5j0x1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 2

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  • 1/101 Questions

    If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his or her conscientious objector status without good reason, then the member

    • Has waived his or her rights to be present at the hearing
    • Has the option of appearing in a private hearing
    • Can request another hearing at a later date
    • Can submit a waiver at a later date
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5j0x1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 2 - Quiz
About This Quiz

The '5J0X1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 2' assesses knowledge on procedures for voluntary and involuntary discharges in the Air Force, including initial steps, commander's responsibilities, and discharge protocols. It is designed for learners aiming to understand military legal processes relevant to Air Force service.

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  • 2. 

    In determining eligibility of legal assisantce you find the client has hired a civilian attorney, what is your immediate response?

    • Defer to the SJA for a decision on the matter

    • Refer the client to their civilian attorney

    • Refer them to another agency on base

    • Sign them in for legal assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Refer the client to their civilian attorney
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to refer the client to their civilian attorney. This is the appropriate response because if the client has already hired a civilian attorney, it means they have already sought legal representation outside of the military legal system. In such cases, it is best to respect the client's decision and direct them to their chosen attorney for further assistance.

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  • 3. 

    After how many days of continuous active duty is a commander not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge?

    • 80

    • 90

    • 180

    • 190

    Correct Answer
    A. 180
    Explanation
    A commander is not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge after 180 days of continuous active duty. This policy ensures that entry-level service members are given a sufficient amount of time to adjust to military life and receive necessary training before being considered for discharge. It also allows them the opportunity to demonstrate their potential and commitment to their duties.

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  • 4. 

    What must be considered when the US Armed Forces deploy to a foreign country?

    • Currency rate

    • International law

    • Country's location

    • United States laws only

    Correct Answer
    A. International law
    Explanation
    When the US Armed Forces deploy to a foreign country, they must consider international law. This is because international law governs the relations between countries and sets out the rights and responsibilities of nations. It ensures that the actions of the US Armed Forces are in compliance with international norms and standards, such as respecting the sovereignty of the host country and adhering to human rights principles. Ignoring international law can lead to diplomatic tensions, legal consequences, and damage to the reputation of the United States on the global stage.

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  • 5. 

    What is a request for information regarding government records called?

    • FOIA request

    • DA request

    • BRs request

    • PA request

    Correct Answer
    A. FOIA request
    Explanation
    A request for information regarding government records is called a FOIA request. FOIA stands for the Freedom of Information Act, which grants individuals the right to access information held by the government. By submitting a FOIA request, individuals can seek access to government records, documents, and other information that may not be readily available to the public.

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  • 6. 

    Air Force chaplains are considered

    • Combatants

    • Noncombatants

    • Lawful combatants

    • Unlawful combatants

    Correct Answer
    A. Noncombatants
    Explanation
    Air Force chaplains are considered noncombatants because their role is to provide spiritual support and guidance to military personnel, rather than engage in combat activities. They are protected under international humanitarian law and are not allowed to directly participate in hostilities. Their primary duty is to offer religious services, counseling, and moral support to soldiers, ensuring their well-being and addressing their spiritual needs in times of war or peace.

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  • 7. 

    A commander may continued demotion action based on incidents that occurred before an Airman's reenlistment.

    • By special approval of the SecAF

    • By special approval of the MAJCOM commander

    • If the Airman was promoted based on achievements prior to the reenlistment

    • If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment

    Correct Answer
    A. If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment
    Explanation
    If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment, the commander may continue demotion action. This means that if the commander becomes aware of any incidents that occurred before the Airman's reenlistment, which could warrant a demotion, they have the authority to take action. The timing of the commander's knowledge is crucial in this scenario, as they cannot take demotion action if they were already aware of the incidents before the reenlistment.

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  • 8. 

    Once you have determined that a client is eligible for legal assistance, what is your next step?

    • Ask if they have retained a civilian attorney

    • Check to see if a legal assistance attorney is available

    • Make copies of all documents they brought with them

    • Enter their personal information into the WebLIONS

    Correct Answer
    A. Enter their personal information into the WebLIONS
    Explanation
    The next step after determining a client's eligibility for legal assistance is to enter their personal information into the WebLIONS system. This is likely a database or software used to keep track of client information and cases. By entering their personal information, it allows for proper documentation and organization of the client's case, making it easier for the legal assistance attorney to provide the necessary help and support.

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  • 9. 

    When producing a POA in the WebLIONS, after you've entered all the information required for the power of attorney, your next step is to select the

    • "produce POA" button

    • "print POA" button

    • "submit" button

    • "next" button

    Correct Answer
    A. "produce POA" button
    Explanation
    After entering all the necessary information for the power of attorney in WebLIONS, the next step is to select the "produce POA" button. This button is likely to initiate the process of generating the actual power of attorney document based on the provided information. It indicates that the user is ready to proceed with the creation of the POA and that the system will now generate the document for further actions.

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  • 10. 

    Under which area of the preventive law program would the importance of preparing a will be stressed?

    • Legal assistance and consumer protection

    • Deployment readiness preparation

    • Commander awareness

    • Reports

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployment readiness preparation
    Explanation
    In the context of a preventive law program, the importance of preparing a will would be stressed under the area of deployment readiness preparation. This is because when individuals are preparing for deployment, it is crucial for them to have their legal affairs in order, including creating a will to ensure that their assets and wishes are protected in the event of their death. By emphasizing the importance of preparing a will during deployment readiness preparation, individuals can proactively address this legal aspect and ensure their affairs are properly managed.

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  • 11. 

    Upon receipt of the final record in a conscientious objector case, if the applicant does not submit a rebuttal within 15 calendar days from receipt of the record, then the member

    • Can submit a rebuttal up to 30 calendar days late

    • Can request a rehearing

    • Can request an extension

    • Loses the right to rebuttal

    Correct Answer
    A. Loses the right to rebuttal
    Explanation
    If the applicant does not submit a rebuttal within 15 calendar days from receipt of the record, then they lose the right to rebuttal. This means that they will not be able to provide any counter arguments or evidence to challenge the information presented in the final record.

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  • 12. 

    What type of jurisdiction allows for both the federal and state government to have jurisdiction over offenses committed on the installation?

    • Foregin

    • Exclusive

    • Concurrent

    • Proprietary

    Correct Answer
    A. Concurrent
    Explanation
    Concurrent jurisdiction allows both the federal and state government to have jurisdiction over offenses committed on the installation. This means that both levels of government have the authority to prosecute and enforce laws in these cases. It allows for a shared responsibility and ensures that offenses committed on the installation can be addressed by both federal and state authorities.

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  • 13. 

    What must a commander ensure before recommending any type of involuntary discharge?

    • All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted.

    • Airman has met with the ADC and understands their options

    • Convening authority has concurred with the proposed action

    • Legal office has reviewed the file, and it is legally sufficient

    Correct Answer
    A. All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted.
    Explanation
    Before recommending any type of involuntary discharge, a commander must ensure that all rehabilitation requirements have been met and that discharge for cause is not warranted. This means that the airman has been given the necessary support and opportunities for rehabilitation, and that their behavior or performance does not warrant a discharge for cause. The commander must ensure that all other necessary steps, such as meeting with the ADC, obtaining the concurrence of the convening authority, and having the legal office review the file, have also been completed.

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  • 14. 

    When a squadron commander believes he or she has an officer that should be discharged, you must tell the commander their first step is to

    • Send the officer to the ADC

    • Serve a notification memorandum on the officer

    • Send the file to the SPCMCA

    • Evaluate the information and consult with the SJA

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluate the information and consult with the SJA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to evaluate the information and consult with the SJA. This step is important because it allows the squadron commander to gather all relevant information and seek legal advice from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) before taking any further action. By evaluating the information and consulting with the SJA, the commander can ensure that they are following the correct procedures and making an informed decision regarding the potential discharge of the officer.

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  • 15. 

    What additional identifiers should be included on a notary's raised seal or inked stamp to ensure notarized documents are accepted as authentic?

    • "U.S Air Force and Judge Advocate"

    • "U.S Air Force and Authentic"

    • "U.S Air Force and Paralegal"

    • "U.S Air Force and Civilian"

    Correct Answer
    A. "U.S Air Force and Judge Advocate"
    Explanation
    The additional identifiers that should be included on a notary's raised seal or inked stamp to ensure notarized documents are accepted as authentic are "U.S Air Force and Judge Advocate". Including the U.S Air Force indicates that the notary is affiliated with the Air Force, which adds credibility to the notarization. The Judge Advocate identifier indicates that the notary is a legal officer in the military, further enhancing the authenticity and reliability of the notarized documents.

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  • 16. 

    Which legal support functional competency is the ablity to provide the war fighter with the complete set of legal capabilities at any place at any time?

    • Operational readiness

    • Authoritative counsel

    • Legal information mastery

    • Compelling advocacy and litigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational readiness
    Explanation
    Operational readiness refers to the ability to provide the war fighter with the complete set of legal capabilities at any place and any time. This means ensuring that legal support is readily available to support military operations whenever and wherever needed. It involves being prepared and equipped to deliver legal services efficiently and effectively in various operational contexts. This competency is crucial in ensuring that legal support is able to meet the demands and requirements of the war fighter in a timely manner, enhancing the overall readiness and effectiveness of military operations.

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  • 17. 

    If acting as an assisant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you will

    • Need to have a copy of the script

    • Need to be organized and ready to proceed

    • Need to have a copy of the convening order

    • Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times

    Correct Answer
    A. Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times
    Explanation
    As an assistant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, it is necessary to be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times. This implies that the assistant should work closely with and be guided by an attorney throughout the proceeding. This ensures that the assistant follows legal procedures and protocols accurately and is able to provide necessary support to the recorder effectively. The other options mentioned, such as having a copy of the script, being organized and ready to proceed, and having a copy of the convening order, may also be important in the overall process, but being under direct supervision of an attorney is the most critical requirement for the assistant in this scenario.

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  • 18. 

    Which type of operation is conducted outside of the US to relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters?

    • Humanitarian assistance

    • Peace building

    • Peacekeeping

    • Peacemaking

    Correct Answer
    A. Humanitarian assistance
    Explanation
    Humanitarian assistance is the correct answer because it involves providing aid and support to individuals and communities affected by natural or manmade disasters outside of the US. This assistance includes providing food, shelter, medical care, and other essential services to those in need. It aims to relieve the suffering and reduce the impact of disasters on affected populations, providing them with the necessary resources and support to recover and rebuild their lives. Peace building, peacekeeping, and peacemaking are related to conflict resolution and maintaining peace, but they do not specifically address the relief and reduction of the results of disasters.

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  • 19. 

    After an Airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, what is his next action?

    • Go to the MPS for discharge processing

    • Report to the Medical Group for a medical examination

    • Make an appotinment with the ADC

    • Submit a statement in rebuttal of the discharge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Report to the Medical Group for a medical examination
    Explanation
    After an Airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, his next action is to report to the Medical Group for a medical examination. This is because the medical examination is a necessary step in the discharge process to ensure the Airman's health status and to determine any medical benefits or assistance that may be required after discharge. The medical examination helps in assessing the Airman's fitness for discharge and provides important information for the transition to civilian life.

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  • 20. 

    What is the standard of proof in an administrative discharge board proceeding?

    • Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • Preponderance of the evidence

    • Clear and convincing evidence

    • Standards of proof do not apply to discharge boards

    Correct Answer
    A. Preponderance of the evidence
    Explanation
    In an administrative discharge board proceeding, the standard of proof is "preponderance of the evidence." This means that the evidence presented must show that it is more likely than not that the allegations against the individual are true. It is a lower standard of proof compared to "beyond a reasonable doubt," which is used in criminal cases. "Clear and convincing evidence" is a higher standard of proof, and the last option, "standards of proof do not apply to discharge boards," is incorrect as there is indeed a standard of proof in these proceedings.

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  • 21. 

    When drafting a last will and testament, what term describes all the possessions of one who has died that are subject to probate administration and distribution to heirs and beneficiaries?

    • Estate

    • Domicile

    • Real property

    • Personal propert

    Correct Answer
    A. Estate
    Explanation
    The term that describes all the possessions of one who has died that are subject to probate administration and distribution to heirs and beneficiaries is "estate".

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  • 22. 

    In an administrative discharge board hearing, to whom does the legal advisor administer the oath?

    • Reporter

    • Recorder

    • Legal Advisor

    • Voting Member

    Correct Answer
    A. Recorder
    Explanation
    In an administrative discharge board hearing, the legal advisor does not administer the oath. Instead, it is the responsibility of the recorder to administer the oath. The recorder is typically a non-legal member of the board who is responsible for documenting the proceedings of the hearing. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the oath is properly administered to all relevant parties involved in the hearing.

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  • 23. 

    A notary act should be performed when the client

    • Makes changes to their will

    • Requires a copy of their birth certificate

    • Has a completed document signed in your presence

    • Has a completed document not signed in your presence

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a completed document signed in your presence
    Explanation
    A notary act should be performed when the client has a completed document signed in your presence because the role of a notary is to witness the signing of important documents to ensure their authenticity and prevent fraud. By being present during the signing, the notary can verify the identity of the signer and ensure that they are willingly and knowingly signing the document. This adds an extra layer of security and credibility to the document.

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  • 24. 

    Who supervises and manages the tax assistance program at base level?

    • Wing commander

    • Staff Judge Advocate

    • Squadron Commander

    • Chief of legal assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff Judge Advocate
    Explanation
    The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for supervising and managing the tax assistance program at the base level. As the legal advisor to the commander, the Staff Judge Advocate oversees the program to ensure compliance with tax laws and regulations. They provide guidance and support to the tax assistance team, ensuring that accurate and reliable assistance is provided to service members and their families. The Staff Judge Advocate's role is critical in ensuring the program's effectiveness and adherence to legal standards.

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  • 25. 

    What is the first thing an Airman wishing to leave active Air Force service must do?

    • Submit his/her request in writing to MPS

    • Submit the request to his/her unit commander

    • Submit the request to his/her separation authority

    • Submit an AF Form 31

    Correct Answer
    A. Submit his/her request in writing to MPS
    Explanation
    An Airman wishing to leave active Air Force service must first submit his/her request in writing to MPS. This is because MPS (Military Personnel Section) is responsible for processing and managing personnel actions, including separations. By submitting the request to MPS, the Airman initiates the formal process of separation from the active Air Force service. The other options mentioned, such as submitting the request to the unit commander or separation authority, may be involved in the process but the initial step is to submit the request to MPS.

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  • 26. 

    The first step in a notification discharge is when the member

    • Reports for a medical examination

    • Submits a statement in rebuttal of the discharge

    • Receives oral notice of the reason(s) for disharge

    • Receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge

    Correct Answer
    A. Receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge." This is the first step in a notification discharge because it ensures that the member is formally informed in writing about the reasons for their discharge. This written notice provides clarity and documentation of the reasons behind the discharge, allowing the member to understand and potentially challenge the decision if necessary.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is considered to be the least severe form a administrative discipline?

    • LOR

    • LOA

    • Placement on a control roster

    • RIC

    Correct Answer
    A. RIC
    Explanation
    The least severe form of administrative discipline is considered to be RIC. This is because RIC stands for "Record of Individual Counseling," which typically involves a documented conversation or counseling session with an individual to address minor performance or behavioral issues. In comparison, LOR (Letter of Reprimand), LOA (Letter of Admonishment), and Placement on a control roster are more severe disciplinary actions that may involve written warnings, restrictions, or formal monitoring of an individual's conduct or performance.

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  • 28. 

    A conscientious objector who sincerely objects to participation as a combatant in war in any form, but whose convictions or beliefs will permit him or her to serve in a noncombatant status is classified as

    • Class 1-0

    • Class 1-A-0

    • Class 1-B-0

    • Class 1-C-0

    Correct Answer
    A. Class 1-A-0
    Explanation
    A conscientious objector who objects to participating as a combatant in war but is willing to serve in a noncombatant role is classified as Class 1-A-0. This classification indicates that the individual is willing to fulfill their military service obligations in a noncombatant capacity, reflecting their sincere beliefs and objections to engaging in combat.

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  • 29. 

    Under Article 138, UCMJ, if a complaint is properly submitted and the commander refuses the redress, the next option for the member is to submit  the complaint

    • Directly to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction

    • Directly to the inspector general

    • To the equal employment office

    • To their congressman

    Correct Answer
    A. Directly to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction
    Explanation
    If a complaint is properly submitted and the commander refuses to address it, the next option for the member is to submit the complaint directly to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction. This is because the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction has the authority to address and take action on the complaint. By submitting the complaint directly to this officer, the member can ensure that their concerns are brought to the attention of someone who has the power to address the issue effectively.

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  • 30. 

    If you receive a request for information regarding records that pertain to an individual, you have received a

    • FOIA request

    • DA request

    • BR request

    • PA request

    Correct Answer
    A. PA request
    Explanation
    A PA request refers to a request for information regarding records that pertain to an individual. PA stands for Privacy Act, which is a law that regulates the collection, use, and dissemination of personal information by federal agencies. This type of request is specifically related to the privacy rights of individuals and their access to their own personal records held by the government.

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  • 31. 

    Which sister service does not have a paralegal career field?

    • Army

    • Navy

    • Marines

    • Coast Guard

    Correct Answer
    A. Coast Guard
    Explanation
    The Coast Guard does not have a paralegal career field. This means that individuals interested in pursuing a paralegal career cannot do so within the Coast Guard.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is not a reason for requesting a voluntary discharge?

    • Accepting public office

    • Early release for Chirstmas

    • Sole surviving son or daughter

    • Conditions that interfere with military service

    Correct Answer
    A. Conditions that interfere with military service
    Explanation
    A voluntary discharge from the military can be requested for various reasons, such as accepting public office, early release for Christmas, or being the sole surviving son or daughter. However, conditions that interfere with military service are not a valid reason for requesting a voluntary discharge. This could refer to physical or mental health issues that hinder an individual's ability to fulfill their military duties.

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  • 33. 

    Who normally authenitcates the record of proceedings for an administrative discharge board?

    • Legal advisor

    • Respondent

    • Reporter

    • Judge

    Correct Answer
    A. Legal advisor
    Explanation
    The legal advisor normally authenticates the record of proceedings for an administrative discharge board. This is because the legal advisor is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance during the proceedings, ensuring that all legal requirements are met, and maintaining an accurate record of the proceedings. They play a crucial role in ensuring the fairness and legality of the administrative discharge board process.

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  • 34. 

    If a commander assumes command of his squadron on 5 September 2011, by what date must he review the UIF on his assigned personnel?

    • 4 January 2012

    • 31 January 2012

    • 4 December 2011

    • 31 December 2011

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 December 2011
    Explanation
    The commander must review the UIF on his assigned personnel by 4 December 2011 because it is the closest date to his assumption of command on 5 September 2011.

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  • 35. 

    When producing a POA in the WebLIONS for a client on the waiting list, the first step from the "actions" drop down menu is to select

    • "all open vists"

    • "your open vists"

    • "client waiting list"

    • "POA office setup"

    Correct Answer
    A. "client waiting list"
    Explanation
    When producing a POA in the WebLIONS for a client on the waiting list, the first step is to select "client waiting list" from the actions drop-down menu. This suggests that the POA is specifically for clients who are on the waiting list. By selecting this option, the user can proceed with generating the POA for the client in question.

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  • 36. 

    Who is responsible for the custody, care, and safekeeping of Air Force property and can be held financially liable for failure to exercise this obligation?

    • Property custodian

    • Responsible officer

    • Accountable officer

    • Financial liability officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Property custodian
    Explanation
    The property custodian is responsible for the custody, care, and safekeeping of Air Force property. They are entrusted with the task of ensuring that the property is properly maintained and protected. If they fail to exercise this obligation, they can be held financially liable for any damages or losses that occur. This means that they may have to personally bear the financial burden of any negligence or misconduct in relation to the property under their care.

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  • 37. 

    After reviewing a request for off-duty employment in which you detect possible ethics concerns, what action should you take?

    • Dissaprove the request and send a courtsey copy to the SJA

    • Contact the off-duty employment manager

    • File a financial disclosure

    • Draft a brief legal review

    Correct Answer
    A. Draft a brief legal review
    Explanation
    If you detect possible ethics concerns in a request for off-duty employment, the appropriate action to take is to draft a brief legal review. This means that you should assess the legal implications of the situation and provide a summary of your findings. This will help to ensure that any potential ethical issues are properly addressed and that the appropriate actions are taken to mitigate any risks.

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  • 38. 

    Using the Agency Ethics Reporting System, the first step in creating your ethics report for the current year is to select the

    • "creat/modify current year Agency Ethics Report" option

    • "Agency Ethics" option

    • "submit report" option

    • "open record" option

    Correct Answer
    A. "creat/modify current year Agency Ethics Report" option
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to select the "creat/modify current year Agency Ethics Report" option. This option is the first step in creating an ethics report for the current year using the Agency Ethics Reporting System. By selecting this option, users can begin the process of creating or modifying their ethics report for the current year.

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  • 39. 

    What report is a statistical summary of all cases involving jurisdiction over US personnel?

    • Trial observer report

    • Serious indient report

    • Montly visitation report

    • Annual foreign criminal jurisdiction report

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual foreign criminal jurisdiction report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Annual foreign criminal jurisdiction report. This report provides a statistical summary of all cases involving jurisdiction over US personnel. It includes information about criminal cases involving US personnel in foreign countries and provides an overview of the jurisdictional issues and challenges faced in these cases. The report is typically published on an annual basis and is used to track and analyze trends in foreign criminal jurisdiction cases involving US personnel.

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  • 40. 

    After you have entered or verified a client's information for their legal assistance appointment in the WebLIONS, what is your next step?

    • Select the "client waiting list" button

    • Select the "complete AF 1175 inputs" button

    • Select either the "all open visits" or "your open vists" button

    • Select either the "legal assistance" or "documents/notaries" button

    Correct Answer
    A. Select either the "legal assistance" or "documents/notaries" button
    Explanation
    After entering or verifying a client's information for their legal assistance appointment in WebLIONS, the next step is to select either the "legal assistance" or "documents/notaries" button. This step is crucial as it determines the type of service the client requires, whether it is legal assistance or assistance with documents/notaries. By selecting the appropriate button, the system will direct the user to the relevant options and resources needed to proceed with the client's request.

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  • 41. 

    When drafting a last will and testament, what term describes when a gift fails or goes away?

    • Issue

    • Adeem

    • Devise

    • Bequeath

    Correct Answer
    A. Adeem
    Explanation
    Adeem is the correct answer because it refers to the situation when a gift mentioned in a last will and testament fails or goes away. This can happen when the property or asset that was intended to be given as a gift is no longer owned by the testator at the time of their death. In such cases, the gift is considered adeemed and does not pass on to the intended recipient.

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  • 42. 

    After an inquiry or investigation is completed, what type of report provides for a logical step-by-step layout?

    • Report of review

    • Report of inquiry

    • Report of investigation

    • Report of facts and circumstances

    Correct Answer
    A. Report of investigation
    Explanation
    A report of investigation provides for a logical step-by-step layout after an inquiry or investigation is completed. This type of report is specifically designed to present the findings, evidence, and conclusions in a systematic and organized manner. It outlines the investigative process, including the methods used, data collected, and analysis performed. The report of investigation aims to provide a clear and comprehensive account of the investigation, allowing readers to understand the sequence of events and the reasoning behind the conclusions reached.

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  • 43. 

    Who normally fulfills the duties of a recorder for an AIB?

    • Paralegal

    • Judge Advocate

    • An officer in the rank of Colonel or above

    • An enlisted member what a background in maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Paralegal
    Explanation
    A paralegal is someone who assists lawyers in their legal work. They are trained in legal procedures and documentation, making them suitable for fulfilling the duties of a recorder for an AIB (Administrative Investigation Board). A recorder is responsible for documenting and recording the proceedings of the AIB, which involves gathering evidence, conducting interviews, and preparing reports. Since paralegals have knowledge and experience in legal matters, they are well-equipped to handle these duties effectively.

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  • 44. 

    In a federal magistrate court case, immediately following arraignment on petty offense where the defendant pleads guilty, the magistrate will

    • Impose a sentence

    • Set a date for sentencing

    • Assign a public defender to the accused

    • Request a presentencing report from Pre-Trial Services

    Correct Answer
    A. Impose a sentence
    Explanation
    In a federal magistrate court case, immediately following arraignment on a petty offense where the defendant pleads guilty, the magistrate will impose a sentence. This means that the magistrate will determine and announce the punishment or penalty for the defendant's guilty plea. This could involve fines, probation, community service, or other appropriate forms of punishment for the offense committed. The magistrate does not set a date for sentencing, assign a public defender, or request a presentencing report from Pre-Trial Services in this scenario.

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  • 45. 

    For the drug demand reduction program, an audit of collection procedures at a GSU is required at least

    • Quarterly

    • Bi-annually

    • Annually

    • Every two years

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    An audit of collection procedures at a GSU is required annually for the drug demand reduction program. This means that the collection procedures for the program need to be assessed and reviewed once a year. Conducting an annual audit ensures that the collection procedures are being followed correctly and helps identify any areas that may need improvement or adjustment. By conducting regular audits, the program can maintain its effectiveness and ensure that the drug demand reduction efforts are being carried out efficiently.

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  • 46. 

    Once a client provides you with his/her ticket number, what do you log into in order to access his/her Will and Advance Medical Directive worksheet?

    • The DL Wills Program

    • The Air Force Legal Assisstance administration site

    • The JAGUARS

    • The WebLIONS

    Correct Answer
    A. The Air Force Legal Assisstance administration site
    Explanation
    To access a client's Will and Advance Medical Directive worksheet, you would log into the Air Force Legal Assistance administration site. This site is specifically designed for legal assistance services in the Air Force and would likely contain the necessary information and documents related to the client's Will and Advance Medical Directive. The DL Wills Program, JAGUARS, and WebLIONS are not mentioned in the context of accessing these specific documents, making the Air Force Legal Assistance administration site the most logical choice.

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  • 47. 

    If congress requests a release of information that must be disclosed only with the consent of the SecAF, then the information is

    • Classified

    • For official use only

    • Privacy act information

    • Information for congressional constituents

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified
    Explanation
    The correct answer is classified. If congress requests information that can only be disclosed with the consent of the Secretary of the Air Force (SecAF), it implies that the information is sensitive and falls under the category of classified information. Classified information is restricted and requires authorization for access, ensuring its confidentiality and protection from unauthorized disclosure.

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  • 48. 

    Which Task Force(s) did legal personnel deploy to ensure detainees in US custody were afforded due process?

    • Task Force 134 in Iraq and 435 in Afghanistan

    • Task Force 134 in Iraq only

    • Combined Joint Task Force 76 and 151

    • Combined Joint Task Force 76 only

    Correct Answer
    A. Task Force 134 in Iraq and 435 in Afghanistan
    Explanation
    Legal personnel deployed Task Force 134 in Iraq and Task Force 435 in Afghanistan to ensure detainees in US custody were afforded due process.

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  • 49. 

    Which category is not a part of the US Air Force LAWS?

    • Legal information

    • Legal worksheets

    • Online survey

    • Reports

    Correct Answer
    A. Reports
    Explanation
    The category that is not a part of the US Air Force LAWS is "Reports". The LAWS (Legal Assistance Website) is a resource provided by the US Air Force that offers legal information, legal worksheets, and online surveys. However, it does not include reports, which may be found in other resources or systems.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 06, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Neshanne
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