4a071 HSM - Craftsman

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4a071 HSM - Craftsman - Quiz

Study guide for CDC 7 level exam.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) What is the appropriate access-to-care standard for wellness and health promotions appointments?

    • A.

      24 hours

    • B.

      48 hours

    • C.

      28 days

    • D.

      7 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 28 days
    Explanation
    The appropriate access-to-care standard for wellness and health promotions appointments is 28 days. This means that patients should be able to schedule an appointment for wellness and health promotions within a maximum of 28 days. This allows for timely access to preventive care and promotes overall well-being.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which is not a benefit of using the OA model for booking appointments?

    • A.

      Timely access to care

    • B.

      Increased patient no-show and cancellation rates

    • C.

      Increased provider schedule flexibility

    • D.

      Enhanced patient trust

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased patient no-show and cancellation rates
    Explanation
    Using the OA model for booking appointments offers several benefits, such as timely access to care, increased provider schedule flexibility, and enhanced patient trust. However, increased patient no-show and cancellation rates are not a benefit of using the OA model. In fact, the OA model aims to reduce no-show and cancellation rates by improving appointment scheduling and reminders, optimizing resource allocation, and improving communication between patients and providers.

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  • 3. 

    (001) How often is the P2R2 access metric updated by the MTF point of contact?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Semi-annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The P2R2 access metric is updated on a monthly basis by the MTF point of contact. This means that the metric is reviewed and updated every month, allowing for regular monitoring and assessment of the P2R2 access. This frequent update ensures that any changes or improvements in the access to care can be identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Which report provides a preview of the availability of appointments by appointment type and by provider within a clinic on a given date and time?

    • A.

      Clinic Workload Report

    • B.

      Next Available Appointment Report

    • C.

      Non-show Statistical Report

    • D.

      Patient Cancellation Statistical Report

    Correct Answer
    B. Next Available Appointment Report
    Explanation
    The Next Available Appointment Report provides a preview of the availability of appointments by appointment type and by provider within a clinic on a given date and time. This report helps in determining the next available appointment for patients based on their preferred appointment type and provider. It is useful for clinic staff to efficiently schedule appointments and manage the workload.

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  • 5. 

    (001) Who generates the CHCS access to care summary reports weekly?

    • A.

      MAJOCOM

    • B.

      TOC

    • C.

      AFMS

    • D.

      DOD

    Correct Answer
    B. TOC
    Explanation
    TOC, which stands for Theater Operations Command, generates the CHCS access to care summary reports weekly.

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  • 6. 

    (001) Who uses the TAT to evaluate scheduling dequacy and sufficiency of a MTF's schedules and templates in support of TRICARE Prime access standards?

    • A.

      MAJCOM

    • B.

      MTF

    • C.

      USAF

    • D.

      DOD

    Correct Answer
    B. MTF
    Explanation
    The MTF uses the TAT (Turnaround Time) to evaluate the scheduling adequacy and sufficiency of their schedules and templates in support of TRICARE Prime access standards. The TAT helps the MTF determine if they are meeting the required standards for providing timely access to healthcare services for TRICARE Prime beneficiaries. This evaluation is important in ensuring that the MTF is able to effectively schedule and manage their resources to meet the healthcare needs of their patients.

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  • 7. 

    (001) What tool was developed to ease the burden of analyzing data from te many reports available in the CHCS?

    • A.

      AIM

    • B.

      Balanced Scorecard

    • C.

      Commander's Guide to Access Success

    • D.

      TOC

    Correct Answer
    A. AIM
    Explanation
    AIM (AHLTA/CHCS Information Management) was developed to ease the burden of analyzing data from the many reports available in the CHCS (Composite Health Care System). AIM is a tool that helps healthcare professionals analyze and interpret data, allowing them to make informed decisions and improve patient care. It provides a user-friendly interface and various features that simplify the process of data analysis, making it an effective tool for managing and utilizing the vast amount of data available in the CHCS.

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  • 8. 

    (002) Which is not a responsibility of the TRO?

    • A.

      Address enrollment issues

    • B.

      Approve MOUs with contractor

    • C.

      Establish TRICARE provider networks

    • D.

      Monitor customer satisfaction outcomes

    Correct Answer
    C. Establish TRICARE provider networks
    Explanation
    The TRO, or TRICARE Regional Office, is responsible for various tasks related to the administration of TRICARE, a healthcare program for military personnel and their families. The TRO is responsible for addressing enrollment issues, approving MOUs (Memorandums of Understanding) with contractors, and monitoring customer satisfaction outcomes. However, establishing TRICARE provider networks is not a responsibility of the TRO. This task is typically handled by other entities such as the Defense Health Agency or TRICARE Managed Care Support Contractors.

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  • 9. 

    (003) Where do MCS contractors and TRO receive overall guidance?

    • A.

      AFMS

    • B.

      DOD

    • C.

      MTF Commander

    • D.

      TMA

    Correct Answer
    D. TMA
    Explanation
    MCS contractors and TRO receive overall guidance from TMA.

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  • 10. 

    (004) Who is responsible for ensureing the MCS contractor performs the technical aspects of the contract?

    • A.

      MTF Commander

    • B.

      TRICARE

    • C.

      COTR

    • D.

      TRO

    Correct Answer
    C. COTR
    Explanation
    The Contracting Officer's Technical Representative (COTR) is responsible for ensuring that the MCS contractor performs the technical aspects of the contract. The COTR acts as a liaison between the contractor and the government, monitoring the contractor's performance, reviewing deliverables, and ensuring compliance with the technical requirements outlined in the contract. They play a crucial role in overseeing the technical aspects of the contract and ensuring that the contractor meets the necessary standards and specifications.

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  • 11. 

    (004) The COTR will verify cobntractor's records regarding licensure, certification, and education remain current, and will post all changes to the

    • A.

      COR database

    • B.

      Base bulletin board

    • C.

      TRICARE website

    • D.

      DEERS database

    Correct Answer
    A. COR database
    Explanation
    The COTR, or Contracting Officer's Technical Representative, is responsible for verifying the contractor's records regarding licensure, certification, and education to ensure they are up to date. Any changes in these records will be posted to the COR database. This database is likely the central repository for all contractor-related information and is used to track and manage contractor qualifications and credentials. The other options, such as the base bulletin board, TRICARE website, and DEERS database, are not specifically mentioned in relation to the verification and posting of contractor records.

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  • 12. 

    (004) Which is not a purpose of the COTR contracts?

    • A.

      Advise MTF commander on contract matters

    • B.

      Evaluate managed care support contractor performance

    • C.

      Ensure adequate standards of care

    • D.

      Resolve contract problems

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure adequate standards of care
    Explanation
    The purpose of COTR contracts is to advise the MTF commander on contract matters, evaluate managed care support contractor performance, and resolve contract problems. Ensuring adequate standards of care is not a specific purpose of COTR contracts.

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  • 13. 

    (005) Supplement services provided at MTF are an example of which type of resource sharing?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      External

    • C.

      Internal

    • D.

      Secondary

    Correct Answer
    C. Internal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Internal. Supplement services provided at MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) refers to additional services or resources that are offered within the facility itself. This implies that the resources are being shared within the same organization or system, making it an internal form of resource sharing.

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  • 14. 

    (005) Who provides the contractor with written approval/disapproval witin 30 days of receipt of

    • A.

      COTR

    • B.

      MTF Commander

    • C.

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • D.

      TRO

    Correct Answer
    D. TRO
    Explanation
    The TRO (Technical Review Officer) provides the contractor with written approval or disapproval within 30 days of receipt of the COTR (Contracting Officer's Technical Representative). The TRO is responsible for reviewing technical aspects of the contract and ensuring that the contractor's work meets the specified requirements. They evaluate the contractor's performance and provide feedback to the COTR, who then communicates the approval or disapproval to the contractor.

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  • 15. 

    (006) How often will the MCS contractor submit a revised resource sharing plan to the TRO?

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Semi-annually

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Upon change of contract requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    The MCS contractor will submit a revised resource sharing plan to the TRO annually. This suggests that the contractor will review and update the plan once every year. It is important for the contractor to regularly assess and modify the resource sharing plan to ensure its effectiveness and alignment with any changes in contract requirements. Quarterly or semi-annually would imply more frequent revisions, while upon change of contract requirements would only occur when there is a specific change in the contract.

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  • 16. 

    (006) what policy states that the DOD and the VA will enter into direct care sharing agreements?

    • A.

      AFMS

    • B.

      DOD

    • C.

      MHS

    • D.

      TRICARE

    Correct Answer
    B. DOD
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense (DOD) policy states that they will enter into direct care sharing agreements with the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA). This means that both organizations will collaborate and share resources to provide healthcare services to eligible individuals. This policy aims to ensure that veterans receive the necessary medical care and support they need, by leveraging the capabilities and expertise of both the DOD and the VA.

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  • 17. 

    (006) Who will implement a formal DOD/VA Health Care Resource Sharing Program?

    • A.

      TRO

    • B.

      TMA director

    • C.

      MTF/CC

    • D.

      COTR

    Correct Answer
    B. TMA director
    Explanation
    The TMA director will implement a formal DOD/VA Health Care Resource Sharing Program. This means that the TMA director is responsible for overseeing the implementation and management of the program, ensuring that it is carried out effectively and efficiently. They will work closely with both the Department of Defense (DOD) and the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) to coordinate the sharing of healthcare resources between the two organizations.

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  • 18. 

    (006) In regards to internal resource sharing, before a provider is permitted to practice in the MTF, he or she must be granted privileges by the

    • A.

      MCSC

    • B.

      MTF/CC

    • C.

      TRO

    • D.

      TMA

    Correct Answer
    B. MTF/CC
    Explanation
    Before a provider is permitted to practice in the MTF (Medical Treatment Facility), they must be granted privileges by the MTF/CC (MTF Commander). The MTF/CC is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of the facility, including granting privileges to providers based on their qualifications, experience, and skills. This ensures that only qualified and competent individuals are allowed to practice within the MTF, ensuring the safety and quality of care provided to patients.

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  • 19. 

    (006) For external resource sharing military health care personnel, who will ensure that the military health care personnel appropriately licensed and have active clinical privileges with the network facility?

    • A.

      Base commander

    • B.

      MTF commander

    • C.

      Contractor

    • D.

      Provider

    Correct Answer
    B. MTF commander
    Explanation
    The MTF commander is responsible for ensuring that military health care personnel who are sharing external resources for health care have the appropriate licenses and active clinical privileges with the network facility. This is because the MTF commander oversees the operations and management of the military treatment facility, including the personnel and their qualifications. The base commander may have overall authority over the base, but the MTF commander specifically handles the healthcare personnel and their compliance with licensing and privileges. The contractor and provider may have roles in providing external resources, but they do not have the authority to ensure the personnel's licensing and privileges.

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  • 20. 

    (006) Who shall have an independent certified public accounting firm perform audit procedures for each resource-sharing agreement to validate that resource-sharing activity is correctly reported under contract provisions?

    • A.

      Contractor

    • B.

      RMO

    • C.

      MTF commander

    • D.

      Base contracting office

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractor
    Explanation
    The contractor shall have an independent certified public accounting firm perform audit procedures for each resource-sharing agreement to validate that resource-sharing activity is correctly reported under contract provisions. This means that it is the responsibility of the contractor to hire an external accounting firm to conduct audits and ensure that the reporting of resource-sharing activity is accurate and in compliance with the contract terms.

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  • 21. 

    (007) to provide the combatant commanders with the best mix of forces, equipment, and support attainable within established fiscal constraints is the ultimate objective of the

    • A.

      DHP

    • B.

      FYDP

    • C.

      Military budget process

    • D.

      PPBES

    Correct Answer
    D. PPBES
    Explanation
    The PPBES (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System) is the military budget process that aims to provide the combatant commanders with the best mix of forces, equipment, and support within established fiscal constraints. It involves the planning, programming, budgeting, and execution of resources to meet the military's objectives. Through this process, the military can prioritize and allocate resources effectively to ensure that the combatant commanders have the necessary capabilities to fulfill their missions.

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  • 22. 

    (007) Which phase of the PPBES is the process of dtermining objectives and specifying time-phased military force requirements to accomplish a mission?

    • A.

      Planning

    • B.

      Programming

    • C.

      Budgeting

    • D.

      Execution

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Planning. In the PPBES (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System), the phase of determining objectives and specifying time-phased military force requirements to accomplish a mission is called planning. This phase involves setting goals, identifying resources needed, and developing strategies to achieve the desired outcomes. It is the initial step in the PPBES process and sets the foundation for the subsequent phases of programming, budgeting, and execution.

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  • 23. 

    (007) Which PPBES phase provides the opportunity to make assessments concerning current and previous resource allocations and whether the department achieved its planned performance goal?

    • A.

      Budgeting

    • B.

      Planning

    • C.

      Programming

    • D.

      Execution

    Correct Answer
    D. Execution
    Explanation
    The Execution phase of the PPBES (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System) provides the opportunity to make assessments concerning current and previous resource allocations and whether the department achieved its planned performance goal. This phase focuses on implementing the plans and budgets that were developed in the earlier phases, monitoring progress, and making adjustments as necessary. It involves the actual execution of programs and projects, tracking expenditures, and evaluating performance against the established goals and objectives.

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  • 24. 

    (007) What is a four-digit code used by the accounting system to monitor and report purchases by a work center?

    • A.

      BAG

    • B.

      EEIC

    • C.

      PEC

    • D.

      RC/CC

    Correct Answer
    D. RC/CC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RC/CC. RC/CC stands for Reporting Code/Cost Center, which is a four-digit code used by the accounting system to monitor and report purchases made by a specific work center. This code helps in tracking and analyzing expenses related to a particular department or unit within an organization.

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  • 25. 

    (007) What is grouping of forces, manpower, and costs associated with a military capability or support activity?

    • A.

      PEC

    • B.

      Fund citation

    • C.

      BAG

    • D.

      RC/CC

    Correct Answer
    A. PEC
    Explanation
    PEC stands for Program Element Code. It is a coding system used by the military to categorize and track the funding associated with different programs, projects, and activities. In this context, PEC can be seen as a way to group forces, manpower, and costs associated with a military capability or support activity. It helps to allocate resources efficiently and effectively by providing a standardized framework for budgeting and financial management within the military.

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  • 26. 

    (007) Waht funding structure, mandated by the TMA, must MTF commanders, resource management personnel and flight commanders review and manage?

    • A.

      Program elements

    • B.

      BAG

    • C.

      OBAD

    • D.

      EEIC

    Correct Answer
    B. BAG
    Explanation
    MTF commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders must review and manage the funding structure called BAG, as mandated by the TMA. This funding structure is likely a system or framework that outlines the allocation and management of funds within the organization. It is important for these personnel to understand and oversee the BAG funding structure to ensure proper financial management and resource allocation within the MTF.

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  • 27. 

    (007) Through the medical logistics flight, wich office prepares, and provides gudance for the DWCF, Medical-Dental Stock Division?

    • A.

      USAF/SG

    • B.

      USAF/SGOI

    • C.

      Air Force Medical Logistics Office

    • D.

      Air Force Material Command Medical-Dental Division

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Medical Logistics Office
    Explanation
    The Air Force Medical Logistics Office is responsible for preparing and providing guidance for the Defense Working Capital Fund (DWCF), Medical-Dental Stock Division. This office is specifically dedicated to medical logistics within the Air Force and plays a crucial role in managing and distributing medical and dental supplies. They ensure that the DWCF is properly maintained and that the Medical-Dental Stock Division has the necessary resources to fulfill its mission.

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  • 28. 

    (008) Which is not a responibility of the CCM?

    • A.

      Develop section budget

    • B.

      Develop cost center management guide

    • C.

      Justify financial and manpower resource requirements

    • D.

      Monitor expenditure of section funds

    Correct Answer
    B. Develop cost center management guide
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the CCM is to develop a cost center management guide. This guide provides guidelines and procedures for managing cost centers effectively. It helps in ensuring proper allocation of resources, monitoring expenses, and making informed financial decisions. The guide serves as a reference for managers and employees to understand the cost center management process and its objectives. By developing this guide, the CCM contributes to the overall efficiency and effectiveness of cost center management within the organization.

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  • 29. 

    (008) Who maintains the MTFs cost center management program?

    • A.

      RA

    • B.

      CCM

    • C.

      RMO

    • D.

      MTF commander

    Correct Answer
    C. RMO
    Explanation
    The RMO (Resource Management Office) maintains the MTFs (Medical Treatment Facilities) cost center management program. The RMO is responsible for managing and allocating resources within the MTF, including financial resources. They oversee the cost center management program, which involves tracking and managing the costs associated with different departments or units within the MTF. This ensures that resources are allocated efficiently and effectively to support the operations of the MTF.

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  • 30. 

    (008) How often must CCM meeting be conducted?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      As required

    Correct Answer
    B. Quarterly
    Explanation
    CCM meetings must be conducted quarterly, meaning every three months. This frequency allows for regular updates and discussions among the team members, ensuring that everyone stays informed and aligned with the project goals and progress. Quarterly meetings strike a balance between having enough time to gather and analyze relevant information, and not letting too much time pass without addressing any potential issues or changes that may arise. By conducting CCM meetings quarterly, organizations can maintain effective communication, track progress, and make necessary adjustments in a timely manner.

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  • 31. 

    (009) What document should be reviewed to ensure all commitments, obligations, and customer orders are recorded accurately?

    • A.

      COL

    • B.

      OBL

    • C.

      ODL

    • D.

      Finaicial report

    Correct Answer
    C. ODL
    Explanation
    The document that should be reviewed to ensure all commitments, obligations, and customer orders are recorded accurately is the ODL (Order Detail List). This document provides a comprehensive record of all orders placed by customers, including details such as the products or services ordered, quantities, delivery dates, and any special instructions or requirements. By reviewing the ODL, one can verify that all commitments and obligations are accurately recorded and ensure that customer orders are fulfilled correctly.

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  • 32. 

    (009) What is the most important snapshot of financial activity the RMO has and serves as their checkbook?

    • A.

      OBL

    • B.

      ODL

    • C.

      Obligation status reports

    • D.

      Status of funds report

    Correct Answer
    A. OBL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is OBL. OBL stands for Obligation status reports, which serve as the RMO's checkbook. These reports provide a snapshot of the financial activity, including the obligations and expenses incurred by the RMO. By monitoring the OBL, the RMO can track their financial transactions and ensure that they are staying within their budget and financial limits.

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  • 33. 

    (009) What form is used to establish unfilled customer orders between the ordering and performing activities in the accounting records?

    • A.

      AF Form 9, Request for Purchase

    • B.

      AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obligation/Reimbursement Document (MORD)

    • C.

      AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authourization (FCA)

    • D.

      DD Form 448, Military Interdeparmental Puchase Request (MIPR)

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obligation/Reimbursement Document (MORD)
  • 34. 

    (009) which form is used to issue funds to other Air Force units when it is impractical to route each request for funds through the Accounting and Finance Office?

    • A.

      AF Form 9, Request for purchase

    • B.

      AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obligation/Reimbursement Document (MORD)

    • C.

      AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authourization (FCA)

    • D.

      DD From 448, Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request (MIRP)

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authourization (FCA)
    Explanation
    The AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authorization (FCA), is used to issue funds to other Air Force units when it is impractical to route each request for funds through the Accounting and Finance Office. This form provides authorization for the transfer of funds and ensures accountability and proper documentation for financial transactions within the Air Force. It allows units to request and receive funds directly without the need for additional approval or processing through the Accounting and Finance Office.

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  • 35. 

    (010) Who develops the spend plan?

    • A.

      MTF commander

    • B.

      NCOIC, RMO

    • C.

      CCM

    • D.

      RA

    Correct Answer
    D. RA
    Explanation
    The RA, or Resource Advisor, develops the spend plan. The Resource Advisor is responsible for managing and overseeing the financial resources of an organization. They work closely with the budget officer and other stakeholders to create a detailed spend plan that outlines how funds will be allocated and spent. This involves analyzing financial data, forecasting future expenses, and making strategic decisions to ensure the organization's financial goals are met.

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  • 36. 

    (010) Which is not a key to a successful close-out?

    • A.

      Constant review of management reports

    • B.

      Pre-planning

    • C.

      Close coordination with base agencies

    • D.

      Last minute obligations

    Correct Answer
    D. Last minute obligations
    Explanation
    Last minute obligations are not a key to a successful close-out because they imply a lack of planning and organization. Successful close-out requires pre-planning, constant review of management reports, and close coordination with base agencies to ensure that all tasks and obligations are completed in a timely manner. Last minute obligations can lead to rushed and incomplete work, which may result in errors or missing important details during the close-out process.

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  • 37. 

    (010) What is the primary use of fallout dollars?

    • A.

      Purchase non-medical supplies

    • B.

      Purchase equipment

    • C.

      Settle travel obligation

    • D.

      First priority level expenses

    Correct Answer
    B. Purchase equipment
    Explanation
    Fallout dollars are primarily used to purchase equipment. This means that they are specifically allocated for acquiring necessary tools, machinery, or other physical assets that are required for a particular purpose or operation. The other options, such as purchasing non-medical supplies, settling travel obligations, or covering first priority level expenses, do not align with the primary use of fallout dollars as stated in the answer.

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  • 38. 

    (011) What seves as both a planning and programming guidance document to build the POM?

    • A.

      MAPPG

    • B.

      MAPPT

    • C.

      UMD

    • D.

      UPMR

    Correct Answer
    A. MAPPG
    Explanation
    MAPPG stands for Military Acquisition Program Planning Guidance. It serves as both a planning and programming guidance document to build the Program Objective Memorandum (POM). The POM is a document that outlines the Department of Defense's planned budget and resource allocation for a specific period. MAPPG provides guidance on the acquisition programs, priorities, and funding requirements to ensure alignment with the overall defense strategy and objectives. It helps in the efficient allocation of resources and supports the decision-making process for program planning and budgeting.

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  • 39. 

    (012) What is a tool a unit can use to request a change to manning levels?

    • A.

      MAPPG

    • B.

      UPMR

    • C.

      ACR

    • D.

      UMD

    Correct Answer
    C. ACR
    Explanation
    ACR stands for Authorization Change Request. It is a tool that a unit can use to request a change to manning levels. This tool allows the unit to formally request an adjustment in the number of personnel assigned to their unit. By submitting an ACR, the unit can provide justification for the change in manning levels and seek approval from the appropriate authorities. This process helps ensure that the unit has the necessary personnel resources to effectively carry out their mission.

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  • 40. 

    (012) Prior to submitting an ACR who must the RMO check with to ensure no impact is made on the unit's deployment requirements?

    • A.

      NCOIC, RMO

    • B.

      Unit deployment manager

    • C.

      MTF/CC

    • D.

      Base manpower office

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit deployment manager
    Explanation
    The RMO must check with the Unit deployment manager prior to submitting an ACR to ensure no impact is made on the unit's deployment requirements. The Unit deployment manager is responsible for coordinating and managing the unit's deployment activities, including ensuring that all necessary personnel and resources are available for deployment. By consulting with the Unit deployment manager, the RMO can ensure that the submission of the ACR does not disrupt or interfere with the unit's deployment plans and requirements.

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  • 41. 

    (013) How many panels will the AFMS use to identify and champion necessary changes?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      9

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    C. 9
    Explanation
    The AFMS will use 9 panels to identify and champion necessary changes. This implies that there are multiple areas or aspects that need to be addressed, and each panel will focus on a specific area to identify and advocate for the required changes. Having 9 panels suggests a comprehensive approach to addressing the necessary changes and indicates that a significant amount of analysis and collaboration will be involved in the process.

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  • 42. 

    (013) The Long View strategy looks at the AFMS from a strategic viewpoint of how many years?

    • A.

      Four years and beyond

    • B.

      Six years and beyond

    • C.

      Eight years and beyond

    • D.

      Ten years and beyond

    Correct Answer
    D. Ten years and beyond
    Explanation
    The Long View strategy takes into consideration the AFMS (Air Force Materiel Strategy) from a strategic perspective for a period of ten years and beyond. This means that the strategy is focused on long-term planning and decision-making, considering the potential changes and challenges that may occur over the course of a decade or more. By adopting this approach, the Air Force can better anticipate and prepare for future needs, developments, and contingencies, ensuring the effectiveness and efficiency of its operations in the long run.

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  • 43. 

    (014) The Long View strategy will position the AFMS for the greatest return with the least risk. The outcome will be the highest state of readiness, the best health status, and the

    • A.

      Lowest environmental costs

    • B.

      Lowest private sector costs

    • C.

      Lowest overall cost

    • D.

      Saving of life

    Correct Answer
    C. Lowest overall cost
    Explanation
    The Long View strategy aims to position the AFMS (Armed Forces Medical Services) for the greatest return with the least risk. By implementing this strategy, the AFMS will be able to achieve the highest state of readiness and the best health status for its personnel. Additionally, the strategy focuses on minimizing environmental costs, private sector costs, and overall costs. Therefore, the correct answer is "lowest overall cost" as it aligns with the objectives of the Long View strategy to optimize resources and achieve the desired outcomes efficiently.

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  • 44. 

    (014) Which analysis is accomplished by analyzing the private sector and direct care risk?

    • A.

      Readiness currency case analysis

    • B.

      RCA

    • C.

      CCA

    • D.

      BCA

    Correct Answer
    C. CCA
    Explanation
    CCA stands for Cost-Consequence Analysis. This analysis involves evaluating the costs and consequences associated with different options or interventions in the private sector and direct care settings. It helps in assessing the financial implications and potential risks of various choices, allowing decision-makers to make informed decisions about resource allocation and risk management.

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  • 45. 

    (014) Which analysis places the assets where the population drives the largest financial risk?

    • A.

      Readiness currency case analysis

    • B.

      RCA

    • C.

      CCA

    • D.

      BCA

    Correct Answer
    D. BCA
    Explanation
    BCA stands for Business Continuity Analysis. This analysis places the assets where the population drives the largest financial risk. It helps organizations identify and prioritize their critical assets based on the potential impact on their business operations. By understanding the financial risk associated with different assets, organizations can develop strategies and plans to mitigate those risks and ensure continuity of their operations.

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  • 46. 

    (015) Which is not a tool used to formulate the initial baseline manpower requirements for the MAPPG?

    • A.

      DCT

    • B.

      IAT

    • C.

      MRT

    • D.

      MTF summary tool

    Correct Answer
    D. MTF summary tool
    Explanation
    The MTF summary tool is not used to formulate the initial baseline manpower requirements for the MAPPG.

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  • 47. 

    (016) The decision process is used to determine the type of manpower to use when validating

    • A.

      Short-term goals

    • B.

      Comptroller issues

    • C.

      Manpower requirements

    • D.

      MAJCOM mission statements

    Correct Answer
    C. Manpower requirements
    Explanation
    The decision process is used to determine the type of manpower to use when validating manpower requirements. This means that when considering the manpower needed for a task or project, the decision process helps in determining the appropriate type of manpower that should be utilized. This ensures that the manpower requirements are met effectively and efficiently.

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  • 48. 

    (016) Who is responsible for providing active military authorizations?

    • A.

      MAJCOM

    • B.

      HQ USAF/SG

    • C.

      MTF commander

    • D.

      Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM
    Explanation
    MAJCOM, or Major Command, is responsible for providing active military authorizations. They have the authority to deploy and direct forces under their command, and they play a crucial role in determining the allocation of resources and personnel for military operations. The other options listed, HQ USAF/SG, MTF commander, and Wing commander, do not have the same level of authority and responsibility as MAJCOM in providing active military authorizations.

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  • 49. 

    (016) air Reserve Force authorizations must be identified to

    • A.

      HQ USAF/SG

    • B.

      HQ USAF/CC

    • C.

      HQ USAF/DO

    • D.

      HQ USAF/XP

    Correct Answer
    D. HQ USAF/XP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HQ USAF/XP. This is because the air Reserve Force authorizations need to be identified to the HQ USAF/XP, which stands for Headquarters United States Air Force/Execution Plans. This department is responsible for planning and executing various operations and activities within the Air Force. By identifying the air Reserve Force authorizations to HQ USAF/XP, it ensures that the necessary resources and personnel are allocated and managed effectively for the Reserve Force.

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  • 50. 

    (016) Who approves the interim use of civiliams until military resources can be planned and made available?

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      MTF commander

    • C.

      MAJCOM

    • D.

      Provider

    Correct Answer
    C. MAJCOM
    Explanation
    MAJCOM, or Major Command, is responsible for approving the interim use of civilians until military resources can be planned and made available. MAJCOMs are the highest level of command in the United States Air Force and are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping their assigned forces. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the use of civilian personnel in order to ensure the efficient functioning of military operations.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 07, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Malibutay
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