3C051 : Computer Systems Operations Test! Trivia Quiz

75 Questions | Total Attempts: 41

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3C051 : Computer Systems Operations Test! Trivia Quiz

What are computer systems operations? A computer structure is a basic, complete, and functional computer, including all the hardware and software required to make it practical for any user. It should have the ability to receive user input, process data, and create information for future storage and input. Try taking this quiz and see what you know about computer systems operations.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the first job the basic input-output system (BIOS) does at start-up?
    • A. 

      Run memory byte count.

    • B. 

      Test for parity errors.

    • C. 

      Load instructions to random access memory (RAM)

    • D. 

      Run the power-on self-test (POST)

  • 2. 
    Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
    • A. 

      Read only memory (ROM)

    • B. 

      Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D. 

      Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 3. 
    Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?
    • A. 

      Read-only memory (ROM)

    • B. 

      Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D. 

      Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 4. 
    What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
    • A. 

      Read-only memory (ROM)

    • B. 

      Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D. 

      Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 5. 
    What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?
    • A. 

      Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • B. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • C. 

      Cache

    • D. 

      Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 6. 
    What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?
    • A. 

      Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • B. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • C. 

      Cache

    • D. 

      Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 7. 
    On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?
    • A. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • B. 

      Cache

    • C. 

      Double Data Random Access Memory (DDRAM)

    • D. 

      Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 8. 
    Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as
    • A. 

      Polling

    • B. 

      Signaling

    • C. 

      Processing

    • D. 

      Multitasking

  • 9. 
    What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a CPU or synchronous event?
    • A. 

      Cache

    • B. 

      Buffer

    • C. 

      Interface

    • D. 

      Interrupt

  • 10. 
    What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 11. 
    Which term describes that data is whole or complete?
    • A. 

      Driver

    • B. 

      Parity Bit

    • C. 

      Data Integrity

    • D. 

      Error correction

  • 12. 
    What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
    • A. 

      Asynchronous

    • B. 

      Parity Bit

    • C. 

      Interrupt

    • D. 

      Fault

  • 13. 
    Which is a very simple example of an error-detecting code?
    • A. 

      Interrupt

    • B. 

      Parity Bit

    • C. 

      Asynchronous

    • D. 

      Data integrity

  • 14. 
    What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?
    • A. 

      Read only Memory (ROM)

    • B. 

      Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • C. 

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D. 

      Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

  • 15. 
    Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?
    • A. 

      Basic Input Output System (BIOS)

    • B. 

      Driver

    • C. 

      Parity

    • D. 

      Interrupt

  • 16. 
    What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?
    • A. 

      Voltage

    • B. 

      Amperage

    • C. 

      Conductivity

    • D. 

      Electrostatic discharge

  • 17. 
    Static electricity remains intact until it is
    • A. 

      Absorbed

    • B. 

      Dissolved

    • C. 

      Discharged

    • D. 

      Neutralized

  • 18. 
    Under what class of electrostatic discharge (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts? 
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 19. 
    Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into a category.
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 20. 
    What measure would you take to prevent the buildup of static electricity?
    • A. 

      Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device

    • B. 

      Check the relative humidity level

    • C. 

      Disconnect the circuit from the device

    • D. 

      Turn the power switch to the off position

  • 21. 
    What is the first step you must stake when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?
    • A. 

      Ground the ESDS device

    • B. 

      Check the relative humidity level

    • C. 

      Disconnect the circuit from the device

    • D. 

      Turn the power switch to the off position

  • 22. 
    The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called
    • A. 

      Fault isolation

    • B. 

      Event Isolation

    • C. 

      Process Investigation

    • D. 

      Analytical consideration

  • 23. 
    In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?
    • A. 

      Define the problem

    • B. 

      Isolate the problem

    • C. 

      Resolve the problem

    • D. 

      Confirm the resolution

  • 24. 
    In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?
    • A. 

      Define the problem

    • B. 

      Isolate the problem

    • C. 

      Resolve the problem

    • D. 

      Confirm the resolution

  • 25. 
    In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?
    • A. 

      Define the problem

    • B. 

      Isolate the problem

    • C. 

      Resolve the problem

    • D. 

      Confirm the resolution

  • 26. 
    In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?
    • A. 

      Define the problem

    • B. 

      Isolate the problem

    • C. 

      Resolve the problem

    • D. 

      Confirm the resolution

  • 27. 
    What is normally the next step in the boot-up process after the initial power is applied?
    • A. 

      The keyboard lights should flash

    • B. 

      A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • C. 

      The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • D. 

      The operating system (OS) loads into the memory and user interface appears.

  • 28. 
    What is normally the next step in the boot-up process after the BIOS message appears on the monitor?
    • A. 

      The keyboard lights should flash

    • B. 

      A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • C. 

      The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • D. 

      The operating system (OS) loads into the memory and user interface appears.

  • 29. 
    Normally the last step in the boot-up process is 
    • A. 

      The keyboard lights should flash

    • B. 

      A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • C. 

      The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • D. 

      The operating system (OS) loads into the memory and user interface appears.

  • 30. 
    What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist?
    • A. 

      Event evaluation

    • B. 

      Power On Self Test

    • C. 

      Process investigation

    • D. 

      Analytical consideration

  • 31. 
    When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to
    • A. 

      Review the schematic diagram for errors

    • B. 

      Make a complete drawing of all the components

    • C. 

      Call the manufacture and speak to customer service

    • D. 

      Place masking tape to the cables and connection points

  • 32. 
    What Rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) Hold?
    • A. 

      SSgt

    • B. 

      TSgt

    • C. 

      MSgt

    • D. 

      Capt

  • 33. 
    Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?
    • A. 

      COMSEC Manager

    • B. 

      Unit Commander

    • C. 

      Wing Commander

    • D. 

      Wing Commanders with approval of COMSEC Managers

  • 34. 
    After receiving their initial education in COMSEC account management, how often must communications responsible officers be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?  
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Semi-Annually

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Biennially

  • 35. 
    To ensure CROs are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the COMSEC material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semi-annually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 36. 
    Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US Government?
    • A. 

      Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA)

    • B. 

      HQ USAF/SCX

    • C. 

      Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)

    • D. 

      Cryptologic support group (CPSG)

  • 37. 
    What is the classification of the combination to any security container?
    • A. 

      Not classified

    • B. 

      Always classified FOUO

    • C. 

      Always classified confidential

    • D. 

      Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container

  • 38. 
    The operational use and control of COMSEC material is overseen and managed by
    • A. 

      A controlling authority

    • B. 

      COMSEC Manager

    • C. 

      Installation commander

    • D. 

      Cryptologic support group (CPSG)

  • 39. 
    This COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number.
    • A. 

      ALC 1

    • B. 

      ALC 2

    • C. 

      ALC 3

    • D. 

      ALC 4

  • 40. 
    This COMSEC material is accounted for continuously by quanity
    • A. 

      ALC 1

    • B. 

      ALC 2

    • C. 

      ALC 3

    • D. 

      ALC 4

  • 41. 
    This COMSEC material is not required to be tracked on the daily shift inventory
    • A. 

      ALC 1

    • B. 

      ALC 2

    • C. 

      ALC 3

    • D. 

      ALC 4

  • 42. 
    This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment.
    • A. 

      SF 700

    • B. 

      SF 701

    • C. 

      SF 702

    • D. 

      SF 703

  • 43. 
    What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?
    • A. 

      SF 700

    • B. 

      SF 701

    • C. 

      SF 702

    • D. 

      SF 703

  • 44. 
     At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Bi-annually

  • 45. 
    What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security Form 16?
    • A. 

      By Shelf arrangement

    • B. 

      By drawer arrangement

    • C. 

      Alphabetically by edition

    • D. 

      Alphabetically by short title

  • 46. 
    AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      12

  • 47. 
    If it is physically impossible to conduct and inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager
    • A. 

      Requests special temporary duty orders from CSGP

    • B. 

      Requests TDY orders from MAJCOM

    • C. 

      Conducts the inventory with the user by telephone

    • D. 

      Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message

  • 48. 
    Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number?
    • A. 

      DIRNSA

    • B. 

      HQ USAF/SCX

    • C. 

      Air Force Communications Agency AFCA

    • D. 

      Cryptologic support group (CPSG)

  • 49. 
    The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing offical duties is the 
    • A. 

      User

    • B. 

      Manager

    • C. 

      Account manager

    • D. 

      Responsible officer

  • 50. 
    What is teh term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment?
    • A. 

      Aids

    • B. 

      Entities

    • C. 

      Supplies

    • D. 

      Materials

  • 51. 
    Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?
    • A. 

      AFCOMSEC Form 14

    • B. 

      AFCOMSEC Form 23

    • C. 

      SF 153

    • D. 

      SF 701

  • 52. 
    In which phase does the COMSEC Manager determine which materials the CRO officer needs?
    • A. 

      Protection

    • B. 

      Preparation

    • C. 

      Distribution

    • D. 

      Administration

  • 53. 
    In which phase does the CRO check the material issued against the list on SF 153?
    • A. 

      Protection

    • B. 

      Preparation

    • C. 

      Distribution

    • D. 

      Administration

  • 54. 
    What should each CRO do before signing the COMSEC hand receipt?
    • A. 

      Check the COMSEC managers clearance status

    • B. 

      Check to see the effective dates of material are correct

    • C. 

      Check the users clearance to ensure they are authorized to utilize the material

    • D. 

      Ensure the required COMSEC material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue

  • 55. 
    Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to 
    • A. 

      NATO Forces

    • B. 

      Transient aircrews

    • C. 

      Base COMSEC account itself

    • D. 

      Joint military operations

  • 56. 
    What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?
    • A. 

      Carrier

    • B. 

      Transfer

    • C. 

      Transport

    • D. 

      Shipment

  • 57. 
    What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single SF 153?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 58. 
    What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of COMSEC material?
    • A. 

      SF 153

    • B. 

      SF 700

    • C. 

      AFCOMSEC Form 14

    • D. 

      AFCOMSEC Form 16

  • 59. 
    In which folder of the COMSEC account 6-Part folder are destruction certificates filed?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      6

  • 60. 
    Whenever COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended immediately, who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message? 
    • A. 

      NSA

    • B. 

      CSGP

    • C. 

      MAJCOM

    • D. 

      CM

  • 61. 
    Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation?
    • A. 

      Failure to respond

    • B. 

      Withdrawn from use

    • C. 

      Long delay in pickup

    • D. 

      Cryptographic incident

  • 62. 
    Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans EAP on base?
    • A. 

      Com sercurity manager CM

    • B. 

      CRO

    • C. 

      Unit Commander

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 63. 
    How long do you need  to maintain the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan exercises?
    • A. 

      6 Month

    • B. 

      12 Month

    • C. 

      24 Month

    • D. 

      36 Month

  • 64. 
    Which Air Force form do CMs use when conducting and inspection of a sum communications COMSEC account?
    • A. 

      3215

    • B. 

      3718

    • C. 

      4160

    • D. 

      4500

  • 65. 
    What is the maximum time between EAP exercises at CRO accounts?
    • A. 

      1 Month

    • B. 

      2 Month

    • C. 

      6 Month

    • D. 

      12 Month

  • 66. 
    Who is the final approval authority for a person going into TPC positions?
    • A. 

      A doctor at the base Med facility

    • B. 

      The commander of the unit holding TPC material

    • C. 

      The COMSEC manager of a unit holding TPC material

    • D. 

      The wing commander of a unit holding TPC material

  • 67. 
    What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards?
    • A. 

      Certificate Repository

    • B. 

      Certification authority

    • C. 

      Registration management authority

    • D. 

      Certification authority workstation

  • 68. 
    What is known as a state of the art ground to ground communications infrastructure?
    • A. 

      COTS

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system

    • C. 

      Theater deployable communications TDC

    • D. 

      Integrated communications access package

  • 69. 
    What TDC characteristic reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercial communications standards?
    • A. 

      Mobility

    • B. 

      Survivability

    • C. 

      Interoperability

    • D. 

      Open System Standards

  • 70. 
    What TDC characteristic requires equipment setup times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?
    • A. 

      Mobility

    • B. 

      Survivability

    • C. 

      Interoperability

    • D. 

      Open System Standards

  • 71. 
    What TDC characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?
    • A. 

      Mobility

    • B. 

      Surviviability

    • C. 

      Interoperability

    • D. 

      Open System Standards

  • 72. 
    What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed comm networks?
    • A. 

      COTS

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams

    • C. 

      TDC

    • D. 

      ICAP

  • 73. 
    Who provides uninterrupted flow of Mission Critical information to field units, in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?
    • A. 

      Open system standards teams

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams

    • C. 

      Initial communications support teams

    • D. 

      Sustained communications support teams

  • 74. 
    Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?
    • A. 

      Manpower on equipment monitor

    • B. 

      Manager of deployable communications

    • C. 

      Unit deployed manager and commander

    • D. 

      Initial communications support monitor

  • 75. 
    What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?
    • A. 

      Deployment

    • B. 

      Re-Deployment

    • C. 

      Predeployment

    • D. 

      Reconstitution