5j0x1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 2
Paralegal course
- 1.Which of the following is not a reason for requesting a voluntary discharge?
- A.
Accepting public office
- B.
Early release for Chirstmas
- C.
Sole surviving son or daughter
- D.
Conditions that interfere with military service
- 2.What is the first thing an Airman wishing to leave active Air Force service must do?
- A.
Submit his/her request in writing to MPS
- B.
Submit the request to his/her unit commander
- C.
Submit the request to his/her separation authority
- D.
Submit an AF Form 31
- 3.What must a commander ensure before recommending any type of involuntary discharge?
- A.
All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted.
- B.
Airman has met with the ADC and understands their options
- C.
Convening authority has concurred with the proposed action
- D.
Legal office has reviewed the file, and it is legally sufficient
- 4.After how many days of continuous active duty is a commander not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge?
- A.
80
- B.
90
- C.
180
- D.
190
- 5.The first step in a notification discharge is when the member
- A.
Reports for a medical examination
- B.
Submits a statement in rebuttal of the discharge
- C.
Receives oral notice of the reason(s) for disharge
- D.
Receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge
- 6.After an Airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, what is his next action?
- A.
Go to the MPS for discharge processing
- B.
Report to the Medical Group for a medical examination
- C.
Make an appotinment with the ADC
- D.
Submit a statement in rebuttal of the discharge.
- 7.In an administrative discharge board hearing, to whom does the legal advisor administer the oath?
- A.
Reporter
- B.
Recorder
- C.
Legal Advisor
- D.
Voting Member
- 8.Once opening statements have been made, who first presents evidence in an administrative discharge board proceeding?
- A.
Respondent's counsel
- B.
Legal advisor
- C.
Recorder
- D.
Reporter
- 9.Who normally authenitcates the record of proceedings for an administrative discharge board?
- A.
Legal advisor
- B.
Respondent
- C.
Reporter
- D.
Judge
- 10.What is the standard of proof in an administrative discharge board proceeding?
- A.
Beyond a reasonable doubt
- B.
Preponderance of the evidence
- C.
Clear and convincing evidence
- D.
Standards of proof do not apply to discharge boards
- 11.If acting as an assisant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you will
- A.
Need to have a copy of the script
- B.
Need to be organized and ready to proceed
- C.
Need to have a copy of the convening order
- D.
Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times
- 12.When a squadron commander believes he or she has an officer that should be discharged, you must tell the commander their first step is to
- A.
Send the officer to the ADC
- B.
Serve a notification memorandum on the officer
- C.
Send the file to the SPCMCA
- D.
Evaluate the information and consult with the SJA
- 13.When a BOI is to be convened, within how many days must the officer be notified, in writing, before the BOR hearing?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
30
- D.
45
- 14.A commander may continued demotion action based on incidents that occurred before an Airman's reenlistment.
- A.
By special approval of the SecAF
- B.
By special approval of the MAJCOM commander
- C.
If the Airman was promoted based on achievements prior to the reenlistment
- D.
If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment
- 15.Within what maximom number of days must an Airman submit an appeal to a demotion action to the MPS?
- A.
Three
- B.
Five
- C.
Seven
- D.
Ten
- 16.Which of the following is considered to be the least severe form a administrative discipline?
- A.
LOR
- B.
LOA
- C.
Placement on a control roster
- D.
RIC
- 17.If a commander places an active duty Airman on a control roster on 1 September 2011, what is the latest date he or she may remove the inidividual from the control roster?
- A.
2 March 2012
- B.
31 January 2012
- C.
29 February 2012
- D.
31 December 2011
- 18.Prior to filing an optional document in an Airman's UIF, the decision authority must first notify the member of the intent to do so by using
- A.
DD Form 1058
- B.
AF IMT 1058
- C.
DD Form 2907
- D.
AF IMT 2907
- 19.If a commander assumes command of his squadron on 5 September 2011, by what date must he review the UIF on his assigned personnel?
- A.
4 January 2012
- B.
31 January 2012
- C.
4 December 2011
- D.
31 December 2011
- 20.Assessments of the installation drug testing program must be performed at least?
- A.
Quarterly
- B.
Bi-annually
- C.
Annually
- D.
Every two years
- 21.For the drug demand reduction program, an audit of collection procedures at a GSU is required at least
- A.
Quarterly
- B.
Bi-annually
- C.
Annually
- D.
Every two years
- 22.While TJAG is responsible for the Legal Assistance and Preventive Law Program Air Force-wide, who is responsible for monitoring the program?
- A.
Community Legal Services Division (AFLOA/JACA)
- B.
MAJCOM Staff Judge Advocate
- C.
NAF Staff Judge Advocate
- D.
Base staff judge advocate
- 23.To ensure mission readiness, who may add requirements for mobilization and deployment related legal assistance?
- A.
Base staff judge advocates
- B.
TJAG
- C.
NAF staff judge advocates
- D.
MAJCOM staff judge advocates
- 24.Once you have determined that a client is eligible for legal assistance, what is your next step?
- A.
Ask if they have retained a civilian attorney
- B.
Check to see if a legal assistance attorney is available
- C.
Make copies of all documents they brought with them
- D.
Enter their personal information into the WebLIONS
- 25.In determining eligibility of legal assisantce you find the client has hired a civilian attorney, what is your immediate response?
- A.
Defer to the SJA for a decision on the matter
- B.
Refer the client to their civilian attorney
- C.
Refer them to another agency on base
- D.
Sign them in for legal assistance
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