2A672 Edit Code 7 Quiz
2A672 edit code 7.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
In an atom, this electron contains the most energy.
- A.
Stationary electrons
- B.
Orbiting electrons
- C.
Valence electrons
- D.
K shell electrons
Correct Answer
C. Valence electronsExplanation
Valence electrons are the electrons located in the outermost energy level of an atom. These electrons have the highest energy because they are furthest from the nucleus and are involved in chemical bonding. The other options, such as stationary electrons, orbiting electrons, and K shell electrons, do not necessarily have the highest energy. Stationary electrons refer to electrons in a fixed state, while orbiting electrons and K shell electrons are more general terms that do not specify the energy level. Therefore, valence electrons are the correct answer for the electron that contains the most energy in an atom.Rate this question:
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- 2.
When there are eight electrons in the outer most shell of an atom, it is considered
- A.
Charged
- B.
Unstable
- C.
Complete
- D.
Stable
Correct Answer
D. StableExplanation
When there are eight electrons in the outermost shell of an atom, it is considered stable. This is because the outermost shell, also known as the valence shell, is considered complete when it has eight electrons. This configuration is known as the octet rule and is observed in many elements. Having a complete valence shell allows the atom to have a stable electron configuration, making it less likely to form chemical bonds or undergo reactions.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as
- A.
Insulators
- B.
Conductors
- C.
Stable atoms
- D.
Semiconductors
Correct Answer
A. InsulatorsExplanation
Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as insulators. Insulators are materials that do not conduct electricity easily because their outermost electron shells are fully filled or close to being fully filled. This prevents the movement of electrons and the flow of electric current. Therefore, atoms with more than four electrons but less than eight are considered insulators as they have a stable electron configuration and do not readily allow the flow of electricity.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move
- A.
Inward
- B.
Outward
- C.
Inward, then outward
- D.
Outward, then inward
Correct Answer
B. OutwardExplanation
The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move outward. This is because positive ions have a deficiency of electrons, causing them to have a positive charge. As a result, the electric field lines originating from the positive ion move away from it, extending outward into the surrounding space. This movement of the electric field lines outward is a characteristic behavior of positive ions.Rate this question:
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- 5.
These factors affect the resistance of a material
- A.
Area, weight, and state of material
- B.
Area, temperature, and type of material
- C.
Temperature, weight, and state of material
- D.
Temperature, type of material, and state of material
Correct Answer
B. Area, temperature, and type of materialExplanation
The resistance of a material is affected by its area, temperature, and type of material. The area of a material determines how much current can flow through it, with larger areas allowing for more current. Temperature affects the resistance because as the temperature increases, the atoms in the material vibrate more, causing more collisions and increasing resistance. The type of material also plays a role, as different materials have different arrangements of atoms and different conductive properties, leading to varying levels of resistance.Rate this question:
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- 6.
In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1 = 9 amps; in the two parallel branches, I2 = 5 amps; and the value of I3 is not listed. Use Ohm’s law to find the value of I3 and IT.
- A.
I3=5 amps and IT=14 amps
- B.
I3=4 amps and IT=9 amps
- C.
I3=4 amps and IT=18 amps
- D.
Not enough information to solve
Correct Answer
B. I3=4 amps and IT=9 ampsExplanation
In a series-parallel circuit, the total current (IT) is the sum of the currents in the parallel branches. Since I2 is given as 5 amps, and there are no other currents mentioned in the parallel branches, IT must be 5 amps.
Using Ohm's law, we know that the total current in a series circuit is equal to the sum of the currents in each component. Since I1 is given as 9 amps, and I3 is not listed, we can subtract I1 from IT to find I3.
IT - I1 = I3
5 amps - 9 amps = I3
-4 amps = I3
Therefore, the value of I3 is 4 amps and the value of IT is 9 amps.Rate this question:
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- 7.
This is relative motion between a conductor and a magnetic field that causes voltage to be induced.
- A.
Reluctance
- B.
Direct current
- C.
Magnetism
- D.
Electromagnetic induction
Correct Answer
D. Electromagnetic inductionExplanation
Electromagnetic induction refers to the phenomenon where a voltage is induced in a conductor when it moves relative to a magnetic field. This occurs due to the interaction between the magnetic field and the electrons in the conductor. As the conductor cuts through the magnetic field lines, the electrons experience a force that causes them to move, thereby generating an electric current. This process is the basis for the functioning of devices like generators and transformers.Rate this question:
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- 8.
This is the basic principle of transformer operation.
- A.
Mutual induction
- B.
Magnetic induction
- C.
Counter electromotive force
- D.
Primary and secondary induction
Correct Answer
A. Mutual inductionExplanation
Mutual induction is the correct answer because it refers to the process in which a changing current in one coil induces a voltage in another coil that is in close proximity. This is the fundamental principle behind the operation of a transformer, where the primary coil induces a voltage in the secondary coil through mutual induction.Rate this question:
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- 9.
This transformer winding acts as a conductor and provides the path for the voltage to be induced into.
- A.
Stationary
- B.
Primary
- C.
Secondary
- D.
Field
Correct Answer
C. SecondaryExplanation
The secondary winding in a transformer is responsible for conducting the induced voltage. When an alternating current passes through the primary winding, it creates a changing magnetic field. This changing magnetic field then induces a voltage in the secondary winding, which acts as a conductor for this induced voltage. The secondary winding is connected to the load and transfers the electrical energy from the primary winding to the load. Therefore, the secondary winding is the correct answer as it provides the path for the voltage to be induced into.Rate this question:
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- 10.
If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?
- A.
Capacitance increases
- B.
Capacitance decreases
- C.
Capacitance remains the same
- D.
Capacitance increases only if the plate size doubles
Correct Answer
A. Capacitance increasesExplanation
When the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, the distance between the plates decreases, resulting in an increase in capacitance. This is because capacitance is directly proportional to the area of the plates and inversely proportional to the distance between them. Therefore, increasing the plate size effectively increases the area, leading to an increase in capacitance.Rate this question:
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- 11.
This statement best describes a capacitive circuit
- A.
Current leads applied voltage by 90 degrees.
- B.
Applied voltage leads current by 90 degrees
- C.
Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.
- D.
Has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged.
Correct Answer
A. Current leads applied voltage by 90 degrees.Explanation
A capacitive circuit is characterized by the fact that the current leads the applied voltage by 90 degrees. This means that the current reaches its maximum value before the voltage does. This behavior is due to the fact that capacitors store energy in an electric field and release it as current when the voltage changes. As the voltage increases, the capacitor charges up and the current starts to flow, leading to the 90-degree phase shift between the two.Rate this question:
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- 12.
This statement best describes a diode
- A.
It is a five-terminal device
- B.
It is a three-terminal device
- C.
It has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other
- D.
It has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged
Correct Answer
C. It has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the otherExplanation
A diode is a two-terminal device that allows current to flow in one direction and blocks it in the opposite direction. This is known as its ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.Rate this question:
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- 13.
How many electrons does the valance band of an intrinsic semiconductor have?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
Correct Answer
B. 4Explanation
The valence band of an intrinsic semiconductor has 4 electrons. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the valence band is fully occupied by electrons, and it is the highest energy band that electrons can occupy at absolute zero temperature. The valence band plays a crucial role in the electrical conductivity of the semiconductor as it determines the availability of electrons for conduction.Rate this question:
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- 14.
This is the area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material.
- A.
Dielectric region
- B.
Depletion region
- C.
Depletion field
- D.
PN region
Correct Answer
B. Depletion regionExplanation
The correct answer is "Depletion region." In a semiconductor, the depletion region refers to the area where P-type material is joined to N-type material. This region is characterized by a lack of majority charge carriers due to the diffusion and recombination of electrons and holes. The depletion region plays a crucial role in the operation of semiconductor devices such as diodes and transistors.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A bridge rectifier is installed in an alternating current (AC) circuit to
- A.
Decrease direct current (DC) pulses
- B.
Provide fullwave rectification
- C.
Provide halfwave rectification
- D.
Decrease ripple frequency
Correct Answer
B. Provide fullwave rectificationExplanation
A bridge rectifier is a circuit that converts alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC) by using a configuration of diodes. It allows the current to flow in only one direction, effectively eliminating the negative half of the AC waveform. This results in fullwave rectification, where both the positive and negative halves of the AC waveform are converted into a pulsating DC waveform. Therefore, the correct answer is that a bridge rectifier is installed in an AC circuit to provide fullwave rectification.Rate this question:
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- 16.
In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC)?
- A.
4
- B.
3
- C.
2
- D.
1
Correct Answer
C. 2Explanation
In a bridge rectifier circuit, there are four diodes arranged in a bridge configuration. During the first cycle of alternating current (AC), two diodes are forward biased and allow the current to flow in one direction, while the other two diodes are reverse biased and block the current flow. This arrangement ensures that the alternating current is converted into direct current. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.Rate this question:
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- 17.
This is how a zener diode is connected in a solid state circuit to regulate voltage.
- A.
In parallel to the load
- B.
In series with the load
- C.
In parallel to the resistor
- D.
In series with the resistor
Correct Answer
A. In parallel to the loadExplanation
A zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in a solid state circuit to regulate voltage. When connected in parallel, the zener diode allows current to flow through it when the voltage across the load exceeds its breakdown voltage. This causes the excess voltage to be dropped across the zener diode, effectively regulating the voltage across the load. Connecting the zener diode in parallel to the load ensures that it only conducts when necessary, preventing excessive voltage from damaging the load.Rate this question:
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- 18.
This is how is a zener diode is connected in a circuit to protect the load
- A.
In parallel to the resistor
- B.
In series with the load
- C.
In parallel to the load
- D.
Forward biased
Correct Answer
C. In parallel to the loadExplanation
A zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in order to protect it. When the voltage across the load exceeds the breakdown voltage of the zener diode, it starts conducting and provides a low resistance path for the excess current. This prevents the load from being damaged by the excessive voltage. By connecting the zener diode in parallel to the load, it ensures that the voltage across the load remains within a safe range.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has this many layers
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
D. 4Explanation
An SCR, also known as a thyristor, is a four-layer semiconductor device that acts as a switch. It consists of three P-N junctions and four layers of alternating P and N-type materials. These layers allow the SCR to control the flow of current in one direction by using a gate signal to trigger conduction. Therefore, the correct answer is 4, as an SCR has four layers.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In order to turn off a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the
- A.
Trigger current
- B.
Holding current
- C.
Variable current
- D.
Breakdown current
Correct Answer
B. Holding currentExplanation
To turn off a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the holding current. The holding current is the minimum current required to keep the SCR in the conducting state after it has been triggered. If the current falls below this threshold, the SCR will turn off and stop conducting. The holding current acts as a sort of "latch" to maintain the SCR's state until intentionally turned off.Rate this question:
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- 21.
This is the major difference between a NPN and PNP transistor.
- A.
A PNP transistor can only be used as a regulator
- B.
An NPN transistor can only be used as a switch
- C.
Direction of current flow
- D.
Number of junctions
Correct Answer
C. Direction of current flowExplanation
The major difference between a NPN and PNP transistor is the direction of current flow. In an NPN transistor, the current flows from the collector to the emitter, while in a PNP transistor, the current flows from the emitter to the collector. This difference in current flow direction is what determines the specific applications of each type of transistor.Rate this question:
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- 22.
If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, which type of transistor is it?
- A.
N-type
- B.
P-type
- C.
NPN
- D.
PNP
Correct Answer
C. NPNExplanation
If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, it indicates an NPN transistor. In an NPN transistor, the majority charge carriers are negative electrons, and the arrow symbolizes the direction of the conventional current flow. The base region in an NPN transistor is P-type, and the emitter and collector regions are N-type.Rate this question:
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- 23.
This is the circuit in a bipolar transistor that carries 5 percent of the current flow
- A.
Base circuit
- B.
Load circuit
- C.
Control circuit
- D.
Emitter-collector circuit
Correct Answer
C. Control circuitExplanation
The control circuit in a bipolar transistor regulates the flow of current. It is responsible for controlling the input to the base circuit, which in turn determines the output of the emitter-collector circuit. By adjusting the input to the base circuit, the control circuit can modulate the current flow in the transistor. Therefore, it makes sense that the circuit in question, which carries 5 percent of the current flow, is the control circuit.Rate this question:
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- 24.
These are the three leads of a unijunction transistor (UJT).
- A.
Anode, cathode, and gate
- B.
Emitter, base 1, and base 2
- C.
Emitter, collector, and base
- D.
Common emitter, common collector, and common base
Correct Answer
B. Emitter, base 1, and base 2Explanation
The correct answer is Emitter, base 1, and base 2. In a unijunction transistor (UJT), the emitter is the terminal from which the majority carriers (electrons) are emitted. Base 1 and base 2 are the two terminals that control the conduction of the UJT. The voltage applied to base 1 controls the emitter current, while the voltage applied to base 2 controls the conduction between emitter and base 1.Rate this question:
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- 25.
This is the purpose of a transistor amplifier
- A.
Controls current to the load.
- B.
Controls voltage to the load
- C.
Controls resistance to the load
- D.
Acts as a spike protector for the load
Correct Answer
A. Controls current to the load.Explanation
A transistor amplifier is designed to control the current to the load. It amplifies the input signal and adjusts the current flowing through the load based on the input signal. By controlling the current, the transistor amplifier can increase or decrease the power delivered to the load, allowing for signal amplification and manipulation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The emitter in a unijunction transistor always points toward the
- A.
Base 1 lead
- B.
Collector
- C.
Emitter
- D.
Gate
Correct Answer
A. Base 1 leadExplanation
The emitter in a unijunction transistor always points toward the base 1 lead because the base 1 lead is the control terminal of the transistor. The emitter is responsible for emitting the majority charge carriers, and it needs to be connected to the base 1 lead in order to control the flow of current through the transistor. By pointing the emitter towards the base 1 lead, the transistor is able to function properly and perform its intended operations.Rate this question:
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- 27.
This controls the firing time of the unijunction transistor (UJT).
- A.
Intrinsic standoff ratio
- B.
Resistance in the circuit
- C.
Capacitance in the circuit
- D.
Resistance and capacitance in the circuit
Correct Answer
D. Resistance and capacitance in the circuitExplanation
The firing time of a unijunction transistor (UJT) is controlled by the resistance and capacitance in the circuit. The resistance determines the charging and discharging time of the capacitor, which in turn affects the firing time of the UJT. By adjusting the values of resistance and capacitance, the firing time of the UJT can be controlled, allowing for precise timing in electronic circuits.Rate this question:
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- 28.
How many semiconductors make up a metal oxide varistor?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is a type of voltage-dependent resistor that is commonly used to protect electrical circuits from excessive voltage. It is made up of two semiconductors, typically zinc oxide, sandwiched between two metal plates. When a high voltage is applied, the MOV conducts and diverts the excess voltage to protect the circuit. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.Rate this question:
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- 29.
This component of the voltage regulator compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow.
- A.
Load rheostat
- B.
No load rheostat
- C.
Line drop switch
- D.
Voltage adjustment rheostat
Correct Answer
A. Load rheostatExplanation
The load rheostat is the correct answer because it compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow. This means that it can adjust the voltage output to compensate for any drop in voltage caused by the resistance in the power cable. By sensing the changes in current flow, the load rheostat can make necessary adjustments to maintain a stable voltage output.Rate this question:
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- 30.
You are operating an A/M32A–86D generator set at governed speed, but voltage doesn’t build up. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S1 is in the automatic position
- B.
R61 is turned fully clockwise
- C.
K16 contacts are closing
- D.
K23 contacts are open
Correct Answer
D. K23 contacts are openExplanation
The probable cause of the voltage not building up in the A/M32A-86D generator set is that the K23 contacts are open.Rate this question:
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- 31.
After performing an operational check of the A/M32A–86D generator set, you proceed to shut the unit down. After the generator stops, you notice the engine ON light continues to be illuminated. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S46 open
- B.
S48 open
- C.
S46 closed
- D.
S48 closed
Correct Answer
D. S48 closedExplanation
The probable cause of the engine ON light continuing to be illuminated after shutting down the generator is S48 being closed. This suggests that there is a fault in the circuitry or wiring related to the engine ON light, causing it to remain powered even when the generator is turned off.Rate this question:
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- 32.
During operation of the A/M32A–86D generator set, you get no response when you place S13 in the GENERATE position. A check for voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts direct current (VDC). Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
M4 is open
- B.
S53 is open
- C.
K23 is open
- D.
K16 is open
Correct Answer
B. S53 is openExplanation
The probable cause of the trouble is that S53 is open. This means that the switch S53, which is likely responsible for activating the generator set, is not functioning properly. As a result, when S13 is placed in the GENERATE position, there is no response because the necessary circuit through S53 is not being completed.Rate this question:
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- 33.
During an operational check of the A/M32A–86D generator set, the shutdown solenoid energizes immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S48 open
- B.
S46 open
- C.
S49 shorted
- D.
S22 stuck open
Correct Answer
C. S49 shortedExplanation
The probable cause of the shutdown solenoid energizing immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates is that the S49 component is shorted. This means that there is an unintended connection or pathway between the solenoid and another component, causing it to receive power and activate prematurely.Rate this question:
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- 34.
During operation of the A/M32A–86D generator set, the low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the generator set does not shut down. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
A2
- B.
DS50
- C.
S55 is closed
- D.
S48 is closed
Correct Answer
A. A2Explanation
The probable cause of the low coolant light illuminating but the generator set not shutting down is that there is a fault in the DS50 circuit. This could be due to a malfunctioning sensor or a wiring issue.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Where is the best point to check voltage going to the A/M32A–86D generator exciter field?
- A.
J8, terminal D-F
- B.
J8, terminal V-X
- C.
VR1, terminal C-R
- D.
Automatic-manual switch S1
Correct Answer
A. J8, terminal D-FExplanation
The best point to check voltage going to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field is at J8, terminal D-F.Rate this question:
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- 36.
An A/M32A–86D is operating and the alternating current (AC)voltmeter is reading 200 volts alternating current (VAC) on all three phases. Which do you do?
- A.
Adjust VR1
- B.
Adjust R61
- C.
Adjust VR1 or R61
- D.
Switch S15 to the L-N position
Correct Answer
D. Switch S15 to the L-N positionExplanation
Switching S15 to the L-N position is the correct action to take in this situation. This will change the voltmeter from reading the voltage across all three phases to reading the voltage between the line and neutral. By doing this, the voltmeter will now display the correct voltage reading, which is likely to be around 120 volts.Rate this question:
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- 37.
An A/M32A–86D generator set is sent to the shop on a Red X for “will not apply power to the aircraft.” During the operational check, you place S5 in the closed position and the contactor light illuminates. When you release the switch, the contactor opens. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S2 is open
- B.
R46 is open
- C.
K2 is closed
- D.
K17 is closed
Correct Answer
B. R46 is openExplanation
The probable cause of this trouble is that R46 is open. When S5 is placed in the closed position, it activates the contactor, causing the contactor light to illuminate. However, when the switch is released, the contactor should remain closed, but it opens instead. This indicates that there is an issue with R46, which is likely open and preventing the contactor from staying closed.Rate this question:
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- 38.
While operating an A/M32A–86D at governed speed, you place S13 in the BUILD UP position and the UNDERVOLTAGE light comes on. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
Voltage regulator
- B.
Plug interlock relay
- C.
Memory time delay relay
- D.
Overvoltage/undervoltage relay
Correct Answer
C. Memory time delay relayExplanation
The memory time delay relay is the probable cause of the trouble because when S13 is placed in the BUILD UP position, it activates the memory time delay relay. If the memory time delay relay is faulty or malfunctioning, it can cause the UNDERVOLTAGE light to come on.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The A/M32A–86D generator set is supplying 115 volts alternating current (VAC) to the aircraft and all of a sudden the AC contactor opens and there is no voltage indication on M2. Which is the probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
Load contactor
- B.
CR 17 forward biased
- C.
Overvoltage/undervoltage relay
- D.
Memory time-delay relay energized
Correct Answer
D. Memory time-delay relay energizedExplanation
The probable cause of this trouble is that the memory time-delay relay is energized. This relay is designed to introduce a delay in the circuit, allowing for a time delay before the contactor closes or opens. In this case, the memory time-delay relay being energized could have caused a delay in the closing of the AC contactor, resulting in the opening of the contactor and no voltage indication on M2.Rate this question:
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- 40.
You are driving on the flight line and notice an A/M32A–86D power unit with all the fault lights on. You try to reset S23, but the lights stay on. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S30 is shorted
- B.
S23 is stuck open
- C.
K17 contacts are closed
- D.
K23 contacts are closed
Correct Answer
A. S30 is shortedExplanation
The probable cause of the trouble is that S30 is shorted. This is because the question states that all the fault lights on the power unit are on, and when the individual tries to reset S23, the lights stay on. This indicates that there is a problem with S23, and the most likely issue is that S30 is shorted, preventing S23 from being reset properly.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When troubleshooting any electrical system, start by first finding the
- A.
Common ground bus
- B.
Main circuit breaker
- C.
External power source
- D.
Last known source of power
Correct Answer
D. Last known source of powerExplanation
When troubleshooting any electrical system, it is important to start by identifying the last known source of power. This is because if there is a problem with the power source, such as a power outage or a tripped circuit breaker, it can cause the entire system to malfunction. By checking the last known source of power, the technician can determine if there is a problem with the power supply before proceeding with further troubleshooting steps.Rate this question:
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- 42.
To test the load contactor relay K1 using test probes, in which position must the automatic-manual voltage control switch be placed?
- A.
AUTOMATIC
- B.
MANUAL
- C.
TEST
- D.
OFF
Correct Answer
A. AUTOMATICExplanation
To test the load contactor relay K1 using test probes, the automatic-manual voltage control switch must be placed in the AUTOMATIC position. This is because the automatic position allows the relay to function according to the predetermined voltage control settings, which is necessary for testing the relay's operation. Placing the switch in any other position may disrupt the normal functioning of the relay and affect the test results.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which component on the B809A generator set fuel system distributes and delivers an accurate amount of fuel to the engine cylinders?
- A.
Injector pump
- B.
Transfer pump
- C.
Injector nozzles
- D.
Throttle actuator
Correct Answer
A. Injector pumpExplanation
The injector pump is responsible for distributing and delivering an accurate amount of fuel to the engine cylinders. It is a key component in the fuel system of the B809A generator set. The injector pump ensures that the fuel is delivered at the right pressure and timing to optimize the combustion process in the engine. Without the injector pump, the engine may not receive the correct amount of fuel, leading to poor performance and potential damage.Rate this question:
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- 44.
This B809A generator set speed control system component produces a frequency pulse train for engine speed reference.
- A.
Magnetic pick-up
- B.
Engine speed governor
- C.
Speed trim potentiometer
- D.
Speed control potentiometer
Correct Answer
A. Magnetic pick-upExplanation
The magnetic pick-up is the correct answer because it is a component of the B809A generator set speed control system that produces a frequency pulse train for engine speed reference. This means that it detects the speed of the engine and generates a pulse train that can be used to control the speed of the generator set. The other options, engine speed governor, speed trim potentiometer, and speed control potentiometer, do not perform this specific function in the speed control system.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set control the alternating current (AC) input to the voltage regulator?
- A.
Engine fault
- B.
Regulator fault
- C.
Generator fault
- D.
Contactor fault
Correct Answer
C. Generator faultExplanation
The contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set that control the AC input to the voltage regulator are referred to as "Generator fault." These contacts are responsible for monitoring and detecting any faults or issues related to the generator's operation. If there is a fault in the generator, these contacts will signal the voltage regulator to take appropriate action to rectify the problem and ensure the smooth operation of the generator set.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which signal powers the regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter field of the B809A generator?
- A.
28.5 volts direct current (VDC)
- B.
110 VDC
- C.
115 volts alternating current (VAC)
- D.
200 VAC
Correct Answer
B. 110 VDCExplanation
The regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter field of the B809A generator is powered by 110 VDC.Rate this question:
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- 47.
This action occurs when the B809A generator set alternating current (AC) card senses an AC supply fault
- A.
Only generator output stops
- B.
Only the AC contactor opens
- C.
AC supply warning light illuminates
- D.
AC contactor opens and generator output stops
Correct Answer
D. AC contactor opens and generator output stopsExplanation
When the B809A generator set alternating current (AC) card senses an AC supply fault, the AC contactor opens and the generator output stops. This means that the connection between the generator and the electrical load is interrupted, causing the generator to stop supplying power. The opening of the AC contactor is a safety measure to prevent any potential damage to the generator or the electrical system in the event of an AC supply fault.Rate this question:
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- 48.
While operating a B809A generator, which switch is closed to provide potential to the exciter field?
- A.
S1, master switch
- B.
S5, run/idle toggle switch
- C.
S3, interlock toggle switch
- D.
PB2, output control pushbutton switch
Correct Answer
B. S5, run/idle toggle switchExplanation
The correct answer is S5, run/idle toggle switch. This switch is closed to provide potential to the exciter field while operating the B809A generator.Rate this question:
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- 49.
During high voltage operation of the B809A generator set, what action occurs to prevent the direct current (DC) contactors from closing?
- A.
High sense relay (HSR) energizes
- B.
Interlock (INT) relay energizes
- C.
INT relay de-energizes
- D.
HSR de-energizes
Correct Answer
D. HSR de-energizesExplanation
During high voltage operation of the B809A generator set, the HSR (High sense relay) de-energizes to prevent the direct current (DC) contactors from closing. This is likely a safety measure to avoid any potential damage or malfunction that could occur if the contactors were to close during high voltage operation. By de-energizing the HSR, it ensures that the contactors remain open and prevents any unwanted electrical connections.Rate this question:
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- 50.
If there is a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles
- A.
Connect TB4–11 to 14 volt direct current (VDC) power source
- B.
Check the field transformer
- C.
Field flash the generator
- D.
Check the fault display
Correct Answer
C. Field flash the generatorExplanation
If there is a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles, the generator needs to be field flashed. Field flashing involves connecting the TB4-11 terminal to a 14 volt direct current (VDC) power source. This will restore the residual magnetism in the field poles and allow the generator to produce electricity. Checking the field transformer and fault display are also important steps in diagnosing and resolving the issue, but the immediate action required is to field flash the generator.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jan 29, 2018Quiz Created by
Thames
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