5j0x1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 2

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| By Neshanne
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Neshanne
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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 2,619
Questions: 101 | Attempts: 388

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5j0x1 Quizzes & Trivia

Paralegal course


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is not a reason for requesting a voluntary discharge?

    • A.

      Accepting public office

    • B.

      Early release for Chirstmas

    • C.

      Sole surviving son or daughter

    • D.

      Conditions that interfere with military service

    Correct Answer
    D. Conditions that interfere with military service
    Explanation
    A voluntary discharge from the military can be requested for various reasons, such as accepting public office, early release for Christmas, or being the sole surviving son or daughter. However, conditions that interfere with military service are not a valid reason for requesting a voluntary discharge. This could refer to physical or mental health issues that hinder an individual's ability to fulfill their military duties.

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  • 2. 

    What is the first thing an Airman wishing to leave active Air Force service must do?

    • A.

      Submit his/her request in writing to MPS

    • B.

      Submit the request to his/her unit commander

    • C.

      Submit the request to his/her separation authority

    • D.

      Submit an AF Form 31

    Correct Answer
    A. Submit his/her request in writing to MPS
    Explanation
    An Airman wishing to leave active Air Force service must first submit his/her request in writing to MPS. This is because MPS (Military Personnel Section) is responsible for processing and managing personnel actions, including separations. By submitting the request to MPS, the Airman initiates the formal process of separation from the active Air Force service. The other options mentioned, such as submitting the request to the unit commander or separation authority, may be involved in the process but the initial step is to submit the request to MPS.

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  • 3. 

    What must a commander ensure before recommending any type of involuntary discharge?

    • A.

      All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted.

    • B.

      Airman has met with the ADC and understands their options

    • C.

      Convening authority has concurred with the proposed action

    • D.

      Legal office has reviewed the file, and it is legally sufficient

    Correct Answer
    A. All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted.
    Explanation
    Before recommending any type of involuntary discharge, a commander must ensure that all rehabilitation requirements have been met and that discharge for cause is not warranted. This means that the airman has been given the necessary support and opportunities for rehabilitation, and that their behavior or performance does not warrant a discharge for cause. The commander must ensure that all other necessary steps, such as meeting with the ADC, obtaining the concurrence of the convening authority, and having the legal office review the file, have also been completed.

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  • 4. 

    After how many days of continuous active duty is a commander not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge?

    • A.

      80

    • B.

      90

    • C.

      180

    • D.

      190

    Correct Answer
    C. 180
    Explanation
    A commander is not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge after 180 days of continuous active duty. This policy ensures that entry-level service members are given a sufficient amount of time to adjust to military life and receive necessary training before being considered for discharge. It also allows them the opportunity to demonstrate their potential and commitment to their duties.

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  • 5. 

    The first step in a notification discharge is when the member

    • A.

      Reports for a medical examination

    • B.

      Submits a statement in rebuttal of the discharge

    • C.

      Receives oral notice of the reason(s) for disharge

    • D.

      Receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge

    Correct Answer
    D. Receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge." This is the first step in a notification discharge because it ensures that the member is formally informed in writing about the reasons for their discharge. This written notice provides clarity and documentation of the reasons behind the discharge, allowing the member to understand and potentially challenge the decision if necessary.

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  • 6. 

    After an Airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, what is his next action?

    • A.

      Go to the MPS for discharge processing

    • B.

      Report to the Medical Group for a medical examination

    • C.

      Make an appotinment with the ADC

    • D.

      Submit a statement in rebuttal of the discharge.

    Correct Answer
    B. Report to the Medical Group for a medical examination
    Explanation
    After an Airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, his next action is to report to the Medical Group for a medical examination. This is because the medical examination is a necessary step in the discharge process to ensure the Airman's health status and to determine any medical benefits or assistance that may be required after discharge. The medical examination helps in assessing the Airman's fitness for discharge and provides important information for the transition to civilian life.

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  • 7. 

    In an administrative discharge board hearing, to whom does the legal advisor administer the oath?

    • A.

      Reporter

    • B.

      Recorder

    • C.

      Legal Advisor

    • D.

      Voting Member

    Correct Answer
    B. Recorder
    Explanation
    In an administrative discharge board hearing, the legal advisor does not administer the oath. Instead, it is the responsibility of the recorder to administer the oath. The recorder is typically a non-legal member of the board who is responsible for documenting the proceedings of the hearing. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the oath is properly administered to all relevant parties involved in the hearing.

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  • 8. 

    Once opening statements have been made, who first presents evidence in an administrative discharge board proceeding?

    • A.

      Respondent's counsel

    • B.

      Legal advisor

    • C.

      Recorder

    • D.

      Reporter

    Correct Answer
    C. Recorder
    Explanation
    In an administrative discharge board proceeding, the recorder is responsible for presenting the evidence first. The recorder's role is to document and maintain a record of the proceedings. By presenting the evidence, they ensure that all relevant information is brought forward and properly documented for the proceeding. This allows for a fair and thorough examination of the case before any decisions or judgments are made.

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  • 9. 

    Who normally authenitcates the record of proceedings for an administrative discharge board?

    • A.

      Legal advisor

    • B.

      Respondent

    • C.

      Reporter

    • D.

      Judge

    Correct Answer
    A. Legal advisor
    Explanation
    The legal advisor normally authenticates the record of proceedings for an administrative discharge board. This is because the legal advisor is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance during the proceedings, ensuring that all legal requirements are met, and maintaining an accurate record of the proceedings. They play a crucial role in ensuring the fairness and legality of the administrative discharge board process.

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  • 10. 

    What is the standard of proof in an administrative discharge board proceeding?

    • A.

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • B.

      Preponderance of the evidence

    • C.

      Clear and convincing evidence

    • D.

      Standards of proof do not apply to discharge boards

    Correct Answer
    B. Preponderance of the evidence
    Explanation
    In an administrative discharge board proceeding, the standard of proof is "preponderance of the evidence." This means that the evidence presented must show that it is more likely than not that the allegations against the individual are true. It is a lower standard of proof compared to "beyond a reasonable doubt," which is used in criminal cases. "Clear and convincing evidence" is a higher standard of proof, and the last option, "standards of proof do not apply to discharge boards," is incorrect as there is indeed a standard of proof in these proceedings.

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  • 11. 

    If acting as an assisant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you will

    • A.

      Need to have a copy of the script

    • B.

      Need to be organized and ready to proceed

    • C.

      Need to have a copy of the convening order

    • D.

      Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times

    Correct Answer
    D. Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times
    Explanation
    As an assistant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, it is necessary to be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times. This implies that the assistant should work closely with and be guided by an attorney throughout the proceeding. This ensures that the assistant follows legal procedures and protocols accurately and is able to provide necessary support to the recorder effectively. The other options mentioned, such as having a copy of the script, being organized and ready to proceed, and having a copy of the convening order, may also be important in the overall process, but being under direct supervision of an attorney is the most critical requirement for the assistant in this scenario.

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  • 12. 

    When a squadron commander believes he or she has an officer that should be discharged, you must tell the commander their first step is to

    • A.

      Send the officer to the ADC

    • B.

      Serve a notification memorandum on the officer

    • C.

      Send the file to the SPCMCA

    • D.

      Evaluate the information and consult with the SJA

    Correct Answer
    D. Evaluate the information and consult with the SJA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to evaluate the information and consult with the SJA. This step is important because it allows the squadron commander to gather all relevant information and seek legal advice from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) before taking any further action. By evaluating the information and consulting with the SJA, the commander can ensure that they are following the correct procedures and making an informed decision regarding the potential discharge of the officer.

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  • 13. 

    When a BOI is to be convened, within how many days must the officer be notified, in writing, before the BOR hearing?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    The officer must be notified in writing within 30 days before the BOR hearing when a BOI is to be convened.

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  • 14. 

    A commander may continued demotion action based on incidents that occurred before an Airman's reenlistment.

    • A.

      By special approval of the SecAF

    • B.

      By special approval of the MAJCOM commander

    • C.

      If the Airman was promoted based on achievements prior to the reenlistment

    • D.

      If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment

    Correct Answer
    D. If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment
    Explanation
    If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment, the commander may continue demotion action. This means that if the commander becomes aware of any incidents that occurred before the Airman's reenlistment, which could warrant a demotion, they have the authority to take action. The timing of the commander's knowledge is crucial in this scenario, as they cannot take demotion action if they were already aware of the incidents before the reenlistment.

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  • 15. 

    Within what maximom number of days must an Airman submit an appeal to a demotion action to the MPS?

    • A.

      Three

    • B.

      Five

    • C.

      Seven

    • D.

      Ten

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    An Airman must submit an appeal to a demotion action to the MPS within three days. This means that the Airman has a maximum of three days to file their appeal after the demotion action has been taken against them. It is important for the Airman to act quickly and submit their appeal within this timeframe to ensure that their case is considered and reviewed by the appropriate authorities. Failing to submit the appeal within three days may result in the demotion action being finalized without any further recourse for the Airman.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is considered to be the least severe form a administrative discipline?

    • A.

      LOR

    • B.

      LOA

    • C.

      Placement on a control roster

    • D.

      RIC

    Correct Answer
    D. RIC
    Explanation
    The least severe form of administrative discipline is considered to be RIC. This is because RIC stands for "Record of Individual Counseling," which typically involves a documented conversation or counseling session with an individual to address minor performance or behavioral issues. In comparison, LOR (Letter of Reprimand), LOA (Letter of Admonishment), and Placement on a control roster are more severe disciplinary actions that may involve written warnings, restrictions, or formal monitoring of an individual's conduct or performance.

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  • 17. 

    If a commander places an active duty Airman on a control roster on 1 September 2011, what is the latest date he or she may remove the inidividual from the control roster?

    • A.

      2 March 2012

    • B.

      31 January 2012

    • C.

      29 February 2012

    • D.

      31 December 2011

    Correct Answer
    C. 29 February 2012
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 29 February 2012. This is because the question asks for the latest date the individual may be removed from the control roster. Since 2012 is a leap year, the latest possible date in February is the 29th. Therefore, the individual must be removed from the control roster by this date.

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  • 18. 

    Prior to filing an optional document in an Airman's UIF, the decision authority must first notify the member of the intent to do so by using

    • A.

      DD Form 1058

    • B.

      AF IMT 1058

    • C.

      DD Form 2907

    • D.

      AF IMT 2907

    Correct Answer
    B. AF IMT 1058
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF IMT 1058. This form is used to notify the member of the intent to file an optional document in their Airman's UIF. It serves as a formal notification to the member and ensures that they are aware of the decision authority's intent to include additional information in their UIF. The other options, DD Form 1058, DD Form 2907, and AF IMT 2907, are not relevant to the process of notifying the member about filing an optional document in their UIF.

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  • 19. 

    If a commander assumes command of his squadron on 5 September 2011, by what date must he review the UIF on his assigned personnel?

    • A.

      4 January 2012

    • B.

      31 January 2012

    • C.

      4 December 2011

    • D.

      31 December 2011

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 December 2011
    Explanation
    The commander must review the UIF on his assigned personnel by 4 December 2011 because it is the closest date to his assumption of command on 5 September 2011.

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  • 20. 

    Assessments of the installation drug testing program must be performed at least?

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Bi-annually

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Every two years

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    Assessments of the installation drug testing program must be performed at least quarterly to ensure regular monitoring and evaluation of the program's effectiveness. This frequency allows for timely identification of any issues or areas of improvement, ensuring that the program remains up-to-date and in compliance with regulations. Regular assessments also help in identifying any potential gaps or weaknesses in the program, allowing for prompt corrective actions to be taken. By conducting assessments quarterly, the installation can maintain a proactive approach towards drug testing, promoting a safer and drug-free environment.

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  • 21. 

    For the drug demand reduction program, an audit of collection procedures at a GSU is required at least

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Bi-annually

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Every two years

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    An audit of collection procedures at a GSU is required annually for the drug demand reduction program. This means that the collection procedures for the program need to be assessed and reviewed once a year. Conducting an annual audit ensures that the collection procedures are being followed correctly and helps identify any areas that may need improvement or adjustment. By conducting regular audits, the program can maintain its effectiveness and ensure that the drug demand reduction efforts are being carried out efficiently.

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  • 22. 

    While TJAG is responsible for the Legal Assistance and Preventive Law Program Air Force-wide, who is responsible for monitoring the program?

    • A.

      Community Legal Services Division (AFLOA/JACA)

    • B.

      MAJCOM Staff Judge Advocate

    • C.

      NAF Staff Judge Advocate

    • D.

      Base staff judge advocate

    Correct Answer
    A. Community Legal Services Division (AFLOA/JACA)
    Explanation
    The Community Legal Services Division (AFLOA/JACA) is responsible for monitoring the Legal Assistance and Preventive Law Program Air Force-wide. This division oversees the program and ensures that it is being implemented effectively and efficiently. They provide guidance and support to the various staff judge advocates at different levels, such as MAJCOM Staff Judge Advocate, NAF Staff Judge Advocate, and Base staff judge advocate, who are responsible for the day-to-day operations of the program at their respective levels.

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  • 23. 

    To ensure mission readiness, who may add requirements for mobilization and deployment related legal assistance?

    • A.

      Base staff judge advocates

    • B.

      TJAG

    • C.

      NAF staff judge advocates

    • D.

      MAJCOM staff judge advocates

    Correct Answer
    C. NAF staff judge advocates
    Explanation
    NAF staff judge advocates may add requirements for mobilization and deployment related legal assistance to ensure mission readiness. These individuals are responsible for providing legal advice and support to the numbered air forces (NAFs). As part of their role, they have the authority to establish and enforce legal requirements for mobilization and deployment. This ensures that legal issues are properly addressed and compliance with applicable laws and regulations is maintained during these processes.

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  • 24. 

    Once you have determined that a client is eligible for legal assistance, what is your next step?

    • A.

      Ask if they have retained a civilian attorney

    • B.

      Check to see if a legal assistance attorney is available

    • C.

      Make copies of all documents they brought with them

    • D.

      Enter their personal information into the WebLIONS

    Correct Answer
    D. Enter their personal information into the WebLIONS
    Explanation
    The next step after determining a client's eligibility for legal assistance is to enter their personal information into the WebLIONS system. This is likely a database or software used to keep track of client information and cases. By entering their personal information, it allows for proper documentation and organization of the client's case, making it easier for the legal assistance attorney to provide the necessary help and support.

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  • 25. 

    In determining eligibility of legal assisantce you find the client has hired a civilian attorney, what is your immediate response?

    • A.

      Defer to the SJA for a decision on the matter

    • B.

      Refer the client to their civilian attorney

    • C.

      Refer them to another agency on base

    • D.

      Sign them in for legal assistance

    Correct Answer
    B. Refer the client to their civilian attorney
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to refer the client to their civilian attorney. This is the appropriate response because if the client has already hired a civilian attorney, it means they have already sought legal representation outside of the military legal system. In such cases, it is best to respect the client's decision and direct them to their chosen attorney for further assistance.

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  • 26. 

    After you have entered or verified a client's information for their legal assistance appointment in the WebLIONS, what is your next step?

    • A.

      Select the "client waiting list" button

    • B.

      Select the "complete AF 1175 inputs" button

    • C.

      Select either the "all open visits" or "your open vists" button

    • D.

      Select either the "legal assistance" or "documents/notaries" button

    Correct Answer
    D. Select either the "legal assistance" or "documents/notaries" button
    Explanation
    After entering or verifying a client's information for their legal assistance appointment in WebLIONS, the next step is to select either the "legal assistance" or "documents/notaries" button. This step is crucial as it determines the type of service the client requires, whether it is legal assistance or assistance with documents/notaries. By selecting the appropriate button, the system will direct the user to the relevant options and resources needed to proceed with the client's request.

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  • 27. 

    When producing a POA in the WebLIONS, after you've entered all the information required for the power of attorney, your next step is to select the

    • A.

      "produce POA" button

    • B.

      "print POA" button

    • C.

      "submit" button

    • D.

      "next" button

    Correct Answer
    A. "produce POA" button
    Explanation
    After entering all the necessary information for the power of attorney in WebLIONS, the next step is to select the "produce POA" button. This button is likely to initiate the process of generating the actual power of attorney document based on the provided information. It indicates that the user is ready to proceed with the creation of the POA and that the system will now generate the document for further actions.

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  • 28. 

    When producing a POA in the WebLIONS for a client on the waiting list, the first step from the "actions" drop down menu is to select

    • A.

      "all open vists"

    • B.

      "your open vists"

    • C.

      "client waiting list"

    • D.

      "POA office setup"

    Correct Answer
    C. "client waiting list"
    Explanation
    When producing a POA in the WebLIONS for a client on the waiting list, the first step is to select "client waiting list" from the actions drop-down menu. This suggests that the POA is specifically for clients who are on the waiting list. By selecting this option, the user can proceed with generating the POA for the client in question.

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  • 29. 

    Which WebLIONS report lists all legal assistance activities, grades and services of clients served, and services broken down by subject?

    • A.

      Notary report

    • B.

      Annual report

    • C.

      Workload report

    • D.

      Client saving report

    Correct Answer
    B. Annual report
    Explanation
    The annual report is the correct answer because it provides a comprehensive overview of all legal assistance activities, grades, and services provided to clients. It also breaks down the services by subject, giving a detailed analysis of the different areas of legal assistance. This report is typically prepared on a yearly basis and is used to assess the overall performance and impact of the legal assistance program.

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  • 30. 

    What additional identifiers should be included on a notary's raised seal or inked stamp to ensure notarized documents are accepted as authentic?

    • A.

      "U.S Air Force and Judge Advocate"

    • B.

      "U.S Air Force and Authentic"

    • C.

      "U.S Air Force and Paralegal"

    • D.

      "U.S Air Force and Civilian"

    Correct Answer
    A. "U.S Air Force and Judge Advocate"
    Explanation
    The additional identifiers that should be included on a notary's raised seal or inked stamp to ensure notarized documents are accepted as authentic are "U.S Air Force and Judge Advocate". Including the U.S Air Force indicates that the notary is affiliated with the Air Force, which adds credibility to the notarization. The Judge Advocate identifier indicates that the notary is a legal officer in the military, further enhancing the authenticity and reliability of the notarized documents.

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  • 31. 

    A notary act should be performed when the client

    • A.

      Makes changes to their will

    • B.

      Requires a copy of their birth certificate

    • C.

      Has a completed document signed in your presence

    • D.

      Has a completed document not signed in your presence

    Correct Answer
    C. Has a completed document signed in your presence
    Explanation
    A notary act should be performed when the client has a completed document signed in your presence because the role of a notary is to witness the signing of important documents to ensure their authenticity and prevent fraud. By being present during the signing, the notary can verify the identity of the signer and ensure that they are willingly and knowingly signing the document. This adds an extra layer of security and credibility to the document.

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  • 32. 

    When drafting a last will and testament, what term describes when a gift fails or goes away?

    • A.

      Issue

    • B.

      Adeem

    • C.

      Devise

    • D.

      Bequeath

    Correct Answer
    B. Adeem
    Explanation
    Adeem is the correct answer because it refers to the situation when a gift mentioned in a last will and testament fails or goes away. This can happen when the property or asset that was intended to be given as a gift is no longer owned by the testator at the time of their death. In such cases, the gift is considered adeemed and does not pass on to the intended recipient.

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  • 33. 

    When drafting a last will and testament, what term describes all the possessions of one who has died that are subject to probate administration and distribution to heirs and beneficiaries?

    • A.

      Estate

    • B.

      Domicile

    • C.

      Real property

    • D.

      Personal propert

    Correct Answer
    A. Estate
    Explanation
    The term that describes all the possessions of one who has died that are subject to probate administration and distribution to heirs and beneficiaries is "estate".

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  • 34. 

    Once a client provides you with his/her ticket number, what do you log into in order to access his/her Will and Advance Medical Directive worksheet?

    • A.

      The DL Wills Program

    • B.

      The Air Force Legal Assisstance administration site

    • C.

      The JAGUARS

    • D.

      The WebLIONS

    Correct Answer
    B. The Air Force Legal Assisstance administration site
    Explanation
    To access a client's Will and Advance Medical Directive worksheet, you would log into the Air Force Legal Assistance administration site. This site is specifically designed for legal assistance services in the Air Force and would likely contain the necessary information and documents related to the client's Will and Advance Medical Directive. The DL Wills Program, JAGUARS, and WebLIONS are not mentioned in the context of accessing these specific documents, making the Air Force Legal Assistance administration site the most logical choice.

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  • 35. 

    Who supervises and manages the tax assistance program at base level?

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • C.

      Squadron Commander

    • D.

      Chief of legal assistance

    Correct Answer
    B. Staff Judge Advocate
    Explanation
    The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for supervising and managing the tax assistance program at the base level. As the legal advisor to the commander, the Staff Judge Advocate oversees the program to ensure compliance with tax laws and regulations. They provide guidance and support to the tax assistance team, ensuring that accurate and reliable assistance is provided to service members and their families. The Staff Judge Advocate's role is critical in ensuring the program's effectiveness and adherence to legal standards.

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  • 36. 

    When is the final report for tax filing due?

    • A.

      March

    • B.

      June

    • C.

      September

    • D.

      December

    Correct Answer
    D. December
    Explanation
    The final report for tax filing is due in December. This is typically the deadline for individuals and businesses to submit their tax returns and pay any outstanding taxes owed to the government. It is important to file taxes on time to avoid penalties and interest charges.

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  • 37. 

    Under which area of the preventive law program would the importance of preparing a will be stressed?

    • A.

      Legal assistance and consumer protection

    • B.

      Deployment readiness preparation

    • C.

      Commander awareness

    • D.

      Reports

    Correct Answer
    B. Deployment readiness preparation
    Explanation
    In the context of a preventive law program, the importance of preparing a will would be stressed under the area of deployment readiness preparation. This is because when individuals are preparing for deployment, it is crucial for them to have their legal affairs in order, including creating a will to ensure that their assets and wishes are protected in the event of their death. By emphasizing the importance of preparing a will during deployment readiness preparation, individuals can proactively address this legal aspect and ensure their affairs are properly managed.

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  • 38. 

    Which category is not a part of the US Air Force LAWS?

    • A.

      Legal information

    • B.

      Legal worksheets

    • C.

      Online survey

    • D.

      Reports

    Correct Answer
    D. Reports
    Explanation
    The category that is not a part of the US Air Force LAWS is "Reports". The LAWS (Legal Assistance Website) is a resource provided by the US Air Force that offers legal information, legal worksheets, and online surveys. However, it does not include reports, which may be found in other resources or systems.

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  • 39. 

    After an inquiry or investigation is completed, what type of report provides for a logical step-by-step layout?

    • A.

      Report of review

    • B.

      Report of inquiry

    • C.

      Report of investigation

    • D.

      Report of facts and circumstances

    Correct Answer
    C. Report of investigation
    Explanation
    A report of investigation provides for a logical step-by-step layout after an inquiry or investigation is completed. This type of report is specifically designed to present the findings, evidence, and conclusions in a systematic and organized manner. It outlines the investigative process, including the methods used, data collected, and analysis performed. The report of investigation aims to provide a clear and comprehensive account of the investigation, allowing readers to understand the sequence of events and the reasoning behind the conclusions reached.

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  • 40. 

    A conscientious objector who sincerely objects to participation as a combatant in war in any form, but whose convictions or beliefs will permit him or her to serve in a noncombatant status is classified as

    • A.

      Class 1-0

    • B.

      Class 1-A-0

    • C.

      Class 1-B-0

    • D.

      Class 1-C-0

    Correct Answer
    B. Class 1-A-0
    Explanation
    A conscientious objector who objects to participating as a combatant in war but is willing to serve in a noncombatant role is classified as Class 1-A-0. This classification indicates that the individual is willing to fulfill their military service obligations in a noncombatant capacity, reflecting their sincere beliefs and objections to engaging in combat.

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  • 41. 

    If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his or her conscientious objector status without good reason, then the member

    • A.

      Has waived his or her rights to be present at the hearing

    • B.

      Has the option of appearing in a private hearing

    • C.

      Can request another hearing at a later date

    • D.

      Can submit a waiver at a later date

    Correct Answer
    A. Has waived his or her rights to be present at the hearing
    Explanation
    If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his or her conscientious objector status without good reason, it means that the member has chosen not to exercise their right to be present at the hearing. This implies that they have waived their rights to be present at the hearing, indicating that they will not be given the opportunity to participate or present their case.

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  • 42. 

    Upon receipt of the final record in a conscientious objector case, if the applicant does not submit a rebuttal within 15 calendar days from receipt of the record, then the member

    • A.

      Can submit a rebuttal up to 30 calendar days late

    • B.

      Can request a rehearing

    • C.

      Can request an extension

    • D.

      Loses the right to rebuttal

    Correct Answer
    D. Loses the right to rebuttal
    Explanation
    If the applicant does not submit a rebuttal within 15 calendar days from receipt of the record, then they lose the right to rebuttal. This means that they will not be able to provide any counter arguments or evidence to challenge the information presented in the final record.

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  • 43. 

    Under Article 138, UCMJ, if a complaint is properly submitted and the commander refuses the redress, the next option for the member is to submit  the complaint

    • A.

      Directly to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction

    • B.

      Directly to the inspector general

    • C.

      To the equal employment office

    • D.

      To their congressman

    Correct Answer
    A. Directly to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction
    Explanation
    If a complaint is properly submitted and the commander refuses to address it, the next option for the member is to submit the complaint directly to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction. This is because the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction has the authority to address and take action on the complaint. By submitting the complaint directly to this officer, the member can ensure that their concerns are brought to the attention of someone who has the power to address the issue effectively.

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  • 44. 

    If congress requests a release of information that must be disclosed only with the consent of the SecAF, then the information is

    • A.

      Classified

    • B.

      For official use only

    • C.

      Privacy act information

    • D.

      Information for congressional constituents

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified
    Explanation
    The correct answer is classified. If congress requests information that can only be disclosed with the consent of the Secretary of the Air Force (SecAF), it implies that the information is sensitive and falls under the category of classified information. Classified information is restricted and requires authorization for access, ensuring its confidentiality and protection from unauthorized disclosure.

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  • 45. 

    If you receive a written congressional inquiry within the CONUS, which of the following must happen within 24 hours of receipt?

    • A.

      The inquiry must be answered

    • B.

      The inquiry must be forwarded to the proper agency

    • C.

      Fax a copy of a written inquiry to the Legislative Liaison Inquiry Division (SAF/LLI)

    • D.

      Fax a copy of a written inquiry to TJAG

    Correct Answer
    C. Fax a copy of a written inquiry to the Legislative Liaison Inquiry Division (SAF/LLI)
    Explanation
    Within 24 hours of receiving a written congressional inquiry within the CONUS (Continental United States), it is necessary to fax a copy of the inquiry to the Legislative Liaison Inquiry Division (SAF/LLI).

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  • 46. 

    If you are performing an investigation to preserve available evidence for use in claims, litigation, disciplinary actions, administrative proceedings, then you are performing a(n)

    • A.

      Article 32, UCMJ, investigation

    • B.

      Accident investigation

    • C.

      Claims investigation

    • D.

      Safety invesitgation

    Correct Answer
    B. Accident investigation
    Explanation
    An accident investigation involves the process of gathering and analyzing evidence to determine the causes and contributing factors of an accident. It aims to identify any negligence, misconduct, or safety violations that may have led to the accident. While the other options mentioned in the question (Article 32, UCMJ investigation, claims investigation, safety investigation) also involve investigations, they are not specifically focused on preserving evidence for claims, litigation, disciplinary actions, or administrative proceedings. Therefore, the correct answer is accident investigation.

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  • 47. 

    At a minimum,  each AIB shall be composed of a

    • A.

      President and a recorder

    • B.

      President and a legal advisor

    • C.

      Legal advisor and a reporter

    • D.

      Legal advisor and a recorder

    Correct Answer
    B. President and a legal advisor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is President and a legal advisor. This is because an AIB (Accident Investigation Board) typically requires a leader or President who oversees the investigation process and makes important decisions. Additionally, a legal advisor is necessary to provide legal expertise and guidance throughout the investigation to ensure that all procedures and actions are in compliance with the law.

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  • 48. 

    When an AIB is convened, the accident report must be completed within what maximum number of calendar days after receipt of the completed Part I SIB report?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    When an AIB (Accident Investigation Board) is convened, it is important to complete the accident report in a timely manner. The maximum number of calendar days allowed for completing the report after receiving the completed Part I SIB (Safety Investigation Board) report is 30. This ensures that the investigation is conducted efficiently and that the findings and recommendations can be promptly implemented to prevent future accidents.

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  • 49. 

    Who normally fulfills the duties of a recorder for an AIB?

    • A.

      Paralegal

    • B.

      Judge Advocate

    • C.

      An officer in the rank of Colonel or above

    • D.

      An enlisted member what a background in maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Paralegal
    Explanation
    A paralegal is someone who assists lawyers in their legal work. They are trained in legal procedures and documentation, making them suitable for fulfilling the duties of a recorder for an AIB (Administrative Investigation Board). A recorder is responsible for documenting and recording the proceedings of the AIB, which involves gathering evidence, conducting interviews, and preparing reports. Since paralegals have knowledge and experience in legal matters, they are well-equipped to handle these duties effectively.

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  • 50. 

    What is a request for information regarding government records called?

    • A.

      FOIA request

    • B.

      DA request

    • C.

      BRs request

    • D.

      PA request

    Correct Answer
    A. FOIA request
    Explanation
    A request for information regarding government records is called a FOIA request. FOIA stands for the Freedom of Information Act, which grants individuals the right to access information held by the government. By submitting a FOIA request, individuals can seek access to government records, documents, and other information that may not be readily available to the public.

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