5j0x1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 2

101 Questions

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5j0x1 Quizzes & Trivia

Paralegal course


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not a reason for requesting a voluntary discharge?
    • A. 

      Accepting public office

    • B. 

      Early release for Chirstmas

    • C. 

      Sole surviving son or daughter

    • D. 

      Conditions that interfere with military service

  • 2. 
    What is the first thing an Airman wishing to leave active Air Force service must do?
    • A. 

      Submit his/her request in writing to MPS

    • B. 

      Submit the request to his/her unit commander

    • C. 

      Submit the request to his/her separation authority

    • D. 

      Submit an AF Form 31

  • 3. 
    What must a commander ensure before recommending any type of involuntary discharge?
    • A. 

      All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted.

    • B. 

      Airman has met with the ADC and understands their options

    • C. 

      Convening authority has concurred with the proposed action

    • D. 

      Legal office has reviewed the file, and it is legally sufficient

  • 4. 
    After how many days of continuous active duty is a commander not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge?
    • A. 

      80

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      180

    • D. 

      190

  • 5. 
    The first step in a notification discharge is when the member
    • A. 

      Reports for a medical examination

    • B. 

      Submits a statement in rebuttal of the discharge

    • C. 

      Receives oral notice of the reason(s) for disharge

    • D. 

      Receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge

  • 6. 
    After an Airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, what is his next action?
    • A. 

      Go to the MPS for discharge processing

    • B. 

      Report to the Medical Group for a medical examination

    • C. 

      Make an appotinment with the ADC

    • D. 

      Submit a statement in rebuttal of the discharge.

  • 7. 
    In an administrative discharge board hearing, to whom does the legal advisor administer the oath?
    • A. 

      Reporter

    • B. 

      Recorder

    • C. 

      Legal Advisor

    • D. 

      Voting Member

  • 8. 
    Once opening statements have been made, who first presents evidence in an administrative discharge board proceeding?
    • A. 

      Respondent's counsel

    • B. 

      Legal advisor

    • C. 

      Recorder

    • D. 

      Reporter

  • 9. 
    Who normally authenitcates the record of proceedings for an administrative discharge board?
    • A. 

      Legal advisor

    • B. 

      Respondent

    • C. 

      Reporter

    • D. 

      Judge

  • 10. 
    What is the standard of proof in an administrative discharge board proceeding?
    • A. 

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • B. 

      Preponderance of the evidence

    • C. 

      Clear and convincing evidence

    • D. 

      Standards of proof do not apply to discharge boards

  • 11. 
    If acting as an assisant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you will
    • A. 

      Need to have a copy of the script

    • B. 

      Need to be organized and ready to proceed

    • C. 

      Need to have a copy of the convening order

    • D. 

      Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times

  • 12. 
    When a squadron commander believes he or she has an officer that should be discharged, you must tell the commander their first step is to
    • A. 

      Send the officer to the ADC

    • B. 

      Serve a notification memorandum on the officer

    • C. 

      Send the file to the SPCMCA

    • D. 

      Evaluate the information and consult with the SJA

  • 13. 
    When a BOI is to be convened, within how many days must the officer be notified, in writing, before the BOR hearing?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      45

  • 14. 
    A commander may continued demotion action based on incidents that occurred before an Airman's reenlistment.
    • A. 

      By special approval of the SecAF

    • B. 

      By special approval of the MAJCOM commander

    • C. 

      If the Airman was promoted based on achievements prior to the reenlistment

    • D. 

      If the facts and circumstances of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment

  • 15. 
    Within what maximom number of days must an Airman submit an appeal to a demotion action to the MPS?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Seven

    • D. 

      Ten

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is considered to be the least severe form a administrative discipline?
    • A. 

      LOR

    • B. 

      LOA

    • C. 

      Placement on a control roster

    • D. 

      RIC

  • 17. 
    If a commander places an active duty Airman on a control roster on 1 September 2011, what is the latest date he or she may remove the inidividual from the control roster?
    • A. 

      2 March 2012

    • B. 

      31 January 2012

    • C. 

      29 February 2012

    • D. 

      31 December 2011

  • 18. 
    Prior to filing an optional document in an Airman's UIF, the decision authority must first notify the member of the intent to do so by using
    • A. 

      DD Form 1058

    • B. 

      AF IMT 1058

    • C. 

      DD Form 2907

    • D. 

      AF IMT 2907

  • 19. 
    If a commander assumes command of his squadron on 5 September 2011, by what date must he review the UIF on his assigned personnel?
    • A. 

      4 January 2012

    • B. 

      31 January 2012

    • C. 

      4 December 2011

    • D. 

      31 December 2011

  • 20. 
    Assessments of the installation drug testing program must be performed at least?
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Bi-annually

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Every two years

  • 21. 
    For the drug demand reduction program, an audit of collection procedures at a GSU is required at least
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Bi-annually

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Every two years

  • 22. 
    While TJAG is responsible for the Legal Assistance and Preventive Law Program Air Force-wide, who is responsible for monitoring the program?
    • A. 

      Community Legal Services Division (AFLOA/JACA)

    • B. 

      MAJCOM Staff Judge Advocate

    • C. 

      NAF Staff Judge Advocate

    • D. 

      Base staff judge advocate

  • 23. 
    To ensure mission readiness, who may add requirements for mobilization and deployment related legal assistance?
    • A. 

      Base staff judge advocates

    • B. 

      TJAG

    • C. 

      NAF staff judge advocates

    • D. 

      MAJCOM staff judge advocates

  • 24. 
    Once you have determined that a client is eligible for legal assistance, what is your next step?
    • A. 

      Ask if they have retained a civilian attorney

    • B. 

      Check to see if a legal assistance attorney is available

    • C. 

      Make copies of all documents they brought with them

    • D. 

      Enter their personal information into the WebLIONS

  • 25. 
    In determining eligibility of legal assisantce you find the client has hired a civilian attorney, what is your immediate response?
    • A. 

      Defer to the SJA for a decision on the matter

    • B. 

      Refer the client to their civilian attorney

    • C. 

      Refer them to another agency on base

    • D. 

      Sign them in for legal assistance

  • 26. 
    After you have entered or verified a client's information for their legal assistance appointment in the WebLIONS, what is your next step?
    • A. 

      Select the "client waiting list" button

    • B. 

      Select the "complete AF 1175 inputs" button

    • C. 

      Select either the "all open visits" or "your open vists" button

    • D. 

      Select either the "legal assistance" or "documents/notaries" button

  • 27. 
    When producing a POA in the WebLIONS, after you've entered all the information required for the power of attorney, your next step is to select the
    • A. 

      "produce POA" button

    • B. 

      "print POA" button

    • C. 

      "submit" button

    • D. 

      "next" button

  • 28. 
    When producing a POA in the WebLIONS for a client on the waiting list, the first step from the "actions" drop down menu is to select
    • A. 

      "all open vists"

    • B. 

      "your open vists"

    • C. 

      "client waiting list"

    • D. 

      "POA office setup"

  • 29. 
    Which WebLIONS report lists all legal assistance activities, grades and services of clients served, and services broken down by subject?
    • A. 

      Notary report

    • B. 

      Annual report

    • C. 

      Workload report

    • D. 

      Client saving report

  • 30. 
    What additional identifiers should be included on a notary's raised seal or inked stamp to ensure notarized documents are accepted as authentic?
    • A. 

      "U.S Air Force and Judge Advocate"

    • B. 

      "U.S Air Force and Authentic"

    • C. 

      "U.S Air Force and Paralegal"

    • D. 

      "U.S Air Force and Civilian"

  • 31. 
    A notary act should be performed when the client
    • A. 

      Makes changes to their will

    • B. 

      Requires a copy of their birth certificate

    • C. 

      Has a completed document signed in your presence

    • D. 

      Has a completed document not signed in your presence

  • 32. 
    When drafting a last will and testament, what term describes when a gift fails or goes away?
    • A. 

      Issue

    • B. 

      Adeem

    • C. 

      Devise

    • D. 

      Bequeath

  • 33. 
    When drafting a last will and testament, what term describes all the possessions of one who has died that are subject to probate administration and distribution to heirs and beneficiaries?
    • A. 

      Estate

    • B. 

      Domicile

    • C. 

      Real property

    • D. 

      Personal propert

  • 34. 
    Once a client provides you with his/her ticket number, what do you log into in order to access his/her Will and Advance Medical Directive worksheet?
    • A. 

      The DL Wills Program

    • B. 

      The Air Force Legal Assisstance administration site

    • C. 

      The JAGUARS

    • D. 

      The WebLIONS

  • 35. 
    Who supervises and manages the tax assistance program at base level?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • C. 

      Squadron Commander

    • D. 

      Chief of legal assistance

  • 36. 
    When is the final report for tax filing due?
    • A. 

      March

    • B. 

      June

    • C. 

      September

    • D. 

      December

  • 37. 
    Under which area of the preventive law program would the importance of preparing a will be stressed?
    • A. 

      Legal assistance and consumer protection

    • B. 

      Deployment readiness preparation

    • C. 

      Commander awareness

    • D. 

      Reports

  • 38. 
    Which category is not a part of the US Air Force LAWS?
    • A. 

      Legal information

    • B. 

      Legal worksheets

    • C. 

      Online survey

    • D. 

      Reports

  • 39. 
    After an inquiry or investigation is completed, what type of report provides for a logical step-by-step layout?
    • A. 

      Report of review

    • B. 

      Report of inquiry

    • C. 

      Report of investigation

    • D. 

      Report of facts and circumstances

  • 40. 
    A conscientious objector who sincerely objects to participation as a combatant in war in any form, but whose convictions or beliefs will permit him or her to serve in a noncombatant status is classified as
    • A. 

      Class 1-0

    • B. 

      Class 1-A-0

    • C. 

      Class 1-B-0

    • D. 

      Class 1-C-0

  • 41. 
    If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his or her conscientious objector status without good reason, then the member
    • A. 

      Has waived his or her rights to be present at the hearing

    • B. 

      Has the option of appearing in a private hearing

    • C. 

      Can request another hearing at a later date

    • D. 

      Can submit a waiver at a later date

  • 42. 
    Upon receipt of the final record in a conscientious objector case, if the applicant does not submit a rebuttal within 15 calendar days from receipt of the record, then the member
    • A. 

      Can submit a rebuttal up to 30 calendar days late

    • B. 

      Can request a rehearing

    • C. 

      Can request an extension

    • D. 

      Loses the right to rebuttal

  • 43. 
    Under Article 138, UCMJ, if a complaint is properly submitted and the commander refuses the redress, the next option for the member is to submit  the complaint
    • A. 

      Directly to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction

    • B. 

      Directly to the inspector general

    • C. 

      To the equal employment office

    • D. 

      To their congressman

  • 44. 
    If congress requests a release of information that must be disclosed only with the consent of the SecAF, then the information is
    • A. 

      Classified

    • B. 

      For official use only

    • C. 

      Privacy act information

    • D. 

      Information for congressional constituents

  • 45. 
    If you receive a written congressional inquiry within the CONUS, which of the following must happen within 24 hours of receipt?
    • A. 

      The inquiry must be answered

    • B. 

      The inquiry must be forwarded to the proper agency

    • C. 

      Fax a copy of a written inquiry to the Legislative Liaison Inquiry Division (SAF/LLI)

    • D. 

      Fax a copy of a written inquiry to TJAG

  • 46. 
    If you are performing an investigation to preserve available evidence for use in claims, litigation, disciplinary actions, administrative proceedings, then you are performing a(n)
    • A. 

      Article 32, UCMJ, investigation

    • B. 

      Accident investigation

    • C. 

      Claims investigation

    • D. 

      Safety invesitgation

  • 47. 
    At a minimum,  each AIB shall be composed of a
    • A. 

      President and a recorder

    • B. 

      President and a legal advisor

    • C. 

      Legal advisor and a reporter

    • D. 

      Legal advisor and a recorder

  • 48. 
    When an AIB is convened, the accident report must be completed within what maximum number of calendar days after receipt of the completed Part I SIB report?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      45

  • 49. 
    Who normally fulfills the duties of a recorder for an AIB?
    • A. 

      Paralegal

    • B. 

      Judge Advocate

    • C. 

      An officer in the rank of Colonel or above

    • D. 

      An enlisted member what a background in maintenance

  • 50. 
    What is a request for information regarding government records called?
    • A. 

      FOIA request

    • B. 

      DA request

    • C. 

      BRs request

    • D. 

      PA request

  • 51. 
    If you receive a request for information regarding records that pertain to an individual, you have received a
    • A. 

      FOIA request

    • B. 

      DA request

    • C. 

      BR request

    • D. 

      PA request

  • 52. 
    Which of the following types of information will not be made available for use in litgation?
    • A. 

      Personal

    • B. 

      Privileged

    • C. 

      Confidential

    • D. 

      For Official Use Only

  • 53. 
    Upon receiving a request for release of information for litigation, which is not an option of the SJA?
    • A. 

      Consult the Operations & International Law Directorate (HQ USAF/JAO)

    • B. 

      Forward the request to the appropriate authority to deny

    • C. 

      Consult the US attorney

    • D. 

      Approve the request

  • 54. 
    During a LOD determination, at a minimum, what document must be completed in every case where a member dies on active duty?
    • A. 

      AF Form 348

    • B. 

      AF Form 1075

    • C. 

      DD Form 261

    • D. 

      DD Form 1077

  • 55. 
    What is the first step in the LOD determination process?
    • A. 

      Legal office review

    • B. 

      Medical officer's review

    • C. 

      Investigation by security forces

    • D. 

      Commander directed investigation

  • 56. 
    Who takes final action on a LOD determination case?
    • A. 

      Member's commander

    • B. 

      SJA

    • C. 

      Appointing authority

    • D. 

      Approving authority

  • 57. 
    What form is used to record and present facts in support of a determination of financial liability and to adjust property control records?
    • A. 

      AF 262

    • B. 

      AF 1063

    • C. 

      DD Form 1342

    • D. 

      DD Form 200

  • 58. 
    What situation would require a mandatory ROS?
    • A. 

      Items become unserviceable due to fair wear and tear

    • B. 

      Loss, damage, or destruction is caused by Acts of God

    • C. 

      Lost hand tools or other pilferable items over $100 unit cost or $500 total cost

    • D. 

      Air Force property is damaged from operation of privately owned vehicles, boats, aircraft, or conveyances

  • 59. 
    Who is responsible for the custody, care, and safekeeping of Air Force property and can be held financially liable for failure to exercise this obligation?
    • A. 

      Property custodian

    • B. 

      Responsible officer

    • C. 

      Accountable officer

    • D. 

      Financial liability officer

  • 60. 
    After reviewing a request for off-duty employment in which you detect possible ethics concerns, what action should you take?
    • A. 

      Dissaprove the request and send a courtsey copy to the SJA

    • B. 

      Contact the off-duty employment manager

    • C. 

      File a financial disclosure

    • D. 

      Draft a brief legal review

  • 61. 
    Which of the following is the first step in preparing for a magistrate court case?
    • A. 

      Determine jurisdiction

    • B. 

      Assemble the court file

    • C. 

      Request a report of investigation

    • D. 

      Request a copy of the DD Form 1805

  • 62. 
    What type of jurisdiction allows for both the federal and state government to have jurisdiction over offenses committed on the installation?
    • A. 

      Foregin

    • B. 

      Exclusive

    • C. 

      Concurrent

    • D. 

      Proprietary

  • 63. 
    The first step in assembling a magistrate court file is
    • A. 

      Tab the file A through Z

    • B. 

      Put the cover sheet on the file

    • C. 

      Obtain a copy of the report of investigation

    • D. 

      Obtain the defendants federal magistrate court consent form

  • 64. 
    In a federal magistrate court case, immediately following arraignment on petty offense where the defendant pleads guilty, the magistrate will
    • A. 

      Impose a sentence

    • B. 

      Set a date for sentencing

    • C. 

      Assign a public defender to the accused

    • D. 

      Request a presentencing report from Pre-Trial Services

  • 65. 
    Who is responsible for adminstering the host-tenant support agreement program?
    • A. 

      Receiver SAM

    • B. 

      SJA

    • C. 

      Installation commander

    • D. 

      Installation supplier SAM

  • 66. 
    In a joint command, if NJP is imposed on an Air Force member by a commander of a different service, the decision as to collateral administrative action will be made by the
    • A. 

      Commander that imposed the NJP

    • B. 

      Commander of the member's home station

    • C. 

      SPCMCA of the member's home station

    • D. 

      Senior Air Force officer or commander of the Air Force element in the joint command

  • 67. 
    The Contract Disputes Act obligates the contractor to
    • A. 

      Continue performance pending final resolution of a dispute

    • B. 

      Continue performance only after final resolution of the dispute

    • C. 

      Complete the contractual terms regardless of any disputes

    • D. 

      Complete the contractual terms as modified by interim agreement

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      Send the report directly to his/her supervisor for review

    • B. 

      Sign the report and send it to his/her supervisor for review

    • C. 

      Send the report directly to the installation legal office

    • D. 

      Sign the report and send it to the installation legal office

  • 69. 
    What is the final step in the SF 278?
    • A. 

      The Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge of General Law signs as the agency reviewer

    • B. 

      Priority Mail the form to the Deputy General Counsel, Fiscal, Ethics, and Civilian Personnel (SAF/GCA)

    • C. 

      The SJA signs as agency reviewer

    • D. 

      Express Mail the form to SAF/GCA

  • 70. 
    Using the Agency Ethics Reporting System, the first step in creating your ethics report for the current year is to select the
    • A. 

      "creat/modify current year Agency Ethics Report" option

    • B. 

      "Agency Ethics" option

    • C. 

      "submit report" option

    • D. 

      "open record" option

  • 71. 
    Before travel payments are accepted from a non-federal source, the
    • A. 

      Designated agency ethics official must grant approval

    • B. 

      Travel approving authority must grant approval

    • C. 

      Base SJA must grant approval

    • D. 

      Member's command must grant approval

  • 72. 
    In an Equal Employment Opportunity case, if a complaint is unable to be resolved at the informal complaint stage, the counselor will
    • A. 

      Issue an NOFI letter

    • B. 

      Forward the case to the installation legal office

    • C. 

      Inform the complainant of his/her right to file suit in US District Court

    • D. 

      Forward the case to the AFCARO

  • 73. 
    In a MSPB proceeding, what maximum number of days from the effective date of the adverse action does a complainant have to file an appeal with the MSPB?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      45

  • 74. 
    What statute requires administrative or criminal sanctions for the misuse of appropriated funds?
    • A. 

      Authorization Act

    • B. 

      Accountability Act

    • C. 

      Appropriations Act

    • D. 

      Anti-Deficiency Act

  • 75. 
    What is the period of time for which approproations are available for obligating O&M funds?
    • A. 

      One year

    • B. 

      Two years

    • C. 

      Three years

    • D. 

      Five years

  • 76. 
    What statute prohibits obligations or expenditures in excess of or in advance of an appropriation?
    • A. 

      31 U.S.C. 1341

    • B. 

      31 U.S.C. 1512

    • C. 

      31 U.S.C. 1514

    • D. 

      31 U.S.C. 1517

  • 77. 
    If you are involved in critical national or international situations, then what type of report must you submit?
    • A. 

      Special interest report

    • B. 

      Investigation report

    • C. 

      AAR

    • D. 

      SITREP

  • 78. 
    Which sister service does not have a paralegal career field?
    • A. 

      Army

    • B. 

      Navy

    • C. 

      Marines

    • D. 

      Coast Guard

  • 79. 
    What must be considered when the US Armed Forces deploy to a foreign country?
    • A. 

      Currency rate

    • B. 

      International law

    • C. 

      Country's location

    • D. 

      United States laws only

  • 80. 
    When the authority for an international agreement falls under the  MAJCOM, to whom must it be submitted for concurrence?
    • A. 

      SecAF

    • B. 

      MAJCOM SJA

    • C. 

      Assistant Legal Advisor for Treaty Affairs

    • D. 

      Chief, Headquarters United States Air Force, Operations and International Law Directorate

  • 81. 
    Which type of SOFA is accomplished through an exchange of diplomatic notes?
    • A. 

      Full-SOFA

    • B. 

      Mini-SOFA

    • C. 

      Administrative and Technical Staff

    • D. 

      Ambassador Executive Leadership Staff

  • 82. 
    All SOFAs except for the NATO SOFA are considered
    • A. 

      Formal treaties

    • B. 

      Multilateral

    • C. 

      Reciprocal

    • D. 

      Bilateral

  • 83. 
    Who has overall responsibility for implementing status of forces policies and procedures in each foreign country?
    • A. 

      US Ambassador

    • B. 

      Secretary of State

    • C. 

      DCO

    • D. 

      JFACC

  • 84. 
    What report is a statistical summary of all cases involving jurisdiction over US personnel?
    • A. 

      Trial observer report

    • B. 

      Serious indient report

    • C. 

      Montly visitation report

    • D. 

      Annual foreign criminal jurisdiction report

  • 85. 
    Who is the principal air advisor to the JFC?
    • A. 

      JTFAC

    • B. 

      COMAFFOR

    • C. 

      JFACC

    • D. 

      JAOCC

  • 86. 
    What is the highest ranking Air Force officer assigned to a JFC at the unified, subnified, and joint task force level?
    • A. 

      COMAFFOR

    • B. 

      JTFCC

    • C. 

      JFACC

    • D. 

      CFACC

  • 87. 
    Which legal support functional competency is the ablity to provide the war fighter with the complete set of legal capabilities at any place at any time?
    • A. 

      Operational readiness

    • B. 

      Authoritative counsel

    • C. 

      Legal information mastery

    • D. 

      Compelling advocacy and litigation

  • 88. 
    If a commander requests supplemental ROE, then the request must be classified at least
    • A. 

      Secret

    • B. 

      Top Secret

    • C. 

      Confidential

    • D. 

      For Official Use Only

  • 89. 
    When determining ROE, where is the place you need to check first and foremost?
    • A. 

      SROE

    • B. 

      SPINS

    • C. 

      Theater Specific ROE

    • D. 

      Mission Specific ROE

  • 90. 
    Which LOAC principle prohibits the use of any kind or degree of force that exceeds that needed to accomplish the military objective?
    • A. 

      Distinction

    • B. 

      Proportionality

    • C. 

      Military necessity

    • D. 

      Rules of engagement

  • 91. 
    Air Force chaplains are considered
    • A. 

      Combatants

    • B. 

      Noncombatants

    • C. 

      Lawful combatants

    • D. 

      Unlawful combatants

  • 92. 
    Which Task Force(s) did legal personnel deploy to ensure detainees in US custody were afforded due process?
    • A. 

      Task Force 134 in Iraq and 435 in Afghanistan

    • B. 

      Task Force 134 in Iraq only

    • C. 

      Combined Joint Task Force 76 and 151

    • D. 

      Combined Joint Task Force 76 only

  • 93. 
    Within what maximum number of days must a DRB review a detainee's status once the detainee is transferred to a theater detention facility?
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      45 days

    • C. 

      60 days

    • D. 

      90 days

  • 94. 
    Which of the following have historically been used to prosecute enemy combatants who violate the Laws of War?
    • A. 

      ICRC

    • B. 

      CCCI

    • C. 

      ICC

    • D. 

      Military Commissions

  • 95. 
    Which agency is responsible for the protection or evacuation of US citizens and nationals abroad?
    • A. 

      DOS

    • B. 

      DOD

    • C. 

      CIA

    • D. 

      FBI

  • 96. 
    What peace operation is a diplomatic process aimed at establishing a cease fire or an otherwise peacful settlement of conflict?
    • A. 

      Peace enforcement

    • B. 

      Peace building

    • C. 

      Peacekeeping

    • D. 

      Peacemaking

  • 97. 
    Which type of operation is conducted outside of the US to relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters?
    • A. 

      Humanitarian assistance

    • B. 

      Peace building

    • C. 

      Peacekeeping

    • D. 

      Peacemaking

  • 98. 
    When working with contracting issues, when should you use an LOGCAP/AFCAP contract?
    • A. 

      When the contract is under $250,000

    • B. 

      When the contract is under $100,00

    • C. 

      As the first option

    • D. 

      As a last resort

  • 99. 
    What is the first step in considering local purchasing for supplies or services?
    • A. 

      What type of contract to utilize

    • B. 

      How much money you need to spend

    • C. 

      Which type of supplies or services are needed

    • D. 

      Who will be using the supplies or services needed

  • 100. 
    What provides the framework for organizing the efforts of federal, state, local, and private organizations for national security?
    • A. 

      SOFA

    • B. 

      MSCA

    • C. 

      NSHS

    • D. 

      FEMA

  • 101. 
    What joint command was created to unify the military defense of our homeland, coordinate the Department of Defense's assistance with civil authorities, and protect the US and its territories?
    • A. 

      USPACOM

    • B. 

      USSPACECOM

    • C. 

      USSTRATCOM

    • D. 

      USNORTHCOM