3C051 : Computer Systems Operations Test! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/75 Questions

    What is the first job the basic input-output system (BIOS) does at start-up?

    • Run memory byte count.
    • Test for parity errors.
    • Load instructions to random access memory (RAM)
    • Run the power-on self-test (POST)
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About This Quiz

What are computer systems operations? A computer structure is a basic, complete, and functional computer, including all the hardware and software required to make it practical for any user. It should have the ability to receive user input, process data, and create information for future storage and input. Try taking this quiz and see what you know about computer systems See moreoperations.

3C051 : Computer Systems Operations Test! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

    • Read only memory (ROM)

    • Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS). CMOS is a type of integrated circuit technology that is used for constructing digital logic circuits and microprocessors. It is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge (ESD) because the small size and delicate nature of the CMOS components make them highly sensitive to voltage spikes and fluctuations. ESD can cause permanent damage to the CMOS circuitry, leading to malfunction or failure of the device. Therefore, proper ESD precautions must be taken when handling CMOS components to prevent damage.

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  • 3. 

    Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?

    • Read-only memory (ROM)

    • Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
    Explanation
    The CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor) component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. CMOS is responsible for storing the BIOS settings, including the date and time, boot order, and other configuration settings. The lithium battery provides backup power to the CMOS chip, ensuring that these settings are not lost when the computer is turned off or unplugged.

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  • 4. 

    What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

    • Read-only memory (ROM)

    • Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Read-only memory (ROM)
    Explanation
    Read-only memory (ROM) is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains data even when the power is turned off. ROM is a type of memory that is pre-programmed with data during manufacturing and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. It contains firmware or software instructions that are permanently stored and used by the computer system. Unlike other types of memory such as RAM or EEPROM, ROM does not require power to maintain its data, making it nonvolatile and permanent.

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  • 5. 

    What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

    • Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Cache

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic input output system (BIOS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Basic input output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system, and providing basic input and output services. BIOS is stored on a chip on the computer's motherboard and is the first software that runs when the computer is turned on. It is essential for the computer to boot up and function properly.

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  • 6. 

    What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Cache

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Cache
    Explanation
    Cache is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used for special applications in a CPU. It is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve them when needed. Cache helps to improve the overall performance of the CPU by reducing the time it takes to access data from the main memory. This makes it an important component in modern computer systems, allowing for faster and more efficient processing.

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  • 7. 

    On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Cache

    • Double Data Random Access Memory (DDRAM)

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Cache
    Explanation
    Cache is a memory component found in most modern computers that has two or three levels. It is a smaller, faster memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions closer to the CPU, allowing for quicker access than retrieving it from the main memory. Cache acts as a buffer between the CPU and main memory, reducing the time it takes to access data and improving overall system performance.

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  • 8. 

    Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

    • Polling

    • Signaling

    • Processing

    • Multitasking

    Correct Answer
    A. Polling
    Explanation
    Polling refers to the process of actively sampling or checking the status of an external device by a client program. It involves regularly sending requests to the device to determine its current state or to retrieve data. This method allows the client program to gather information from the device in a systematic and controlled manner, ensuring that the device is responsive and providing real-time updates. Signaling, processing, and multitasking are not directly related to actively sampling the status of an external device.

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  • 9. 

    What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a CPU or synchronous event?

    • Cache

    • Buffer

    • Interface

    • Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    A. Interrupt
    Explanation
    An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU indicating that it requires attention. It can be either asynchronous, meaning it can occur at any time, or synchronous, meaning it occurs at a specific time. Interrupts allow the CPU to handle multiple tasks efficiently by temporarily suspending the current task and switching to a different task that requires attention. Therefore, an interrupt is the correct answer as it perfectly fits the definition given in the question.

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  • 10. 

    What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ lines are used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. In the case of the floppy disk controller, it uses IRQ 6 to signal the CPU when it needs to perform read or write operations on the floppy disk. This allows the controller to efficiently communicate with the CPU and ensures that the necessary data transfer between the floppy disk and the computer can take place smoothly.

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  • 11. 

    Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

    • Driver

    • Parity Bit

    • Data Integrity

    • Error correction

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Integrity
    Explanation
    Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its entire lifecycle. It ensures that data is complete, whole, and intact, without any unauthorized modifications or corruption. Data integrity is crucial in maintaining the quality and trustworthiness of data, as it guarantees that the information is reliable and can be trusted for decision-making and analysis purposes.

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  • 12. 

    What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

    • Asynchronous

    • Parity Bit

    • Interrupt

    • Fault

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity Bit
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a technique used to check the integrity of data. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By comparing the number of 1s in the received data with the expected parity, errors can be detected. If the number of 1s does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission. Therefore, a parity bit is considered a technique or method of checking data integrity.

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  • 13. 

    Which is a very simple example of an error-detecting code?

    • Interrupt

    • Parity Bit

    • Asynchronous

    • Data integrity

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity Bit
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a very simple example of an error-detecting code. It is a single bit that is added to a binary code to detect errors during transmission. The parity bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on the number of 1s in the code. If the number of 1s is even, the parity bit is set to 0, and if the number of 1s is odd, the parity bit is set to 1. During transmission, the receiver can check if the number of 1s in the received code matches the parity bit. If they don't match, an error is detected.

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  • 14. 

    What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

    • Read only Memory (ROM)

    • Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic input output system (BIOS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Basic input output system (BIOS). The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices in a computer system. It is the first software that runs when a computer is powered on and performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check if all hardware components are functioning properly. If a keyboard or mouse is not found during the POST, the BIOS will send a message indicating the absence of these devices.

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  • 15. 

    Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?

    • Basic Input Output System (BIOS)

    • Driver

    • Parity

    • Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    A. Driver
    Explanation
    A driver is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices. It acts as a translator between the operating system and the hardware, allowing the operating system to send commands and receive data from the hardware. Drivers are essential for the proper functioning of hardware devices, as they enable communication and ensure compatibility between the operating system and the hardware.

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  • 16. 

    What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?

    • Voltage

    • Amperage

    • Conductivity

    • Electrostatic discharge

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrostatic discharge
    Explanation
    Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs between two objects at different electrical potentials. This phenomenon typically happens when there is a buildup of static electricity on one object, and it discharges to another object with a lower electrical potential. This discharge can result in a visible spark or shock and can potentially damage electronic components.

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  • 17. 

    Static electricity remains intact until it is

    • Absorbed

    • Dissolved

    • Discharged

    • Neutralized

    Correct Answer
    A. Discharged
    Explanation
    Static electricity is a build-up of electric charge on the surface of an object. It remains intact until it is discharged, meaning that the excess charge is released and the object returns to a neutral state. Discharging can occur through various means such as contact with another object, grounding, or the flow of electric current. Once discharged, the static electricity is no longer present, and the object is no longer electrically charged.

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  • 18. 

    Under what class of electrostatic discharge (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts? 

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    An item that is sensitive to 900 volts would fall under Class I of electrostatic discharge (ESD). Class I represents the highest sensitivity level to ESD, where devices can be damaged or destroyed by even very low voltage levels.

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  • 19. 

    Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into a category.

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. III
    Explanation
    Items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category III. This implies that these items are moderately sensitive to electrostatic discharge. The given information does not provide any details about the sensitivity of items falling into categories I, II, or IV. Therefore, the correct answer is III.

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  • 20. 

    What measure would you take to prevent the buildup of static electricity?

    • Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device

    • Check the relative humidity level

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device

    • Turn the power switch to the off position

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device
    Explanation
    To prevent the buildup of static electricity, grounding the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device is the correct measure to take. By grounding the device, any excess static charge will be safely dissipated into the ground, reducing the risk of damage or interference caused by electrostatic discharge. This is especially important for sensitive electronic equipment that can be easily damaged by static electricity. Checking the relative humidity level can also help prevent static buildup, as higher humidity levels can help dissipate static charges. Disconnecting the circuit from the device and turning the power switch off may be necessary in certain situations, but they do not specifically address the prevention of static electricity buildup.

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  • 21. 

    What is the first step you must stake when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?

    • Ground the ESDS device

    • Check the relative humidity level

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device

    • Turn the power switch to the off position

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn the power switch to the off position
    Explanation
    The first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that there is no power running through the device, which can help prevent any potential damage or harm during the installation or removal process. Grounding the ESDS device, checking the relative humidity level, and disconnecting the circuit from the device may be important steps to take as well, but they are not the first step that should be taken.

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  • 22. 

    The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called

    • Fault isolation

    • Event Isolation

    • Process Investigation

    • Analytical consideration

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault isolation
    Explanation
    Fault isolation refers to the process of identifying and analyzing the cause of an operational failure or fault in order to prevent it from happening again. This involves collecting and analyzing data related to the failure, investigating the underlying factors, and implementing measures to prevent its recurrence. Fault isolation is an essential step in troubleshooting and problem-solving, as it helps to identify the root cause and develop effective solutions to prevent similar failures in the future.

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  • 23. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Define the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting step of "Define the problem," you would gather information and analyze the situation to understand the issue at hand. This step involves identifying the symptoms, determining the scope of the problem, and clarifying any uncertainties. By defining the problem, you can then move on to the next steps, such as isolating the problem, resolving it, and confirming the resolution.

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  • 24. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolate the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you verify that there is indeed an issue. This step involves gathering information, analyzing the symptoms, and narrowing down the possible causes of the problem. By isolating the problem, you can determine if there is a dilemma or if it is just a false alarm. It helps in identifying the specific area or component that is causing the problem, which then allows you to proceed with resolving it effectively.

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  • 25. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Resolve the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the step of "Resolving the problem" involves identifying likely causes and eliminating unlikely causes. This step focuses on finding a solution to the problem by analyzing the potential causes and narrowing down the possibilities. By doing so, it helps to identify the root cause and implement the necessary actions to resolve the issue.

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  • 26. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirm the resolution
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, reviewing the case history and ensuring that no steps were missed is done in the step of confirming the resolution. This step involves double-checking the actions taken to resolve the problem and verifying that the issue has been fully resolved. By reviewing the case history, it helps to ensure that all necessary steps were followed and there are no overlooked or missed actions that could potentially affect the resolution.

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  • 27. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot-up process after the initial power is applied?

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system (OS) loads into the memory and user interface appears.

    Correct Answer
    A. The keyboard lights should flash
    Explanation
    After the initial power is applied, the keyboard lights should flash. This is a common indication that the computer is performing a power-on self-test (POST) to check the functionality of the keyboard. The flashing lights serve as a visual feedback to the user that the keyboard is recognized and operational. It is an early step in the boot-up process before other components are tested and the operating system is loaded into memory.

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  • 28. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot-up process after the BIOS message appears on the monitor?

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system (OS) loads into the memory and user interface appears.

    Correct Answer
    A. A memory test should be visible on the monitor
    Explanation
    After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot-up process is typically a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the computer's RAM to ensure that it is functioning properly. Once the memory test is completed, the operating system (OS) will then load into the memory and the user interface will appear.

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  • 29. 

    Normally the last step in the boot-up process is 

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system (OS) loads into the memory and user interface appears.

    Correct Answer
    A. The operating system (OS) loads into the memory and user interface appears.
    Explanation
    The last step in the boot-up process is when the operating system (OS) is loaded into the memory and the user interface appears. This signifies that the computer has finished its initialization process and is ready for the user to interact with it. The other options mentioned, such as the keyboard lights flashing, a memory test being visible on the monitor, or the hard disk drive access light coming on briefly, may occur during earlier stages of the boot-up process but are not the final step.

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  • 30. 

    What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist?

    • Event evaluation

    • Power On Self Test

    • Process investigation

    • Analytical consideration

    Correct Answer
    A. Power On Self Test
    Explanation
    The Power On Self Test (POST) is a diagnostic procedure performed by the computer's firmware during the boot process to check if the CPU hardware is functioning properly. It tests various components of the CPU, such as the memory, input/output devices, and other hardware components. If any issues or errors are detected during the POST, the computer may display error messages or fail to boot. Therefore, the POST is an effective way to detect if a CPU hardware problem exists.

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  • 31. 

    When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to

    • Review the schematic diagram for errors

    • Make a complete drawing of all the components

    • Call the manufacture and speak to customer service

    • Place masking tape to the cables and connection points

    Correct Answer
    A. Place masking tape to the cables and connection points
    Explanation
    One simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware is to place masking tape on the cables and connection points. This helps in labeling and distinguishing the cables, making it easier to identify and troubleshoot any issues.

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  • 32. 

    What Rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) Hold?

    • SSgt

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • Capt

    Correct Answer
    A. SSgt
    Explanation
    Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This indicates that the individuals responsible for primary communications security should have the rank of Staff Sergeant.

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  • 33. 

    Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?

    • COMSEC Manager

    • Unit Commander

    • Wing Commander

    • Wing Commanders with approval of COMSEC Managers

    Correct Answer
    A. COMSEC Manager
    Explanation
    The COMSEC Manager has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified. This individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the communication security measures within an organization. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the mission requirements and determine if a waiver is necessary and justified. The COMSEC Manager is entrusted with the responsibility of making decisions regarding waivers to ensure the security and effectiveness of communication systems.

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  • 34. 

    After receiving their initial education in COMSEC account management, how often must communications responsible officers be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?  

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-Annually

    • Annually

    • Biennially

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    Communications responsible officers must be trained annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest information and procedures related to COMSEC account management. By receiving annual training, these officers can maintain their knowledge and skills, allowing them to effectively carry out their responsibilities and ensure the security of communications within their account.

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  • 35. 

    To ensure CROs are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the COMSEC material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The COMSEC manager is required to inspect the accounts of CROs (Contractor Responsible Officers) to ensure compliance with applicable directives and proper accounting of COMSEC (Communications Security) material. The inspections are conducted semi-annually, meaning they occur twice a year. This regular monitoring helps maintain the security and integrity of the COMSEC material and ensures that CROs are fulfilling their responsibilities effectively.

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  • 36. 

    Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US Government?

    • Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA)

    • HQ USAF/SCX

    • Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)

    • Cryptologic support group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA)
    Explanation
    The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US Government. The National Security Agency (NSA) is an intelligence organization that is responsible for collecting and analyzing foreign communications and protecting US government communications and information systems. As the head of the NSA, the DIRNSA has the authority and oversight to manage cryptographic material, which includes encryption and decryption keys, algorithms, and protocols, to ensure the security and integrity of classified information.

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  • 37. 

    What is the classification of the combination to any security container?

    • Not classified

    • Always classified FOUO

    • Always classified confidential

    • Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container

    Correct Answer
    A. Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the classification of the combination to any security container is determined by the highest classification of the material stored inside the container. Regardless of whether the container itself is marked or labeled, the combination to access the container will always have the same classification as the highest classified material it contains.

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  • 38. 

    The operational use and control of COMSEC material is overseen and managed by

    • A controlling authority

    • COMSEC Manager

    • Installation commander

    • Cryptologic support group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. A controlling authority
    Explanation
    The operational use and control of COMSEC material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority. This authority is responsible for ensuring that proper protocols and procedures are followed to safeguard and protect sensitive information. They have the authority to grant access to COMSEC material, monitor its usage, and enforce security measures to prevent unauthorized disclosure. The controlling authority plays a crucial role in maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of COMSEC material.

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  • 39. 

    This COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number.

    • ALC 1

    • ALC 2

    • ALC 3

    • ALC 4

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC 1
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that ALC 1 is the correct choice because it requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. This implies that ALC 1 has stricter protocols and measures in place to ensure the proper handling and tracking of COMSEC material.

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  • 40. 

    This COMSEC material is accounted for continuously by quanity

    • ALC 1

    • ALC 2

    • ALC 3

    • ALC 4

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC 2
  • 41. 

    This COMSEC material is not required to be tracked on the daily shift inventory

    • ALC 1

    • ALC 2

    • ALC 3

    • ALC 4

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC 4
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that the COMSEC material mentioned does not need to be included or accounted for in the daily shift inventory. This implies that the material in ALC 4 does not require regular monitoring or tracking, unlike the material in ALC 1, ALC 2, and ALC 3.

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  • 42. 

    This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment.

    • SF 700

    • SF 701

    • SF 702

    • SF 703

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 701
    Explanation
    The SF 701 form is used as a daily physical security inventory for the environment. It helps to keep track of the security measures and ensure that all necessary precautions are in place. This form allows for regular checks and updates to maintain the security of the environment.

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  • 43. 

    What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?

    • SF 700

    • SF 701

    • SF 702

    • SF 703

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 700
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF 700. When changing a safe combination, you fill out and affix an SF 700 form to the inside of the locking drawer. This form is specifically designed for documenting safe combinations and is used for security and record-keeping purposes.

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  • 44. 

     At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    • Bi-annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because changing the cipher lock combination frequently enhances security by reducing the chances of unauthorized access. Monthly changes ensure that if someone manages to obtain the current combination, they will have limited time to exploit it before it is changed again. This practice helps to mitigate the risk of potential security breaches and maintain the integrity of the cipher lock system.

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  • 45. 

    What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security Form 16?

    • By Shelf arrangement

    • By drawer arrangement

    • Alphabetically by edition

    • Alphabetically by short title

    Correct Answer
    A. Alphabetically by short title
    Explanation
    The preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials should be organized in alphabetical order based on their short titles. This method allows for easier and quicker access to specific materials as they can be easily located by their short titles.

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  • 46. 

    AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 6

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous 6 months of inventory. This means that the form is used to keep track of the current inventory as well as the inventory from the past 6 months. By retaining this information, organizations can have a record of their inventory history and use it for various purposes such as audits and analysis.

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  • 47. 

    If it is physically impossible to conduct and inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager

    • Requests special temporary duty orders from CSGP

    • Requests TDY orders from MAJCOM

    • Conducts the inventory with the user by telephone

    • Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message

    Correct Answer
    A. Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message
    Explanation
    If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager asks the user to verify his or her holdings by letter or message. This is the most practical solution in a situation where the user cannot be physically present for the inventory. Asking the user to verify their holdings through written communication allows for a record to be kept and ensures that the inventory is conducted accurately, even if it cannot be done in person.

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  • 48. 

    Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number?

    • DIRNSA

    • HQ USAF/SCX

    • Air Force Communications Agency AFCA

    • Cryptologic support group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryptologic support group (CPSG)
    Explanation
    The Cryptologic Support Group (CPSG) is responsible for establishing the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number. This means that CPSG determines the specific date on which the inventory of COMSEC items will be conducted for each account. The CPSG is likely to have the necessary expertise and authority to ensure that the inventory process is carried out effectively and in accordance with established protocols.

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  • 49. 

    The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing offical duties is the 

    • User

    • Manager

    • Account manager

    • Responsible officer

    Correct Answer
    A. User
    Explanation
    The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is the user. This person is responsible for properly handling and protecting communication security equipment and materials to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information. They must follow established procedures and protocols to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of classified information. The user plays a critical role in maintaining the security of communication systems and preventing potential threats or breaches.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 23, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Societycat

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