5j0x1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 1

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  • 1/40 Questions

    Congress established TJAG on

    • 7 December 1941
    • 18 September 1947
    • 25 June 1948
    • 8 September 1948
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5j0x1 Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The 5J0X1 Paralegal Quiz Volume 1 assesses knowledge on key dates and procedures within the Air Force legal system, including TJAG's establishment and operational guidelines. It's designed for individuals involved in or studying military legal services, enhancing understanding of Air Force legal operations.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following statements concerning TJAG's Corps is accurate?

    • General James C. Cheney was appointed the first TJAG

    • General Reginald C. Harmon was appointed as the second TJAG

    • General James C. Cheney established TJAG's Department, 25 January 1949

    • The Air Force Chief of Staff established TJAG's Department, 25 January 1949

    Correct Answer
    A. The Air Force Chief of Staff established TJAG's Department, 25 January 1949
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Air Force Chief of Staff established TJAG's Department on 25 January 1949. This means that General James C. Cheney was not the one who established TJAG's Department as stated in the first statement. Additionally, there is no information provided about General Reginald C. Harmon being appointed as the second TJAG, so this statement cannot be confirmed.

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  • 3. 

    The ADC program went into effect worldwide on

    • 1 January 1972

    • 1 March 1973

    • 1 July 1974

    • 1 October 1975

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 July 1974
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1 July 1974 because this is the date when the ADC program went into effect worldwide. This means that starting from this date, the ADC program was implemented and operational in all countries around the world.

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  • 4. 

    Which one of the following is not a prerequisite for a person to be selected as TJAG?

    • Must be a lawyer

    • Must have at least eight years experience in legal duties as a commissioned officer

    • Must be a member of a bar of a federal court or the highest court of a state or territory

    • Must be appointed by the Air Force Chief of Staff with the advice and consent of the Joint Staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Must be appointed by the Air Force Chief of Staff with the advice and consent of the Joint Staff
    Explanation
    The given answer states that being appointed by the Air Force Chief of Staff with the advice and consent of the Joint Staff is not a prerequisite for a person to be selected as TJAG. This means that this requirement is not necessary for someone to be selected as TJAG.

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  • 5. 

    What Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides guidance on TJAG awards?

    • AFI 36-2803, AF Awards

    • AFI 36-2808, Outstanding Young Judge Advocate

    • AFI 2809, Air Reserve Component Judge Advocate of the Year

    • AFI 36-2855, Judge Adovcate General Awards

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 36-2855, Judge Adovcate General Awards
    Explanation
    AFI 36-2855, Judge Advocate General Awards, provides guidance on TJAG (The Judge Advocate General) awards. This instruction outlines the criteria and procedures for recognizing and awarding outstanding Judge Advocates within the Air Force. It includes information on various awards, eligibility requirements, nomination processes, and evaluation criteria. By referring to this AFI, individuals can understand the specific guidelines and standards for TJAG awards within the Air Force.

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  • 6. 

    Nominations for any of TJAG awards must be submitted on

    • AF Form 1206, Nomination for Award

    • AF Form 1000, Award Nomination

    • Plain bond paper

    • Appropriate MAJCOM form

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1206, Nomination for Award
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 1206, Nomination for Award. This is because the question asks for the form that must be used for nominations for any of TJAG awards. The other options mentioned, AF Form 1000, Award Nomination, plain bond paper, and appropriate MAJCOM form, are not specified as the required forms for TJAG awards nominations. Therefore, AF Form 1206 is the correct answer.

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  • 7. 

    What must the people you supervise do in order to successfully accomplish the mission?

    • Work within time constraints

    • Understand training schedules

    • Be able to understand the mission at hand

    • Produce high-quality work in a timely manner

    Correct Answer
    A. Produce high-quality work in a timely manner
    Explanation
    To successfully accomplish the mission, the people you supervise must produce high-quality work in a timely manner. This means that they need to not only complete their tasks within the given time constraints but also ensure that the work they produce meets the required standards of quality. Simply working within time constraints or understanding training schedules may not be sufficient if the work produced is not up to par. Additionally, being able to understand the mission at hand is important for overall clarity and alignment, but it is the actual production of high-quality work within the given timeframe that directly contributes to mission accomplishment.

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  • 8. 

    Your efforts as a supervisor will be judged in terms of how well you meet the requirements and by

    • The morale and production of your workers

    • The amount of corrections your subordinates' work requires

    • Your subordinates attitude towards your decisions on priorities

    • The volume and quality of production achieved within the established time limits

    Correct Answer
    A. The volume and quality of production achieved within the established time limits
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the volume and quality of production achieved within the established time limits." This answer suggests that the supervisor's performance will be evaluated based on the level of productivity and the quality of work produced by their team within the given time constraints. It implies that meeting the requirements alone is not sufficient, but also achieving high levels of production and maintaining quality standards are important factors in evaluating a supervisor's performance.

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  • 9. 

    As a manager, what is your primary concern

    • Being impartial

    • Obtaining results

    • Setting job priorities

    • Being interested in subordinate welfare

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtaining results
    Explanation
    As a manager, obtaining results is the primary concern because the success of the team and the organization depends on achieving goals and objectives. While being impartial, setting job priorities, and being interested in subordinate welfare are also important aspects of being a manager, ultimately, the main focus should be on delivering results and driving performance.

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  • 10. 

    With new arrivals, what should you do first?

    • Do a good initial in-brief

    • Introduce new arrivals to their office co-workers

    • Ensure the new arrivals have a comfortable place to live

    • Explain work center policies and procedures so new arrivals know what to expect.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure the new arrivals have a comfortable place to live
  • 11. 

    Why is it important to keep your information up-to-date in the WebFLITE Roster?

    • Your supervisor uses the information when writing evaluations

    • TJAG and MAJCOM offices use it to prepare for SAVs

    • AFLOA uses it to order books for the law library

    • MAJCOM and NAF offices use it to prepare for SAVs

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM and NAF offices use it to prepare for SAVs
    Explanation
    Keeping your information up-to-date in the WebFLITE Roster is important because MAJCOM and NAF offices use it to prepare for SAVs. SAVs, or Staff Assistance Visits, are conducted to assess the compliance and effectiveness of units in various areas. By having accurate and current information in the WebFLITE Roster, MAJCOM and NAF offices can ensure that they have the most up-to-date and relevant information about the unit they are assessing. This allows them to properly prepare for the SAV and make informed decisions based on accurate data.

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  • 12. 

    Through what web page can indiviuals gain access to the WebFLITE Roster?

    • TJAG home page

    • AF Portal home page

    • AFLOA's home page

    • Your office's Webdocs page

    Correct Answer
    A. TJAG home page
    Explanation
    Individuals can gain access to the WebFLITE Roster through the TJAG home page.

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  • 13. 

    As a new paralegal, what is the first thing you should do in the WebFLITE Roster?

    • Certify your roster information

    • Ensure your personal data is correct

    • Upload your photograph and biography

    • Match your data to the UMPR

    Correct Answer
    A. Upload your photograph and biography
    Explanation
    As a new paralegal, the first thing you should do in the WebFLITE Roster is to upload your photograph and biography. This is important because it allows others to easily identify you and learn more about your background and expertise. It helps in building professional connections and establishing your credibility within the legal community.

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  • 14. 

    If a SSgt Category A Reservist has an accession date of 1 September 2010, the first EPR is due by 1 September of what year?

    • 2010

    • 2011

    • 2012

    • 2013

    Correct Answer
    A. 2012
    Explanation
    The first EPR (Enlisted Performance Report) is due by 1 September of the following year after the accession date. In this case, the SSgt Category A Reservist's accession date is 1 September 2010, so the first EPR is due by 1 September 2011. Therefore, the correct answer is 2011.

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  • 15. 

    As a minimum, how long is an Air National Guard member required to work in an active duty office?

    • At least two weeks every four years

    • At least two weeks every three years

    • At least three weeks every four years

    • AT least four weeks every three years

    Correct Answer
    A. At least two weeks every four years
    Explanation
    An Air National Guard member is required to work in an active duty office for at least two weeks every four years. This means that they must dedicate a minimum of two weeks of their time to perform active duty duties within a four-year period. This requirement ensures that Air National Guard members maintain their readiness and stay current with their training and responsibilities.

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  • 16. 

     In which section of the CFETP do you find a list of training objectives to be trained in the formal school?

    • Section A, Part I

    • Section B, Part I

    • Section A, Part II

    • Section B, Part II

    Correct Answer
    A. Section B, Part II
    Explanation
    In Section B, Part II of the CFETP, you can find a list of training objectives that are to be trained in the formal school. This section provides detailed information about the specific objectives that need to be covered during formal training, helping to ensure that all necessary skills and knowledge are imparted to the trainees.

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  • 17. 

    Where would you look to identify the most common enlisted Air Force specialty tasks that require training?

    • JQS

    • STS

    • CDC

    • AF Form 623a

    Correct Answer
    A. STS
    Explanation
    STS stands for Specialty Training Standard, which is a document that outlines the specific tasks and knowledge required for a particular Air Force specialty. It provides a comprehensive list of the most common enlisted Air Force specialty tasks that require training. Therefore, if you want to identify these tasks, you would look in the STS.

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  • 18. 

    What is the primary source a supervisor uses to select tasks to develop indiviual JQS?

    • Master task list

    • Master training plan

    • STS

    • CFETP

    Correct Answer
    A. Master task list
    Explanation
    A supervisor uses the Master task list as the primary source to select tasks to develop individual JQS. The Master task list provides a comprehensive list of all the tasks that need to be performed within a specific job or position. By referring to the Master task list, a supervisor can identify the specific tasks that are relevant to an individual's job and select them for inclusion in their JQS. This ensures that the JQS accurately reflects the tasks and skills required for the job and helps in the development of individuals' competency and proficiency.

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  • 19. 

    What is the first thing that should be done to an indiviuals training record after the trainee achieves the required job proficiency level of a task?

    • The trainee initials the task in the AF Form 623

    • The trainer initials and dates the task in the AF Form 623

    • The trainer signs off the task in the MTL

    • The trainee initials the task in the CFETP

    Correct Answer
    A. The trainer initials and dates the task in the AF Form 623
    Explanation
    After the trainee achieves the required job proficiency level of a task, the first thing that should be done to their training record is that the trainer initials and dates the task in the AF Form 623. This is important to document and verify that the trainee has successfully completed the task and is proficient in it. The AF Form 623 serves as a record of the trainee's training progress and accomplishments, and the trainer's initials and date provide evidence of the task completion.

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  • 20. 

    What is the first component of the AF OJT program?

    • Upgrade training

    • Qualification training

    • Job knowledge training

    • Career knowledge training

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualification training
    Explanation
    The first component of the AF OJT program is qualification training. This type of training focuses on providing individuals with the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their specific job duties. It is designed to ensure that trainees meet the required qualifications and standards for their position. By completing qualification training, individuals can demonstrate their competence and readiness to perform their job effectively.

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  • 21. 

    Airmen who have been upgraded in their specialties receive additional training through which program?

    • Upgrade training

    • Qualification training

    • Job knowledge training

    • Career knowledge training

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualification training
    Explanation
    Airmen who have been upgraded in their specialties receive additional training through qualification training. This program helps them further develop their skills and knowledge in their specific field, ensuring they are fully qualified and capable of performing their upgraded duties effectively. Upgrade training may refer to the initial training received when first entering a specialty, while job knowledge training and career knowledge training may focus on broader aspects of airmen's careers rather than specific qualifications in their specialties.

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  • 22. 

    What needs to be considered before you recommend an individual for training?

    • Job requirements

    • Manpower requirements

    • Proficiency requirements

    • Qualification requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Job requirements
    Explanation
    Before recommending an individual for training, it is important to consider the job requirements. This includes understanding the specific skills, knowledge, and abilities needed to perform the job successfully. By assessing the job requirements, you can ensure that the individual being recommended for training has the necessary qualifications and capabilities to benefit from the training and apply the acquired skills effectively in their role. Considering job requirements also helps in aligning the training program with the specific needs of the job and maximizing its impact on individual and organizational performance.

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  • 23. 

    When assuming LLAO duties, the first thing that must be done is to complete an inventory along with

    • An AF Form 614

    • An AF Form 1025

    • An AF Form 1175

    • A certificate of transfer

    Correct Answer
    A. A certificate of transfer
    Explanation
    The first thing that must be done when assuming LLAO duties is to complete an inventory along with a certificate of transfer. This suggests that the inventory is not sufficient on its own and must be accompanied by a certificate of transfer. The certificate of transfer likely serves as a formal document to acknowledge the transfer of responsibility and ownership of the items listed in the inventory. It ensures accountability and provides a record of the transfer process. The AF Form 614, AF Form 1025, and AF Form 1175 are not mentioned in relation to assuming LLAO duties, so they are not the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    What must be updated after you receive books purchased by AFLOA/JAS?

    • Card Catalog

    • Shelflist cards

    • Locally developed computer applications

    • NetRAMS

    Correct Answer
    A. NetRAMS
    Explanation
    After receiving books purchased by AFLOA/JAS, it is necessary to update NetRAMS. NetRAMS is a computerized system used for managing and tracking the inventory of books and other materials. By updating NetRAMS, the library can ensure that the information regarding the newly acquired books is accurately recorded, allowing for efficient organization and retrieval of these resources.

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  • 25. 

    What is the first thing you should complete if publications are missing during the law library inventory?

    • A DD Form 200

    • A Report of Survey

    • A thorough inspection of the office

    • A replacement of Lost/Missing Law Library Publication(s) Memorandum

    Correct Answer
    A. A thorough inspection of the office
    Explanation
    If publications are missing during the law library inventory, the first thing that should be done is a thorough inspection of the office. This is important because it allows for a comprehensive search of the entire office space to locate any missing publications. By conducting a thorough inspection, it increases the chances of finding the missing publications before resorting to other measures such as filling out a DD Form 200 or a Report of Survey.

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  • 26. 

    What is the first step in the process of deactivating a law library account due to the closing of an installation legal office?

    • Installation law office manager notifies AFLOA/JAS 12 months in advance

    • NAF legal office notifies AFLOA/JAS 12 months in advance

    • MAJCOM legal office notifies AFLOA/JAS 12 months in advance

    • Installation LLAO notifies AFLOA/JAS 12 months in advance

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM legal office notifies AFLOA/JAS 12 months in advance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MAJCOM legal office notifies AFLOA/JAS 12 months in advance. This is the first step in the process of deactivating a law library account due to the closing of an installation legal office. The MAJCOM legal office is responsible for informing AFLOA/JAS (Air Force Legal Operations Agency/Judge Advocate General) about the closure of the installation legal office, providing them with a 12-month notice. This allows AFLOA/JAS to take the necessary actions and make arrangements for the deactivation of the law library account.

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  • 27. 

    For guidance on preparing for an Article 6 inspection, you should review and be familiar with

    • TJAG Policy Memorandum: TJAG Standards-6

    • TJAG Policy Memorandum: TJAG Guidance-5

    • Article 6, Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

    • 10 U.S.C 8037 (c)(2)

    Correct Answer
    A. TJAG Policy Memorandum: TJAG Standards-6
    Explanation
    To prepare for an Article 6 inspection, it is important to review and be familiar with the TJAG Policy Memorandum: TJAG Standards-6. This memorandum likely contains the specific standards and guidelines that will be evaluated during the inspection. By reviewing this document, individuals can ensure that they are meeting the necessary requirements and can address any potential areas of improvement before the inspection takes place.

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  • 28. 

    When may a paralegal represent a client?

    • Never

    • In a civilian court

    • In a court-martial

    • In a formal administrative proceeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    A paralegal may never represent a client because they are not licensed attorneys. Paralegals are trained professionals who assist attorneys in various legal tasks, such as conducting research, preparing legal documents, and organizing case files. However, they are not authorized to provide legal advice or represent clients in court. Only licensed attorneys have the authority to represent clients and advocate on their behalf in legal proceedings. Therefore, a paralegal's role is limited to supporting attorneys rather than directly representing clients.

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  • 29. 

    When may a paralegal disclose attorney-client privilege information?

    • With permission fromt the attorney

    • With permission from the SJA

    • With premission from TJAG

    • Never

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    A paralegal may never disclose attorney-client privilege information. Attorney-client privilege is a legal concept that protects the confidentiality of communications between an attorney and their client. It allows clients to freely discuss their case with their attorney without fear of those discussions being revealed to others. Paralegals, as members of the legal team, are bound by the same duty of confidentiality and are prohibited from disclosing privileged information without the client's consent. This ensures that clients can trust their legal team to keep their discussions private and promotes open and honest communication between attorneys and clients.

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  • 30. 

    What is one of the reasons that congress enacted HIPAA?

    • To support the core functions of medical treatment and coverage

    • To improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage

    • To standardize the electronic exchange of medical administrative and financial data.

    • To allow the health information of an individual to be freely used for treatment and health care.

    Correct Answer
    A. To improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage
    Explanation
    Congress enacted HIPAA to improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage. This means that individuals are able to maintain their health insurance coverage even when they change jobs or have a gap in coverage. HIPAA also ensures that individuals are not denied coverage or charged higher premiums based on their health status. By enacting HIPAA, Congress aimed to provide individuals with more stability and flexibility in their health insurance coverage, ultimately improving access to healthcare services.

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  • 31. 

    A MTF must receive a written request to suspend tracking of information request on a deceased individual within how many days?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    A MTF must receive a written request to suspend tracking of information request on a deceased individual within 30 days. This time frame allows for timely processing of the request and ensures that the MTF can suspend tracking and take appropriate actions regarding the deceased individual's information.

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  • 32. 

    If an employee is using a government property to further the organication's mission, then that use of government property is considered to be

    • Official

    • Unofficial

    • Authorized

    • Nonmission essential

    Correct Answer
    A. Official
    Explanation
    If an employee is using a government property to further the organization's mission, then that use of government property is considered to be official. This means that the employee is using the property in a manner that is approved and sanctioned by the organization for the purpose of carrying out their official duties and responsibilities.

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  • 33. 

    The first supervisor in the chain of command, whether a commissioned officer or civilan above general schedule (GS)/ general manager (GM)-11, is the individual to seek aprroval for

    • Volunteering for nongovernment sanctioned activities during duty hours

    • Volunteering for government sanctioned acvtivities during duty hours

    • Using government property for limited personal use

    • Using personal property for government use

    Correct Answer
    A. Using government property for limited personal use
    Explanation
    The first supervisor in the chain of command, whether a commissioned officer or civilian above GS/GM-11, is the individual to seek approval for using government property for limited personal use. This means that if an employee wants to use government property for their personal use, such as borrowing a work laptop for a personal project, they need to get permission from their immediate supervisor who holds the authority to grant or deny such requests. This ensures that the use of government property remains within acceptable limits and is not abused or misused.

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  • 34. 

    If you are researching elements of an offense in the Manual for Court-Martial, you are using

    • Finding tools

    • A case method

    • A primary source

    • A secondary source

    Correct Answer
    A. A primary source
    Explanation
    If you are researching elements of an offense in the Manual for Court-Martial, you are using a primary source. A primary source refers to an original document or firsthand account that provides direct evidence or information about a particular topic. In this case, the Manual for Court-Martial would be considered a primary source as it is the official document that outlines the elements of an offense in the military justice system. It is a reliable and authoritative source of information for legal research in this context.

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  • 35. 

    When conducting manual legal research, what is considered to be a secondary source?

    • The United States Code

    • Black's Law Dictionary

    • The Supreme Court Reporter

    • The Code of Federal Regulations

    Correct Answer
    A. Black's Law Dictionary
    Explanation
    Black's Law Dictionary is considered to be a secondary source when conducting manual legal research. Black's Law Dictionary is a comprehensive legal dictionary that provides definitions and explanations of legal terms and concepts. It is not a primary source of law, such as statutes or court decisions, but rather a reference tool that helps researchers understand and interpret legal language and concepts.

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  • 36. 

    In using the case method to research, if you know the name of the case, what do you use to find the case?

    • Court Martial Reporter

    • Manual for Courts-Martial

    • United States Code, Annotated

    • Table of Cases Reported: Alphabetical Listing

    Correct Answer
    A. Table of Cases Reported: Alphabetical Listing
    Explanation
    To find a case using the case method, one would refer to the "Table of Cases Reported: Alphabetical Listing." This table provides an organized list of cases, allowing researchers to easily locate a specific case by its name. The other options listed, such as the Court Martial Reporter, Manual for Courts-Martial, and United States Code, Annotated, may contain relevant information but do not specifically assist in locating a case by name.

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  • 37. 

    If you are researching a case and need to know how the courts have defined a term for legal purposes, what reference should you use first?

    • Code of Federal Regualtions

    • Words and Phrases publication

    • Uniform Code of Military Justice

    • American Jurisprudence 2d publication

    Correct Answer
    A. Words and Phrases publication
    Explanation
    The Words and Phrases publication should be used first when researching a case to know how the courts have defined a term for legal purposes. This publication provides definitions and interpretations of legal terms as used in court decisions, helping to understand the specific meaning given to a term by the courts. It is a valuable resource for legal research and can provide guidance in understanding the legal context and interpretation of terms in a case.

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  • 38. 

    Once you have found the case on point, what is your next step to shepardize?

    • Find the case in the index

    • Find the case in the topic section

    • Make sure the case is still good law

    • Find the case in the table of contents

    Correct Answer
    A. Make sure the case is still good law
    Explanation
    After finding the case on point, the next step to Shepardize is to make sure the case is still good law. This involves checking if the case has been overturned, reversed, or otherwise invalidated by subsequent legal developments. Shepardizing is a process used in legal research to ensure that the cited case is still valid and can be relied upon as precedent. By confirming that the case is still good law, researchers can ensure the accuracy and relevance of their legal arguments.

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  • 39. 

    What is your first step in CALR when searching for a case?

    • Go to the Area Research Library

    • Access the Federal Cases research section

    • Access the Military Justice research section

    • Access FLITE

    Correct Answer
    A. Access FLITE
    Explanation
    The first step in CALR when searching for a case is to access FLITE. FLITE is a comprehensive legal research tool that provides access to a wide range of legal materials, including cases, statutes, regulations, and secondary sources. By accessing FLITE, users can search for relevant case law by inputting keywords, citations, or other search criteria. This allows users to efficiently locate and retrieve the desired case law for their research purposes.

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  • 40. 

    What is the last paragraph in an enlisted involuntary discharge legal review?

    • Probation and rehabilitation

    • Convening authority's options

    • Legal and procedural sufficiency

    • Staff Judge Advocate's recommendation

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff Judge Advocate's recommendation
    Explanation
    The last paragraph in an enlisted involuntary discharge legal review is the Staff Judge Advocate's recommendation. This recommendation is made by the legal advisor to the commanding officer and provides guidance on whether the discharge should be approved or not. It takes into consideration the legal and procedural sufficiency of the case and provides an expert opinion on the matter.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 17, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Neshanne

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