?
- A.
Report of review
- B.
Report of inquiry
- C.
Report of investigation
- D.
Report of facts and circumstances
- 40.A conscientious objector who sincerely objects to participation as a combatant in war in any form, but whose convictions or beliefs will permit him or her to serve in a noncombatant status is classified as
- A.
Class 1-0
- B.
Class 1-A-0
- C.
Class 1-B-0
- D.
Class 1-C-0
- 41.If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his or her conscientious objector status without good reason, then the member
- A.
Has waived his or her rights to be present at the hearing
- B.
Has the option of appearing in a private hearing
- C.
Can request another hearing at a later date
- D.
Can submit a waiver at a later date
- 42.Upon receipt of the final record in a conscientious objector case, if the applicant does not submit a rebuttal within 15 calendar days from receipt of the record, then the member
- A.
Can submit a rebuttal up to 30 calendar days late
- B.
Can request a rehearing
- C.
Can request an extension
- D.
Loses the right to rebuttal
- 43.Under Article 138, UCMJ, if a complaint is properly submitted and the commander refuses the redress, the next option for the member is to submit the complaint
- A.
Directly to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction
- B.
Directly to the inspector general
- C.
To the equal employment office
- D.
To their congressman
- 44.If congress requests a release of information that must be disclosed only with the consent of the SecAF, then the information is
- A.
Classified
- B.
For official use only
- C.
Privacy act information
- D.
Information for congressional constituents
- 45.If you receive a written congressional inquiry within the CONUS, which of the following must happen within 24 hours of receipt?
- A.
The inquiry must be answered
- B.
The inquiry must be forwarded to the proper agency
- C.
Fax a copy of a written inquiry to the Legislative Liaison Inquiry Division (SAF/LLI)
- D.
Fax a copy of a written inquiry to TJAG
- 46.If you are performing an investigation to preserve available evidence for use in claims, litigation, disciplinary actions, administrative proceedings, then you are performing a(n)
- A.
Article 32, UCMJ, investigation
- B.
Accident investigation
- C.
Claims investigation
- D.
Safety invesitgation
- 47.At a minimum, each AIB shall be composed of a
- A.
President and a recorder
- B.
President and a legal advisor
- C.
Legal advisor and a reporter
- D.
Legal advisor and a recorder
- 48.When an AIB is convened, the accident report must be completed within what maximum number of calendar days after receipt of the completed Part I SIB report?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
45
- 49.Who normally fulfills the duties of a recorder for an AIB?
- A.
Paralegal
- B.
Judge Advocate
- C.
An officer in the rank of Colonel or above
- D.
An enlisted member what a background in maintenance
- 50.What is a request for information regarding government records called?
- A.
FOIA request
- B.
DA request
- C.
BRs request
- D.
PA request
- 51.If you receive a request for information regarding records that pertain to an individual, you have received a
- A.
FOIA request
- B.
DA request
- C.
BR request
- D.
PA request
- 52.Which of the following types of information will not be made available for use in litgation?
- A.
Personal
- B.
Privileged
- C.
Confidential
- D.
For Official Use Only
- 53.Upon receiving a request for release of information for litigation, which is not an option of the SJA?
- A.
Consult the Operations & International Law Directorate (HQ USAF/JAO)
- B.
Forward the request to the appropriate authority to deny
- C.
Consult the US attorney
- D.
Approve the request
- 54.During a LOD determination, at a minimum, what document must be completed in every case where a member dies on active duty?
- A.
AF Form 348
- B.
AF Form 1075
- C.
DD Form 261
- D.
DD Form 1077
- 55.What is the first step in the LOD determination process?
- A.
Legal office review
- B.
Medical officer's review
- C.
Investigation by security forces
- D.
Commander directed investigation
- 56.Who takes final action on a LOD determination case?
- A.
Member's commander
- B.
SJA
- C.
Appointing authority
- D.
Approving authority
- 57.What form is used to record and present facts in support of a determination of financial liability and to adjust property control records?
- A.
AF 262
- B.
AF 1063
- C.
DD Form 1342
- D.
DD Form 200
- 58.What situation would require a mandatory ROS?
- A.
Items become unserviceable due to fair wear and tear
- B.
Loss, damage, or destruction is caused by Acts of God
- C.
Lost hand tools or other pilferable items over $100 unit cost or $500 total cost
- D.
Air Force property is damaged from operation of privately owned vehicles, boats, aircraft, or conveyances
- 59.Who is responsible for the custody, care, and safekeeping of Air Force property and can be held financially liable for failure to exercise this obligation?
- A.
Property custodian
- B.
Responsible officer
- C.
Accountable officer
- D.
Financial liability officer
- 60.After reviewing a request for off-duty employment in which you detect possible ethics concerns, what action should you take?
- A.
Dissaprove the request and send a courtsey copy to the SJA
- B.
Contact the off-duty employment manager
- C.
File a financial disclosure
- D.
Draft a brief legal review
- 61.Which of the following is the first step in preparing for a magistrate court case?
- A.
Determine jurisdiction
- B.
Assemble the court file
- C.
Request a report of investigation
- D.
Request a copy of the DD Form 1805
- 62.What type of jurisdiction allows for both the federal and state government to have jurisdiction over offenses committed on the installation?
- A.
Foregin
- B.
Exclusive
- C.
Concurrent
- D.
Proprietary
- 63.The first step in assembling a magistrate court file is
- A.
Tab the file A through Z
- B.
Put the cover sheet on the file
- C.
Obtain a copy of the report of investigation
- D.
Obtain the defendants federal magistrate court consent form
- 64.In a federal magistrate court case, immediately following arraignment on petty offense where the defendant pleads guilty, the magistrate will
- A.
Impose a sentence
- B.
Set a date for sentencing
- C.
Assign a public defender to the accused
- D.
Request a presentencing report from Pre-Trial Services
- 65.Who is responsible for adminstering the host-tenant support agreement program?
- A.
Receiver SAM
- B.
SJA
- C.
Installation commander
- D.
Installation supplier SAM
- 66.In a joint command, if NJP is imposed on an Air Force member by a commander of a different service, the decision as to collateral administrative action will be made by the
- A.
Commander that imposed the NJP
- B.
Commander of the member's home station
- C.
SPCMCA of the member's home station
- D.
Senior Air Force officer or commander of the Air Force element in the joint command
- 67.The Contract Disputes Act obligates the contractor to
- A.
Continue performance pending final resolution of a dispute
- B.
Continue performance only after final resolution of the dispute
- C.
Complete the contractual terms regardless of any disputes
- D.
Complete the contractual terms as modified by interim agreement
- 68.
- A.
Send the report directly to his/her supervisor for review
- B.
Sign the report and send it to his/her supervisor for review
- C.
Send the report directly to the installation legal office
- D.
Sign the report and send it to the installation legal office
- 69.What is the final step in the SF 278?
- A.
The Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge of General Law signs as the agency reviewer
- B.
Priority Mail the form to the Deputy General Counsel, Fiscal, Ethics, and Civilian Personnel (SAF/GCA)
- C.
The SJA signs as agency reviewer
- D.
Express Mail the form to SAF/GCA
- 70.Using the Agency Ethics Reporting System, the first step in creating your ethics report for the current year is to select the
- A.
"creat/modify current year Agency Ethics Report" option
- B.
"Agency Ethics" option
- C.
"submit report" option
- D.
"open record" option
- 71.Before travel payments are accepted from a non-federal source, the
- A.
Designated agency ethics official must grant approval
- B.
Travel approving authority must grant approval
- C.
Base SJA must grant approval
- D.
Member's command must grant approval
- 72.In an Equal Employment Opportunity case, if a complaint is unable to be resolved at the informal complaint stage, the counselor will
- A.
Issue an NOFI letter
- B.
Forward the case to the installation legal office
- C.
Inform the complainant of his/her right to file suit in US District Court
- D.
Forward the case to the AFCARO
- 73.In a MSPB proceeding, what maximum number of days from the effective date of the adverse action does a complainant have to file an appeal with the MSPB?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
45
- 74.What statute requires administrative or criminal sanctions for the misuse of appropriated funds?
- A.
Authorization Act
- B.
Accountability Act
- C.
Appropriations Act
- D.
Anti-Deficiency Act
- 75.What is the period of time for which approproations are available for obligating O&M funds?
- A.
One year
- B.
Two years
- C.
Three years
- D.
Five years
- 76.What statute prohibits obligations or expenditures in excess of or in advance of an appropriation?
- A.
31 U.S.C. 1341
- B.
31 U.S.C. 1512
- C.
31 U.S.C. 1514
- D.
31 U.S.C. 1517
- 77.If you are involved in critical national or international situations, then what type of report must you submit?
- A.
Special interest report
- B.
Investigation report
- C.
AAR
- D.
SITREP
- 78.Which sister service does not have a paralegal career field?
- A.
Army
- B.
Navy
- C.
Marines
- D.
Coast Guard
- 79.What must be considered when the US Armed Forces deploy to a foreign country?
- A.
Currency rate
- B.
International law
- C.
Country's location
- D.
United States laws only
- 80.When the authority for an international agreement falls under the MAJCOM, to whom must it be submitted for concurrence?
- A.
SecAF
- B.
MAJCOM SJA
- C.
Assistant Legal Advisor for Treaty Affairs
- D.
Chief, Headquarters United States Air Force, Operations and International Law Directorate
- 81.Which type of SOFA is accomplished through an exchange of diplomatic notes?
- A.
Full-SOFA
- B.
Mini-SOFA
- C.
Administrative and Technical Staff
- D.
Ambassador Executive Leadership Staff
- 82.All SOFAs except for the NATO SOFA are considered
- A.
Formal treaties
- B.
Multilateral
- C.
Reciprocal
- D.
Bilateral
- 83.Who has overall responsibility for implementing status of forces policies and procedures in each foreign country?
- A.
US Ambassador
- B.
Secretary of State
- C.
DCO
- D.
JFACC
- 84.What report is a statistical summary of all cases involving jurisdiction over US personnel?
- A.
Trial observer report
- B.
Serious indient report
- C.
Montly visitation report
- D.
Annual foreign criminal jurisdiction report
- 85.Who is the principal air advisor to the JFC?
- A.
JTFAC
- B.
COMAFFOR
- C.
JFACC
- D.
JAOCC
- 86.What is the highest ranking Air Force officer assigned to a JFC at the unified, subnified, and joint task force level?
- A.
COMAFFOR
- B.
JTFCC
- C.
JFACC
- D.
CFACC
- 87.Which legal support functional competency is the ablity to provide the war fighter with the complete set of legal capabilities at any place at any time?
- A.
Operational readiness
- B.
Authoritative counsel
- C.
Legal information mastery
- D.
Compelling advocacy and litigation
- 88.If a commander requests supplemental ROE, then the request must be classified at least
- A.
Secret
- B.
Top Secret
- C.
Confidential
- D.
For Official Use Only
- 89.When determining ROE, where is the place you need to check first and foremost?
- A.
SROE
- B.
SPINS
- C.
Theater Specific ROE
- D.
Mission Specific ROE
- 90.Which LOAC principle prohibits the use of any kind or degree of force that exceeds that needed to accomplish the military objective?
- A.
Distinction
- B.
Proportionality
- C.
Military necessity
- D.
Rules of engagement
- 91.Air Force chaplains are considered
- A.
Combatants
- B.
Noncombatants
- C.
Lawful combatants
- D.
Unlawful combatants
- 92.Which Task Force(s) did legal personnel deploy to ensure detainees in US custody were afforded due process?
- A.
Task Force 134 in Iraq and 435 in Afghanistan
- B.
Task Force 134 in Iraq only
- C.
Combined Joint Task Force 76 and 151
- D.
Combined Joint Task Force 76 only
- 93.Within what maximum number of days must a DRB review a detainee's status once the detainee is transferred to a theater detention facility?
- A.
30 days
- B.
45 days
- C.
60 days
- D.
90 days
- 94.Which of the following have historically been used to prosecute enemy combatants who violate the Laws of War?
- A.
ICRC
- B.
CCCI
- C.
ICC
- D.
Military Commissions
- 95.Which agency is responsible for the protection or evacuation of US citizens and nationals abroad?
- A.
DOS
- B.
DOD
- C.
CIA
- D.
FBI
- 96.What peace operation is a diplomatic process aimed at establishing a cease fire or an otherwise peacful settlement of conflict?
- A.
Peace enforcement
- B.
Peace building
- C.
Peacekeeping
- D.
Peacemaking
- 97.Which type of operation is conducted outside of the US to relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters?
- A.
Humanitarian assistance
- B.
Peace building
- C.
Peacekeeping
- D.
Peacemaking
- 98.When working with contracting issues, when should you use an LOGCAP/AFCAP contract?
- A.
When the contract is under $250,000
- B.
When the contract is under $100,00
- C.
As the first option
- D.
As a last resort
- 99.What is the first step in considering local purchasing for supplies or services?
- A.
What type of contract to utilize
- B.
How much money you need to spend
- C.
Which type of supplies or services are needed
- D.
Who will be using the supplies or services needed
- 100.What provides the framework for organizing the efforts of federal, state, local, and private organizations for national security?
- A.
SOFA
- B.
MSCA
- C.
NSHS
- D.
FEMA
- 101.What joint command was created to unify the military defense of our homeland, coordinate the Department of Defense's assistance with civil authorities, and protect the US and its territories?
- A.
USPACOM
- B.
USSPACECOM
- C.
USSTRATCOM
- D.
USNORTHCOM
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