4a051 Paractice Test 1st Edition

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| By Jdlierman23
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 144
Questions: 39 | Attempts: 144

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4a051 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A program or set of programs that manages and directs a computer system is called

    • A.

      An operating insruction

    • B.

      System instruction

    • C.

      System application

    • D.

      An operating system

    Correct Answer
    D. An operating system
    Explanation
    An operating system is a program or set of programs that manages and directs a computer system. It is responsible for controlling hardware and software resources, providing a user interface, managing files and processes, and ensuring the overall functionality and security of the system. It acts as an intermediary between the user and the computer hardware, allowing users to interact with the computer and run applications efficiently.

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  • 2. 

    Which files if tampered with can cause an unstable or unrecoverable operating system

    • A.

      Network backup

    • B.

      Defragment

    • C.

      File back up

    • D.

      Disk space clean up

    Correct Answer
    B. Defragment
    Explanation
    Defragmenting a computer's hard drive rearranges fragmented data, making it easier and faster for the operating system to access files. However, if the defragmentation process is tampered with or interrupted, it can cause issues with the file system and potentially lead to an unstable or unrecoverable operating system.

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  • 3. 

    Who is responsible for equipment to their assigned organization

    • A.

      Equipment control officer

    • B.

      Commander

    • C.

      Equipment custodian

    • D.

      Supervisors

    Correct Answer
    B. Commander
    Explanation
    The commander is responsible for the equipment assigned to their organization. They have the overall authority and accountability for the equipment and ensuring its proper use, maintenance, and security. The commander is in charge of making decisions regarding the acquisition, allocation, and disposal of equipment within their organization. They are also responsible for ensuring that the equipment custodians and supervisors carry out their duties effectively in managing the equipment.

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  • 4. 

    Where do you place the automated data processing equipment (adpe) indentification label

    • A.

      Front or top of equipment

    • B.

      Back panel of equipment

    • C.

      Left side of equipment

    • D.

      Right side of equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Front or top of equipment
    Explanation
    The automated data processing equipment (ADPE) identification label should be placed on the front or top of the equipment. This ensures easy visibility and accessibility of the label for identification purposes. Placing it on the back panel, left side, or right side may make it difficult to locate and read the label, leading to potential confusion or delays in identifying the equipment.

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  • 5. 

    Who reprensents the information system security officer (isso) at the locations the isso cannot effectively monitor users or system activities

    • A.

      Workgroup manager

    • B.

      Section supervisor

    • C.

      Secuirty manager

    • D.

      Client support administrator

    Correct Answer
    D. Client support administrator
    Explanation
    The client support administrator represents the Information System Security Officer (ISSO) at locations where the ISSO cannot effectively monitor users or system activities. This role is responsible for providing support to clients, assisting with technical issues, and ensuring the security of information systems. They act as a liaison between the ISSO and users, ensuring that security protocols are followed and addressing any concerns or incidents that may arise.

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  • 6. 

    An individual is allowed access to classified information after the determination is made that

    • A.

      Access is necessary for performance duty and the individual applies for the appropriate secuirty clearance

    • B.

      Access is necessary for performance of duty and the appropriate security clearance is granted

    • C.

      The individual is trustworthy and the individual completes compusec training

    • D.

      The individual is trustworthy and acess is necessary for performance of duty

    Correct Answer
    D. The individual is trustworthy and acess is necessary for performance of duty
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the individual is trustworthy and access is necessary for performance of duty. This means that in order for an individual to be allowed access to classified information, it is important for them to be deemed trustworthy and for their access to be necessary for the performance of their duties. This ensures that only those who are reliable and have a legitimate need for access are granted clearance.

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  • 7. 

    Who is the chair person of the medical readiness staff function (MRSF)

    • A.

      Medical readiness officer/ NCO

    • B.

      Mtf commander

    • C.

      Medical logistics commander

    • D.

      Medical defense officer

    Correct Answer
    B. Mtf commander
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the MTF commander. The MTF commander is responsible for overseeing the medical readiness staff function (MRSF) within a medical treatment facility (MTF). They are in charge of ensuring that the MRSF is properly organized and functioning effectively to support the readiness of medical personnel and equipment. The MTF commander works closely with the medical readiness officer/NCO, medical logistics commander, and medical defense officer to ensure the overall readiness of the medical staff and resources.

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  • 8. 

    Into which triage category  and color would you place a patient with injuries requiring inordinate medical treatment to the detriment or neglect of other patients

    • A.

      Delayed yellow

    • B.

      Minimal green

    • C.

      Iimmediate red

    • D.

      Expectant blue

    Correct Answer
    D. Expectant blue
    Explanation
    The patient with injuries requiring inordinate medical treatment to the detriment or neglect of other patients would be placed in the expectant blue triage category. This category is for patients who are not expected to survive even with medical intervention. Placing this patient in the expectant category ensures that limited resources can be allocated to patients who have a higher chance of survival.

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  • 9. 

    Update disaster team checklist as necessary and review them atleast

    • A.

      Before each exercise

    • B.

      After each exercise

    • C.

      Every six months

    • D.

      Once a year

    Correct Answer
    D. Once a year
    Explanation
    The disaster team checklist should be updated regularly to ensure its effectiveness. Reviewing the checklist at least once a year allows for any necessary changes or updates to be made. This ensures that the checklist remains relevant and up to date with any new procedures or protocols. By reviewing it annually, the team can identify any areas that may need improvement or adjustment based on their experiences throughout the year. This ensures that the team is prepared and equipped to handle any potential disasters or emergencies effectively.

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  • 10. 

    On a grid map the grid square is identified by its grid

    • A.

      Coordinates

    • B.

      Position

    • C.

      Area

    • D.

      Lines

    Correct Answer
    A. Coordinates
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "coordinates" because on a grid map, each grid square is identified by its specific coordinates. These coordinates help to pinpoint the exact position of a location on the map, allowing for accurate navigation and location referencing.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of email must contain a complete signature element clearly indicating who sent the communication

    • A.

      Organizational

    • B.

      Individual

    • C.

      Official

    • D.

      Private

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational
    Explanation
    An organizational email must contain a complete signature element clearly indicating who sent the communication because it is important for recipients to know the source of the email and who they are corresponding with. This helps establish credibility and allows for easy identification of the sender. In an organizational setting, where multiple individuals may be sending emails on behalf of the organization, a complete signature element ensures that the recipient can easily determine the sender's identity and contact information.

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  • 12. 

    The success of the global message commmunication depends on a secure

    • A.

      Telecommunications messaging system

    • B.

      Writer to reader

    • C.

      Dod controlled messaging system

    • D.

      Computer message system

    Correct Answer
    B. Writer to reader
    Explanation
    The success of global message communication depends on a secure telecommunications messaging system, specifically one that enables direct communication between the writer and the reader. This suggests that for effective global message communication, it is crucial to have a messaging system that ensures the privacy and security of the communication between the sender (writer) and the receiver (reader).

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  • 13. 

    What bar provides acces to various microsoft outlook defense message system functions while the user is composing or draftiong a message

    • A.

      Toolbar

    • B.

      Menu bar

    • C.

      Message bar

    • D.

      Formatting bar

    Correct Answer
    B. Menu bar
    Explanation
    The menu bar is the correct answer because it provides access to various Microsoft Outlook defense message system functions while the user is composing or drafting a message. It typically contains options such as File, Edit, View, Insert, Format, Tools, and Help, which allow the user to perform actions such as saving, editing, formatting, and sending the message.

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  • 14. 

    Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaing to access and release of medical information

    • A.

      Drug and alcohol

    • B.

      Adoptions and abortions

    • C.

      Sexual assault and abuse

    • D.

      Child molestation and endangerment

    Correct Answer
    A. Drug and alcohol
    Explanation
    The laws pertaining to drug and alcohol take precedence over other directives regarding access and release of medical information. This means that if there are conflicting laws or directives related to medical information, the laws related to drug and alcohol will have higher authority and must be followed. These laws are likely in place to protect individuals from the potential harm and consequences associated with drug and alcohol use.

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  • 15. 

    Which is not an input used for accessing help in the CHCS

    • A.

      ???

    • B.

      ?option

    • C.

      Olum

    • D.

      ? option synomyn

    Correct Answer
    C. Olum
  • 16. 

    The manage access to care ATC tools are available in chcs and are also located on the web at the

    • A.

      Tricare access center

    • B.

      Managed care tools center

    • C.

      Managed care access center

    • D.

      Tricare operations center

    Correct Answer
    D. Tricare operations center
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "tricare operations center". This is because the question is asking about the location where the manage access to care ATC tools are available. The other options mentioned (tricare access center, managed care tools center, and managed care access center) are not specifically mentioned in the given information. Therefore, the tricare operations center is the most appropriate answer based on the given information.

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  • 17. 

    Which chcs option allows you to cancel all or part of an existing schedule at the request of the provider or another agenc at the medical treatment facility

    • A.

      Closed appointments

    • B.

      Cancel by provider

    • C.

      Cancellation by facility

    • D.

      Mantain/cancel appointments

    Correct Answer
    C. Cancellation by facility
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "cancellation by facility". This option allows the medical treatment facility to cancel all or part of an existing schedule at the request of the provider or another agency. It implies that the facility has the authority to make cancellations based on their own judgment or in response to external requests. The other options, such as "closed appointments" or "cancel by provider", do not specifically address the ability of the facility to cancel appointments.

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  • 18. 

    Within each local delivery area, how is tricare health care managed

    • A.

      Locally

    • B.

      Nationally

    • C.

      Regionally

    • D.

      Case by case basis

    Correct Answer
    A. Locally
    Explanation
    Tricare health care is managed locally within each local delivery area. This means that the management and administration of Tricare services are handled at the local level, ensuring that the specific needs and requirements of the local population are addressed effectively. This approach allows for a more personalized and tailored approach to healthcare management, taking into account the unique characteristics and challenges of each local area. By managing Tricare locally, it facilitates better coordination and collaboration between healthcare providers, ensuring that patients receive quality care that meets their individual needs.

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  • 19. 

    For at least how many months is the enrollment period for tricare prime

    • A.

      36

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      18

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    D. 12
    Explanation
    The enrollment period for Tricare Prime is at least 12 months. This means that individuals who enroll in Tricare Prime must commit to being enrolled for a minimum of 12 months before they can make any changes to their coverage.

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  • 20. 

    Who authorizes non medical trwatment facility reffered supplemental care for the uniformed services

    • A.

      Tro

    • B.

      Hcf

    • C.

      Spoc

    • D.

      Nearest MDG/CC

    Correct Answer
    C. Spoc
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "spoc." SPOC stands for Single Point of Contact, which is a person or entity designated to coordinate and authorize non-medical treatment facilities for the uniformed services. This individual or organization acts as a central point of contact for all requests and referrals for supplemental care. They have the authority to approve or deny the use of these facilities based on the needs and eligibility of the individuals in the uniformed services.

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  • 21. 

    Which term is identified as a funding document that represents cash and authorizes commands to commit funds

    • A.

      Bogey

    • B.

      An allotment

    • C.

      An allocation

    • D.

      An annual budget authotization

    Correct Answer
    C. An allocation
    Explanation
    An allocation is the term used to describe a funding document that represents cash and authorizes commands to commit funds. It is a formal authorization that designates a specific amount of money to be used for a particular purpose or project. This document ensures that funds are allocated and available for use as needed, providing the necessary financial resources to carry out the designated activities.

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  • 22. 

    The amount of operations and maitenance dollars which a command/base can reasonably except to receive to carry out its mission for the fourth coming operations year is called

    • A.

      Bogey

    • B.

      Allocation

    • C.

      A citation of funds

    • D.

      A call for estimates

    Correct Answer
    A. Bogey
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "bogey." In military terms, a bogey refers to the amount of operations and maintenance dollars that a command or base can expect to receive for the upcoming year to carry out its mission. It helps in planning and budgeting for the required resources and expenses.

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  • 23. 

    Which entity or unit of activity is subordiante to a responsibility center

    • A.

      Flight

    • B.

      Squadron

    • C.

      Cost center

    • D.

      Program element

    Correct Answer
    C. Cost center
    Explanation
    A cost center is a unit of activity within an organization that is responsible for incurring costs but does not generate revenue. It is a subordinate entity to a responsibility center because it operates under the control and authority of a higher-level department or division. The purpose of a cost center is to track and manage expenses, such as salaries, supplies, and maintenance costs, in order to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the department or division. Therefore, a cost center is subordinate to a responsibility center as it plays a supportive role in achieving the overall goals and objectives of the organization.

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  • 24. 

    What funding structure mandated by the tricare management activity must mtf commander resource managemnt personnel and flight commanders review and manage

    • A.

      Program elements

    • B.

      Budget activity groups

    • C.

      Operating budget authority document

    • D.

      Element of expense and investment codes

    Correct Answer
    B. Budget activity groups
    Explanation
    The correct answer is budget activity groups. The funding structure mandated by the Tricare Management Activity requires MTF commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders to review and manage budget activity groups. This means that they are responsible for overseeing and allocating funds within specific categories or areas of the budget, ensuring that resources are properly allocated and used efficiently.

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  • 25. 

    Which quartley produced document shows manpower spaces by functionall account with the authorizations displayed over fiscal quarters

    • A.

      Medical expense performance reporting system

    • B.

      Using activity issue turn in summary

    • C.

      Unit manpower personnel roster

    • D.

      Unit manpower document

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit manpower document
    Explanation
    The unit manpower document is the correct answer because it is the quarterly produced document that shows manpower spaces by functional account with the authorizations displayed over fiscal quarters. This document provides information on the personnel and their positions within the unit, allowing for better management and allocation of manpower resources.

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  • 26. 

    Within the unit manpower documents what indentifies a manpower requirement

    • A.

      Position number

    • B.

      Manpower indentifer

    • C.

      Manpower standard

    • D.

      Man hour availabilty factor

    Correct Answer
    A. Position number
    Explanation
    In the unit manpower documents, a manpower requirement is identified by the position number. This number serves as a unique identifier for each position within the unit, allowing for easy reference and tracking of manpower needs. The position number helps in organizing and managing the unit's manpower resources effectively.

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  • 27. 

    Which is the senior review body within the air force medical services corporate structure and makes recommendations to the surgeon general

    • A.

      AFMS element

    • B.

      AFMS council

    • C.

      AFMS board

    • D.

      AFMS group

    Correct Answer
    B. AFMS council
    Explanation
    The AFMS council is the senior review body within the air force medical services corporate structure and is responsible for making recommendations to the surgeon general. It is likely composed of high-ranking officials within the air force medical services and serves as a decision-making and advisory body for important matters within the organization.

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  • 28. 

    Which term refers to the way the air force medical service views the strategic viewpoint and incorporates the use of readiness case analysis currency case analysis and business case analysis  in decision making

    • A.

      Sratify

    • B.

      Long view

    • C.

      Spear head

    • D.

      Spoke and wheel

    Correct Answer
    B. Long view
    Explanation
    The term "long view" refers to the way the air force medical service views the strategic viewpoint and incorporates the use of readiness case analysis, currency case analysis, and business case analysis in decision making. It suggests that the air force medical service takes a comprehensive and forward-looking approach, considering various factors and analyzing different cases to make informed decisions. This term implies a focus on long-term planning and considering the potential outcomes and impacts of decisions.

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  • 29. 

    Which tool is an air staff tool used to run existing manpower standard and models

    • A.

      Standard set tool

    • B.

      Data collection tool

    • C.

      Impact collection tool

    • D.

      Manpower requirment tool

    Correct Answer
    C. Impact collection tool
    Explanation
    The impact collection tool is used to run existing manpower standards and models. It helps in collecting data and assessing the impact of various factors on manpower requirements. This tool is specifically designed to measure and analyze the effects of different variables on the overall workforce needs.

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  • 30. 

    How many copies of substance in kind roster is provided monthly to each unit

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    Each unit is provided with 2 copies of the substance in kind roster on a monthly basis.

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  • 31. 

    Which document is an optional item that may be filed in an unfavorable information file (UIF)

    • A.

      Artilce 15 punishment

    • B.

      Control roster action

    • C.

      Record of failure in substance abuse

    • D.

      Record of conviction adjudged by court martial

    Correct Answer
    A. Artilce 15 punishment
    Explanation
    An Article 15 punishment is a nonjudicial punishment that can be imposed by a commanding officer for minor offenses. It is not mandatory to file an Article 15 punishment in an unfavorable information file (UIF). The UIF is a repository of adverse information about an individual, and it is typically used for more serious offenses or negative actions. Therefore, an Article 15 punishment is an optional item that may be filed in a UIF, but it is not required.

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  • 32. 

    How many duty days does a member have to acknoledge notice of an intenede action to establish and unfavorable information file (UIF)

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      30

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    An individual is required to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish an unfavorable information file (UIF) within 3 duty days. This means that they must formally acknowledge the notice and take any necessary actions within 3 working days. It is crucial for the member to acknowledge the notice promptly to ensure that the UIF is established in a timely manner.

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  • 33. 

    Upon assumption of command when must a commander review all unit favorable information files (UIF)

    • A.

      Within 30 days

    • B.

      Within 90 days

    • C.

      During the next scheduled annual review

    • D.

      During the next scheduled semiannual review

    Correct Answer
    B. Within 90 days
    Explanation
    A commander must review all unit favorable information files (UIF) within 90 days upon assumption of command. This is important to ensure that the commander is aware of any positive or negative information about the unit and its members. Reviewing the UIF allows the commander to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions based on the information contained in the files. It also helps in maintaining the unit's discipline and readiness.

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  • 34. 

    When does the (UIF) monitor remove documentation pertaing to article 15 action

    • A.

      When the member becomes eligble for retirement

    • B.

      When the member becomes selected for an assignment

    • C.

      Upon a receipt of a record of action from the staff judge advocate showing that punishment was set aside

    • D.

      Upon notificatio from the unit commander that the members behavior has improved and he or she will be removed from the control roster

    Correct Answer
    C. Upon a receipt of a record of action from the staff judge advocate showing that punishment was set aside
    Explanation
    The UIF monitor removes documentation pertaining to article 15 action when they receive a record of action from the staff judge advocate showing that the punishment has been set aside. This means that if the punishment imposed on the member through article 15 is later overturned or reversed, the UIF monitor will remove the documentation related to that action.

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  • 35. 

    How often is duty status reporting accomplished

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Whenever changes occur

    Correct Answer
    D. Whenever changes occur
    Explanation
    Duty status reporting is not done on a fixed schedule such as daily, weekly, or monthly. Instead, it is done whenever changes occur in the status of the duty. This means that whenever there is a change in the duty status, such as a change in location, availability, or any other relevant information, duty status reporting is accomplished. This allows for real-time updates and ensures that the duty status is always accurate and up to date.

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  • 36. 

    Who is responsible for updating maintainging and correcting duty status conditions

    • A.

      First sergeant

    • B.

      Members unit

    • C.

      Unit leave monitor

    • D.

      Military personal flight (MPF)

    Correct Answer
    B. Members unit
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "members unit." In a military unit, it is the responsibility of the members within the unit to update, maintain, and correct duty status conditions. This includes ensuring that their duty status is accurately reflected and making any necessary corrections or updates as required. The members of the unit are accountable for keeping their duty status information up to date and ensuring its accuracy.

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  • 37. 

    You can change members duty status to absent without leave AWOL when they have an unauthorized absense of more than

    • A.

      24 hours but less than 15 days

    • B.

      24 hours but less than 30 days

    • C.

      48 hours but less than 15 days

    • D.

      48 hours but less than 30 days

    Correct Answer
    B. 24 hours but less than 30 days
    Explanation
    Members' duty status can be changed to absent without leave (AWOL) when they have an unauthorized absence of more than 24 hours but less than 30 days. This means that if a member is absent from their duty for a period exceeding 24 hours but not more than 30 days without proper authorization, their status can be marked as AWOL. This allows the organization to keep track of and take appropriate action for members who are absent without permission for an extended period of time.

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  • 38. 

    What is one of the most important aspect of in processing

    • A.

      Deleting from datbase

    • B.

      Creating a suspense file

    • C.

      Inprocessing into database

    • D.

      Completing government travel card form

    Correct Answer
    B. Creating a suspense file
    Explanation
    Creating a suspense file is one of the most important aspects of in processing. A suspense file is typically used to track and manage important documents or tasks that require follow-up or further action. It helps ensure that nothing is overlooked or forgotten during the in processing phase. By creating a suspense file, individuals can stay organized and ensure that all necessary steps are taken to complete the in processing efficiently and accurately.

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  • 39. 

    What is the result if members do not out-process

    • A.

      The out processing checklist is filed wrong

    • B.

      The gaining units database will become unreliable

    • C.

      Individual base agencies will be unable to track member

    • D.

      Member will be put in the wrong air expeditionary force (AEF)

    Correct Answer
    C. Individual base agencies will be unable to track member
    Explanation
    If members do not out-process and the out processing checklist is filed wrong, individual base agencies will be unable to track the member. This means that the member's movements and whereabouts will not be properly documented and monitored by the base agencies. This can lead to difficulties in managing and coordinating the member's activities and assignments, potentially causing disruptions and complications in their deployment or reassignment.

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