3C051 : Computer Systems Operations Test! Trivia Quiz

  • ISO/IEC 27002
  • NIST SP 800-53
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1. When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to

Explanation

One simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware is to place masking tape on the cables and connection points. This helps in labeling and distinguishing the cables, making it easier to identify and troubleshoot any issues.

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About This Quiz
3C051 : Computer Systems Operations Test! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

What are computer systems operations? A computer structure is a basic, complete, and functional computer, including all the hardware and software required to make it practical for any user. It should have the ability to receive user input, process data, and create information for future storage and input. Try taking... see morethis quiz and see what you know about computer systems operations. see less

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2. Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?

Explanation

The CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor) component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. CMOS is responsible for storing the BIOS settings, including the date and time, boot order, and other configuration settings. The lithium battery provides backup power to the CMOS chip, ensuring that these settings are not lost when the computer is turned off or unplugged.

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3. Normally the last step in the boot-up process is 

Explanation

The last step in the boot-up process is when the operating system (OS) is loaded into the memory and the user interface appears. This signifies that the computer has finished its initialization process and is ready for the user to interact with it. The other options mentioned, such as the keyboard lights flashing, a memory test being visible on the monitor, or the hard disk drive access light coming on briefly, may occur during earlier stages of the boot-up process but are not the final step.

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4. Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?

Explanation

The correct answer is unit deployed manager and commander. This is because the unit deployed manager and commander are responsible for overseeing the deployment process and ensuring that all necessary resources and personnel are available. If there are any predeployment shortfalls, they need to be notified immediately so that appropriate action can be taken to address the issue and ensure a successful deployment.

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5. What is the first job the basic input-output system (BIOS) does at start-up?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Run the power-on self-test (POST)". The power-on self-test is the first job that the BIOS performs at start-up. It checks the hardware components of the computer to ensure that they are functioning properly. This includes testing the memory, CPU, disks, and other peripherals. The POST helps to identify any potential issues or errors that may prevent the computer from booting up successfully. Once the POST is completed and no errors are detected, the BIOS proceeds to load the operating system into the RAM.

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6. What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Basic input output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system, and providing basic input and output services. BIOS is stored on a chip on the computer's motherboard and is the first software that runs when the computer is turned on. It is essential for the computer to boot up and function properly.

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7. What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

Explanation

The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ lines are used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. In the case of the floppy disk controller, it uses IRQ 6 to signal the CPU when it needs to perform read or write operations on the floppy disk. This allows the controller to efficiently communicate with the CPU and ensures that the necessary data transfer between the floppy disk and the computer can take place smoothly.

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8. Static electricity remains intact until it is

Explanation

Static electricity is a build-up of electric charge on the surface of an object. It remains intact until it is discharged, meaning that the excess charge is released and the object returns to a neutral state. Discharging can occur through various means such as contact with another object, grounding, or the flow of electric current. Once discharged, the static electricity is no longer present, and the object is no longer electrically charged.

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9. What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist?

Explanation

The Power On Self Test (POST) is a diagnostic procedure performed by the computer's firmware during the boot process to check if the CPU hardware is functioning properly. It tests various components of the CPU, such as the memory, input/output devices, and other hardware components. If any issues or errors are detected during the POST, the computer may display error messages or fail to boot. Therefore, the POST is an effective way to detect if a CPU hardware problem exists.

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10. What is the maximum time between EAP exercises at CRO accounts?

Explanation

The maximum time between EAP exercises at CRO accounts is 6 months. This means that the exercises should be conducted at least once every 6 months to ensure that the accounts are properly reviewed and evaluated. This timeframe allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the accounts' performance and compliance with regulations.

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11. What is known as a state of the art ground to ground communications infrastructure?

Explanation

Theater deployable communications (TDC) is known as a state of the art ground to ground communications infrastructure. This system is designed to provide reliable and efficient communication capabilities in a theater of operations. It is specifically designed to be easily deployable and adaptable to different operational environments. TDC allows for seamless communication between different units and enables effective command and control in military operations.

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12. What TDC characteristic requires equipment setup times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

Explanation

The correct answer is Mobility. Mobility refers to the ability of equipment to be easily transported, deployed, and operated in a deployed environment. This characteristic requires that equipment setup times are kept to a minimum, ensuring that it can be quickly and efficiently moved and used in different locations. This is essential for military operations, where equipment needs to be rapidly deployed and relocated as needed.

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13. What TDC characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?

Explanation

Survivability is the TDC characteristic that requires equipment to be capable of operation and maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear. This means that the equipment must be designed to withstand and function in hazardous environments, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the personnel using it.

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14. What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?

Explanation

The phase concerned with exercises to ensure familiarity with the deployment process and equipment is called predeployment. This phase is crucial in preparing individuals or teams for deployment by conducting training exercises and drills. It allows them to practice and become familiar with the necessary procedures, protocols, and equipment required for a successful deployment. This preparation helps to minimize errors, increase efficiency, and ensure the safety and effectiveness of the deployment process.

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15. What is the classification of the combination to any security container?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the classification of the combination to any security container is determined by the highest classification of the material stored inside the container. Regardless of whether the container itself is marked or labeled, the combination to access the container will always have the same classification as the highest classified material it contains.

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16. This COMSEC material is accounted for continuously by quanity

Explanation

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17. Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

Explanation

The correct answer is Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS). CMOS is a type of integrated circuit technology that is used for constructing digital logic circuits and microprocessors. It is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge (ESD) because the small size and delicate nature of the CMOS components make them highly sensitive to voltage spikes and fluctuations. ESD can cause permanent damage to the CMOS circuitry, leading to malfunction or failure of the device. Therefore, proper ESD precautions must be taken when handling CMOS components to prevent damage.

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18. On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?

Explanation

Cache is a memory component found in most modern computers that has two or three levels. It is a smaller, faster memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions closer to the CPU, allowing for quicker access than retrieving it from the main memory. Cache acts as a buffer between the CPU and main memory, reducing the time it takes to access data and improving overall system performance.

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19. Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

Explanation

Polling refers to the process of actively sampling or checking the status of an external device by a client program. It involves regularly sending requests to the device to determine its current state or to retrieve data. This method allows the client program to gather information from the device in a systematic and controlled manner, ensuring that the device is responsive and providing real-time updates. Signaling, processing, and multitasking are not directly related to actively sampling the status of an external device.

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20. Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its entire lifecycle. It ensures that data is complete, whole, and intact, without any unauthorized modifications or corruption. Data integrity is crucial in maintaining the quality and trustworthiness of data, as it guarantees that the information is reliable and can be trusted for decision-making and analysis purposes.

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21. What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

Explanation

A parity bit is a technique used to check the integrity of data. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By comparing the number of 1s in the received data with the expected parity, errors can be detected. If the number of 1s does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission. Therefore, a parity bit is considered a technique or method of checking data integrity.

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22. What measure would you take to prevent the buildup of static electricity?

Explanation

To prevent the buildup of static electricity, grounding the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device is the correct measure to take. By grounding the device, any excess static charge will be safely dissipated into the ground, reducing the risk of damage or interference caused by electrostatic discharge. This is especially important for sensitive electronic equipment that can be easily damaged by static electricity. Checking the relative humidity level can also help prevent static buildup, as higher humidity levels can help dissipate static charges. Disconnecting the circuit from the device and turning the power switch off may be necessary in certain situations, but they do not specifically address the prevention of static electricity buildup.

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23. In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, reviewing the case history and ensuring that no steps were missed is done in the step of confirming the resolution. This step involves double-checking the actions taken to resolve the problem and verifying that the issue has been fully resolved. By reviewing the case history, it helps to ensure that all necessary steps were followed and there are no overlooked or missed actions that could potentially affect the resolution.

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24. What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?

Explanation

Cache is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used for special applications in a CPU. It is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve them when needed. Cache helps to improve the overall performance of the CPU by reducing the time it takes to access data from the main memory. This makes it an important component in modern computer systems, allowing for faster and more efficient processing.

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25. What is the first step you must stake when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?

Explanation

The first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that there is no power running through the device, which can help prevent any potential damage or harm during the installation or removal process. Grounding the ESDS device, checking the relative humidity level, and disconnecting the circuit from the device may be important steps to take as well, but they are not the first step that should be taken.

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26. This COMSEC material is not required to be tracked on the daily shift inventory

Explanation

The given statement suggests that the COMSEC material mentioned does not need to be included or accounted for in the daily shift inventory. This implies that the material in ALC 4 does not require regular monitoring or tracking, unlike the material in ALC 1, ALC 2, and ALC 3.

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27. AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?

Explanation

AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous 6 months of inventory. This means that the form is used to keep track of the current inventory as well as the inventory from the past 6 months. By retaining this information, organizations can have a record of their inventory history and use it for various purposes such as audits and analysis.

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28. If it is physically impossible to conduct and inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager

Explanation

If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager asks the user to verify his or her holdings by letter or message. This is the most practical solution in a situation where the user cannot be physically present for the inventory. Asking the user to verify their holdings through written communication allows for a record to be kept and ensures that the inventory is conducted accurately, even if it cannot be done in person.

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29. In which phase does the COMSEC Manager determine which materials the CRO officer needs?

Explanation

The COMSEC Manager determines which materials the CRO officer needs during the Preparation phase. This phase involves gathering and organizing all the necessary materials and resources for effective communication security. The COMSEC Manager assesses the requirements of the CRO officer and ensures that they have access to the appropriate materials to carry out their duties effectively.

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30. Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to 

Explanation

Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to transient aircrews. This is because transient aircrews are temporary personnel who are not permanently stationed at a particular base or location. Therefore, it is not necessary to keep track of the disposition or destruction of the material issued to them, as they will not be responsible for its long-term management or return.

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31. What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single SF 153?

Explanation

The maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single SF 153 is 1. This implies that there is only one specific action that can be performed on the SF 153 form, and no other actions or variations are possible.

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32. What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

Explanation

Read-only memory (ROM) is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains data even when the power is turned off. ROM is a type of memory that is pre-programmed with data during manufacturing and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. It contains firmware or software instructions that are permanently stored and used by the computer system. Unlike other types of memory such as RAM or EEPROM, ROM does not require power to maintain its data, making it nonvolatile and permanent.

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33. What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a CPU or synchronous event?

Explanation

An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU indicating that it requires attention. It can be either asynchronous, meaning it can occur at any time, or synchronous, meaning it occurs at a specific time. Interrupts allow the CPU to handle multiple tasks efficiently by temporarily suspending the current task and switching to a different task that requires attention. Therefore, an interrupt is the correct answer as it perfectly fits the definition given in the question.

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34. Which is a very simple example of an error-detecting code?

Explanation

A parity bit is a very simple example of an error-detecting code. It is a single bit that is added to a binary code to detect errors during transmission. The parity bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on the number of 1s in the code. If the number of 1s is even, the parity bit is set to 0, and if the number of 1s is odd, the parity bit is set to 1. During transmission, the receiver can check if the number of 1s in the received code matches the parity bit. If they don't match, an error is detected.

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35. What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

Explanation

The correct answer is Basic input output system (BIOS). The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices in a computer system. It is the first software that runs when a computer is powered on and performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check if all hardware components are functioning properly. If a keyboard or mouse is not found during the POST, the BIOS will send a message indicating the absence of these devices.

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36. What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?

Explanation

Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs between two objects at different electrical potentials. This phenomenon typically happens when there is a buildup of static electricity on one object, and it discharges to another object with a lower electrical potential. This discharge can result in a visible spark or shock and can potentially damage electronic components.

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37. The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called

Explanation

Fault isolation refers to the process of identifying and analyzing the cause of an operational failure or fault in order to prevent it from happening again. This involves collecting and analyzing data related to the failure, investigating the underlying factors, and implementing measures to prevent its recurrence. Fault isolation is an essential step in troubleshooting and problem-solving, as it helps to identify the root cause and develop effective solutions to prevent similar failures in the future.

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38. In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, the step of "Resolving the problem" involves identifying likely causes and eliminating unlikely causes. This step focuses on finding a solution to the problem by analyzing the potential causes and narrowing down the possibilities. By doing so, it helps to identify the root cause and implement the necessary actions to resolve the issue.

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39. What Rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) Hold?

Explanation

Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This indicates that the individuals responsible for primary communications security should have the rank of Staff Sergeant.

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40. After receiving their initial education in COMSEC account management, how often must communications responsible officers be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?  

Explanation

Communications responsible officers must be trained annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest information and procedures related to COMSEC account management. By receiving annual training, these officers can maintain their knowledge and skills, allowing them to effectively carry out their responsibilities and ensure the security of communications within their account.

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41. This COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number.

Explanation

This answer suggests that ALC 1 is the correct choice because it requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. This implies that ALC 1 has stricter protocols and measures in place to ensure the proper handling and tracking of COMSEC material.

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42.  At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly because changing the cipher lock combination frequently enhances security by reducing the chances of unauthorized access. Monthly changes ensure that if someone manages to obtain the current combination, they will have limited time to exploit it before it is changed again. This practice helps to mitigate the risk of potential security breaches and maintain the integrity of the cipher lock system.

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43. What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security Form 16?

Explanation

The preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials should be organized in alphabetical order based on their short titles. This method allows for easier and quicker access to specific materials as they can be easily located by their short titles.

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44. The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing offical duties is the 

Explanation

The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is the user. This person is responsible for properly handling and protecting communication security equipment and materials to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information. They must follow established procedures and protocols to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of classified information. The user plays a critical role in maintaining the security of communication systems and preventing potential threats or breaches.

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45. What is teh term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment?

Explanation

The term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment is "aids." This refers to any additional tools or resources that assist in the secure communication process, such as codebooks, key lists, or cryptographic algorithms. These aids are crucial for ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information.

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46. Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?

Explanation

A driver is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices. It acts as a translator between the operating system and the hardware, allowing the operating system to send commands and receive data from the hardware. Drivers are essential for the proper functioning of hardware devices, as they enable communication and ensure compatibility between the operating system and the hardware.

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47. In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting step of "Define the problem," you would gather information and analyze the situation to understand the issue at hand. This step involves identifying the symptoms, determining the scope of the problem, and clarifying any uncertainties. By defining the problem, you can then move on to the next steps, such as isolating the problem, resolving it, and confirming the resolution.

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48. Who provides uninterrupted flow of Mission Critical information to field units, in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?

Explanation

Sustained communications support teams are responsible for providing uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units and in-garrison units during a contingency. These teams ensure that communication systems are operational and maintained throughout the duration of the contingency, allowing for effective communication and coordination between different units.

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49. What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of COMSEC material?

Explanation

The SF 153 form is commonly used as a destruction certificate for COMSEC (Communications Security) material. This form is used to document the destruction of sensitive and classified information related to communication security. It serves as a record of the proper disposal of COMSEC material, ensuring that it is destroyed in a secure and controlled manner to prevent unauthorized access or use.

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50. In which folder of the COMSEC account 6-Part folder are destruction certificates filed?

Explanation

In the 6-Part folder of the COMSEC account, the destruction certificates are filed in folder number 6.

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51. Under what class of electrostatic discharge (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts? 

Explanation

An item that is sensitive to 900 volts would fall under Class I of electrostatic discharge (ESD). Class I represents the highest sensitivity level to ESD, where devices can be damaged or destroyed by even very low voltage levels.

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52. Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into a category.

Explanation

Items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category III. This implies that these items are moderately sensitive to electrostatic discharge. The given information does not provide any details about the sensitivity of items falling into categories I, II, or IV. Therefore, the correct answer is III.

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53. In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you verify that there is indeed an issue. This step involves gathering information, analyzing the symptoms, and narrowing down the possible causes of the problem. By isolating the problem, you can determine if there is a dilemma or if it is just a false alarm. It helps in identifying the specific area or component that is causing the problem, which then allows you to proceed with resolving it effectively.

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54. What is normally the next step in the boot-up process after the initial power is applied?

Explanation

After the initial power is applied, the keyboard lights should flash. This is a common indication that the computer is performing a power-on self-test (POST) to check the functionality of the keyboard. The flashing lights serve as a visual feedback to the user that the keyboard is recognized and operational. It is an early step in the boot-up process before other components are tested and the operating system is loaded into memory.

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55. Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation?

Explanation

Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute a cryptographic incident violation. This means that if someone fails to respond to an urgent message that requires the dissemination of encrypted information, it could lead to a violation related to the security and protection of cryptographic systems. It is important to promptly and appropriately respond to such messages to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of sensitive information.

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56. How long do you need  to maintain the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan exercises?

Explanation

The correct answer is 24 months because the question asks about the duration for which the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan exercises should be maintained. Since "semiannual" means twice a year, the documentation should be kept for two years or 24 months. This ensures that the records are available for future reference and can be reviewed if needed.

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57. What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed comm networks?

Explanation

ICAP is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed comm networks.

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58. What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 700. When changing a safe combination, you fill out and affix an SF 700 form to the inside of the locking drawer. This form is specifically designed for documenting safe combinations and is used for security and record-keeping purposes.

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59. Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?

Explanation

The next unused voucher number that is used on transfer reports comes from AFCOMSEC Form 14.

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60. In which phase does the CRO check the material issued against the list on SF 153?

Explanation

In the distribution phase, the CRO checks the material issued against the list on SF 153. This means that during this phase, the CRO is responsible for verifying that the correct materials are being distributed according to the list on SF 153.

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61. Which Air Force form do CMs use when conducting and inspection of a sum communications COMSEC account?

Explanation

CMs use Air Force form 4160 when conducting an inspection of a sum communications COMSEC account.

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62. Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US Government?

Explanation

The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US Government. The National Security Agency (NSA) is an intelligence organization that is responsible for collecting and analyzing foreign communications and protecting US government communications and information systems. As the head of the NSA, the DIRNSA has the authority and oversight to manage cryptographic material, which includes encryption and decryption keys, algorithms, and protocols, to ensure the security and integrity of classified information.

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63. The operational use and control of COMSEC material is overseen and managed by

Explanation

The operational use and control of COMSEC material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority. This authority is responsible for ensuring that proper protocols and procedures are followed to safeguard and protect sensitive information. They have the authority to grant access to COMSEC material, monitor its usage, and enforce security measures to prevent unauthorized disclosure. The controlling authority plays a crucial role in maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of COMSEC material.

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64. Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?

Explanation

The COMSEC Manager has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified. This individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the communication security measures within an organization. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the mission requirements and determine if a waiver is necessary and justified. The COMSEC Manager is entrusted with the responsibility of making decisions regarding waivers to ensure the security and effectiveness of communication systems.

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65. Who is the final approval authority for a person going into TPC positions?

Explanation

The final approval authority for a person going into TPC positions is the commander of the unit holding TPC material. This individual is responsible for ensuring that the person meets all the necessary requirements and qualifications to handle TPC material. They have the authority to grant or deny approval based on their assessment of the individual's capabilities and suitability for the position.

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66. Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number?

Explanation

The Cryptologic Support Group (CPSG) is responsible for establishing the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number. This means that CPSG determines the specific date on which the inventory of COMSEC items will be conducted for each account. The CPSG is likely to have the necessary expertise and authority to ensure that the inventory process is carried out effectively and in accordance with established protocols.

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67. What should each CRO do before signing the COMSEC hand receipt?

Explanation

Before signing the COMSEC hand receipt, each CRO should ensure that the required COMSEC material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue. This means that the CRO should verify that all necessary COMSEC items are accounted for and available for distribution. This step is crucial to ensure that the correct material is being issued and that there are no discrepancies or missing items. By confirming the presence and readiness of the required COMSEC material, the CRO can ensure the proper handling and security of sensitive information.

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68. What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards?

Explanation

A Certification Authority (CA) workstation is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards. A CA workstation is responsible for issuing and managing digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the identity of individuals, devices, or organizations in a network. It is a centralized system that generates and stores cryptographic keys, signs certificates, and manages the entire certificate lifecycle. The CA workstation ensures the security and integrity of the keying material and plays a crucial role in establishing secure communication within a network.

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69. This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment.

Explanation

The SF 701 form is used as a daily physical security inventory for the environment. It helps to keep track of the security measures and ensure that all necessary precautions are in place. This form allows for regular checks and updates to maintain the security of the environment.

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70. What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?

Explanation

Transport is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of material from one place to another by someone who has an active interest in that material. This term implies that there is a deliberate effort and intention behind the movement of the material, rather than it happening passively or randomly.

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71. Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans EAP on base?

Explanation

The Com security manager (CM) is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on base. They are responsible for ensuring the security and safety of the base, including emergency response plans. The CM oversees the development, implementation, and maintenance of EAPs, ensuring that they are up to date and effective in addressing potential emergencies. They work closely with other base personnel, such as the CRO (Chief Resilience Officer) and Unit Commander, to coordinate and execute emergency response actions. The MAJCOM (Major Command) may provide guidance and support, but the CM has the primary responsibility for EAPs on base.

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72. What TDC characteristic reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercial communications standards?

Explanation

Open System Standards refers to the use of established international or commercial communications standards in the module architecture. This means that the module is designed to be compatible and able to communicate with other systems that also adhere to these standards. This characteristic ensures that the module can seamlessly integrate and interact with other systems, promoting interoperability and compatibility.

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73. What is normally the next step in the boot-up process after the BIOS message appears on the monitor?

Explanation

After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot-up process is typically a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the computer's RAM to ensure that it is functioning properly. Once the memory test is completed, the operating system (OS) will then load into the memory and the user interface will appear.

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74. To ensure CROs are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the COMSEC material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

Explanation

The COMSEC manager is required to inspect the accounts of CROs (Contractor Responsible Officers) to ensure compliance with applicable directives and proper accounting of COMSEC (Communications Security) material. The inspections are conducted semi-annually, meaning they occur twice a year. This regular monitoring helps maintain the security and integrity of the COMSEC material and ensures that CROs are fulfilling their responsibilities effectively.

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75. Whenever COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended immediately, who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message? 

Explanation

CSGP stands for Communications Security Group Program. This program is responsible for developing original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message when there is a need to replace or amend COMSEC material immediately. The CSGP ensures the timely and secure transmission of sensitive information related to communications security.

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