2a553a Volumes 1-6

44 Questions | Total Attempts: 336

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz is designed around URE questions that have a pass rate lower than 70%.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The TO that list all Air Force MPTO is TO 
    • A. 

      0-1-1

    • B. 

      00-1-02

    • C. 

      00-1-20

    • D. 

      0-1-02

  • 2. 
      The Air Force TO that gives detailed instructions for preparing and submitting an AFTO Form 22 is
    • A. 

      00-5-2

    • B. 

      00-20 series

    • C. 

      00-5-1

    • D. 

      00-5-15

  • 3. 
    What publication contains broad, enduring guidance for preparing and employing AF resources?
    • A. 

      AF manuals

    • B. 

      AF policy directives

    • C. 

      AF doctrine documents

    • D. 

      Mission directives

  • 4. 
    The REMIS is designed to provide information to support AF
    • A. 

      Data for the DDN

    • B. 

      Data for the IMDS

    • C. 

      Document production data for the MDC system

    • D. 

      Equipment maintenance program

  • 5. 
    Which inspection is more extensive that the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections, and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection? 
    • A. 

      Minor

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Phase

    • D. 

      Major

  • 6. 
    What is the structure of a Military Standard 1553B data word?
    • A. 

      32 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit

    • B. 

      20 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit

    • C. 

      32 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits

    • D. 

      20 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits

  • 7. 
    Which is not a type of solderless connector?
    • A. 

      Connector plug pins

    • B. 

      Terminal lug

    • C. 

      Splice

    • D. 

      Connector splice

  • 8. 
    What schedules task execution that selects the inertial navigation unit's mode, performs mode initialization, provides geographic-oriented system outputs (including data representing Earth radii and gravity vectors), monitors the INU's performance, and reports system failures?
    • A. 

      Avionics operational flight program

    • B. 

      Built-in test function

    • C. 

      Preprocessor formatting software

    • D. 

      Operational flight program

  • 9. 
    In a frequency-modulated signal, the amount of separation between the sideband frequencies is equal to the
    • A. 

      Rate of carrier swing

    • B. 

      Carrier frequency

    • C. 

      Amplitude of the modulating signal

    • D. 

      Modulating frequency

  • 10. 
    The low-pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a frequency-modulated transmitter is designed to prevent
    • A. 

      The lower sideband from being transmitted

    • B. 

      The audio signal from the audio amplifier from tuning the

    • C. 

      Correction voltage changes caused by the modulating signals

    • D. 

      Carrier frequency feedback from tuning the reactance modulator

  • 11. 
    In a signal-sideband system, which mode of operation transmits both sidebands and deletes the carrier?
    • A. 

      Independent sideband

    • B. 

      Amplitude-modulate equivalent

    • C. 

      Single-sideband suppressed carrier

    • D. 

      Single-sideband transmission

  • 12. 
    In a single-sideband transmitter, the balance modulator's output consists of the
    • A. 

      Lower sideband only

    • B. 

      Upper sideband only

    • C. 

      Carrier and upper and lower sidebands

    • D. 

      Upper and lower sidebands

  • 13. 
    In an amplitude-modulated receiver, the detector circuit responds only to the
    • A. 

      Frequency variations of the intermediate-frequency signal

    • B. 

      Pulse width of the intermediate-frequency signal

    • C. 

      Rate of frequency deviation of the intermediate-frequency signal

    • D. 

      Amplitude variations of the intermediate-frequency signal

  • 14. 
    Which VHF radio system has the best chance of receiving a signal from a station located beyond the horizon?
    • A. 

      Super-high frequency

    • B. 

      Very-high frequency frequency modulation

    • C. 

      Very-high frequency amplitude modulation

    • D. 

      Ultra-high frequency

  • 15. 
    On which frequencies can the ARC-186 VHF radio not transmit in the AM mode? 
    • A. 

      38 to 87.975 MHz

    • B. 

      108 to 151.975 MHz

    • C. 

      116 to 151.975 MHz

    • D. 

      30 to 87.975 MHz

  • 16. 
    The AN/ARC-210 receiver/transmitter does not provide
    • A. 

      Half-duplex, two-way communications of normal and secure voice frequency-modulated signals

    • B. 

      Transmit-only mode of operation of normal and secure voice from 108.000 to 117.9975 MHz AM

    • C. 

      Receive-only mode of operation of normal and secure voice from 108.000 to 117.9975 MHz AM

    • D. 

      Half-duplex, two-way communications of normal and secure voice AM signals

  • 17. 
    In VOR mode, what information is sent to the HSI by the ARN-147 VOR/localizer receiver? 
    • A. 

      TO/FROM, heading, and relative bearing

    • B. 

      Left/right deviation, flag alarm, and TO/FROM

    • C. 

      Relative bearing, flag alarm, and heading

    • D. 

      Flag alarm, distance, and left/right deviation

  • 18. 
    If the HSI indicator displays a magnetic heading of 45 degrees and magnetic bearing of 5 degrees to the tactical air navigation station, the the relative bearing is 
    • A. 

      45 degrees

    • B. 

      225 degrees

    • C. 

      320 degrees

    • D. 

      40 degrees

  • 19. 
    In the tactical air navigation mode, each dot on the HSI represents an error from the selected course of 
    • A. 

      10.0 degrees

    • B. 

      1.25 degrees

    • C. 

      2.50 degrees

    • D. 

      5.0 degrees

  • 20. 
    The IFF information pulses used for mode 1 replies are
    • A. 

      A1, A22, A4, B1, and B2

    • B. 

      A1, A2, A3, B1, and B4

    • C. 

      A1, B1, B2, B4, and C1

    • D. 

      A1, A4, B1, B4, and C1

  • 21. 
    The maximum number of IFF reply codes that can be selected in mode 1 is
    • A. 

      1064

    • B. 

      73

    • C. 

      77

    • D. 

      32

  • 22. 
    When the IDENT switch is activated, the IFF transponder automatically transmits an identification of position reply for
    • A. 

      10 seconds

    • B. 

      30 seconds

    • C. 

      20 seconds

    • D. 

      25 seconds

  • 23. 
    With the IFF antenna switch in the BOTH position, each IFF antenna is alternately selected
    • A. 

      45 times per second

    • B. 

      25 times per second

    • C. 

      33 times per second

    • D. 

      38 times per second

  • 24. 
    How many complete reply trains for identification of position (I/P) operation are generated by the coding circuits when the IFF system's I/P control circuits are enabled? 
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      One

  • 25. 
    The Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System surveys valid transponder traffic that is approximately 
    • A. 

      10-20 NMs fwd, 5-15 NMs, aft, and 10-40 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    • B. 

      10-40 NMs fwd, 5-15 NMs, aft, and 10-20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    • C. 

      15-40 NMs fwd, 10-20 NMs, aft, and 5-15 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    • D. 

      15-40 NMs fwd, 5-15 NMs, aft, and 10-20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

  • 26. 
    What ASC-19(V)3 SATCOM system LRU contains all controls for UHF LOS operation and for switching system control for satellite operation?
    • A. 

      C-10091/A control power supply

    • B. 

      MD-1035/A telegraph modem

    • C. 

      C-10357 SATCOM control panel

    • D. 

      C-9665(V)1/A radio set control

  • 27. 
    What ASC-19(V)3 SATCOM system component controls the TT-712/A printer operation? 
    • A. 

      C-10091/A control power supply

    • B. 

      MD-1035/A telegraph modem

    • C. 

      C-10090/A keyboard

    • D. 

      C-10357 SATCOM control panel

  • 28. 
    What is the purpose of the KY-100 secure voice system main terminal unit?
    • A. 

      Controls plain text, cipher, and guard transmission levels

    • B. 

      Encodes and decodes transmitted and received audio signals

    • C. 

      Converts digital voice text into analog cipher text for radio-frequency transmission

    • D. 

      Established operating mode selection and code zeroing

  • 29. 
    What is the electrical difference between the record and playback processes in video tape recorders? 
    • A. 

      The playback signal is positively biased; the record signal is negatively biased

    • B. 

      Playback is a current function; record is a voltage function

    • C. 

      The playback signal is negatively biased; the record signal is positively biased

    • D. 

      Playback is a voltage function; record is a current function

  • 30. 
    The frequency response of a video tape recorder is determined by the
    • A. 

      Head gap width and tape width

    • B. 

      Slant angle of the tape and tape width

    • C. 

      Head gap width and tape speed

    • D. 

      Slant angle of the tape and tape speed

  • 31. 
    In a video tape recorder, what is the frequency of the pulse generator sampling signals used in the servo control circuits when the drum speed is 1,800 revolutions per minute? 
    • A. 

      60 Hz

    • B. 

      30 Hz

    • C. 

      120 Hz

    • D. 

      90 Hz

  • 32. 
    In the airborne video tape recorder unit, the event mark signal is recorded on
    • A. 

      The same track as the audio signal

    • B. 

      One of the audio channels

    • C. 

      The same track as the servo control signal

    • D. 

      Both audio channels

  • 33. 
    Which FLIR set sensor component receives the video output from the sensor unit?
    • A. 

      Signal data converter

    • B. 

      Video post processor

    • C. 

      Focal plan array

    • D. 

      Gimbal assembly

  • 34. 
    The electronics that provide control of the FLIR set's cryocooler compressor are contained in the 
    • A. 

      Cryocooler

    • B. 

      Signal data converter

    • C. 

      Video post processor

    • D. 

      Sensor unit

  • 35. 
    You do not use the UPM-145 radar test set to test receiver-transmitter
    • A. 

      Transmitter bandwidth

    • B. 

      Frequency

    • C. 

      Receiver bandwidth

    • D. 

      Power

  • 36. 
    Which entry is not provided by the UPN-145 radar test set keyboard? 
    • A. 

      Range rate

    • B. 

      Pulse width

    • C. 

      Pulse timing

    • D. 

      Range

  • 37. 
    Which is not a purpose of flag notes (numbered flags) on a schematic diagram? 
    • A. 

      Refer to information too lengthy to fit on the face of the diagram

    • B. 

      Denote that information can be found on different pages

    • C. 

      Refer to information too lengthy to fit in the margin of the diagram

    • D. 

      Refer to frequently repeated information

  • 38. 
    What LRU controls the overall reading/writing of information on the data transfer set data cartridges? 
    • A. 

      Transmitter control

    • B. 

      Radar data terminal

    • C. 

      Electrical equipment mounting base

    • D. 

      Mass storage device

  • 39. 
    The controls and displays display electronics unit transfers data to avionics multiplex data bus 
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      A

  • 40. 
    The data presented on the multifunction displays is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Navigation/auxiliary control

    • B. 

      Radar set control

    • C. 

      Integrated keyboard

    • D. 

      Bomb/navigation

  • 41. 
    Which control is used by the offensive system operator to enable the electronic counter-countermeasures radar mode of operation?
    • A. 

      Navigation/auxiliary

    • B. 

      Radar set

    • C. 

      Central integrated test system control and display

    • D. 

      Bomb/navigation

  • 42. 
    The NAV UPDATE ACPT switchlight on the bomb/navigation control commands the navigation system to accept 
    • A. 

      Certain types of computed data that must first be manually evaluated

    • B. 

      The inputs from the radar, altimeter, and Doppler velocity sensor systems

    • C. 

      Emergency override data information which the offensive systems operator manually enters

    • D. 

      The information inputs which the offensive systems operator manually enters

  • 43. 
    The STEER FLY TO switchlight on the bomb/navigation control is used to manually select 
    • A. 

      Another sequence point for navigation update

    • B. 

      Another sequence as the next destination

    • C. 

      The current crosshair position as the next destination

    • D. 

      The next offset aim point

  • 44. 
    What is the purpose of the Multifunctional Information Distribution System data terminal?
    • A. 

      Transmit secure data messages across the demand assigned multiple access satellite network

    • B. 

      Extend networks beyond the local area

    • C. 

      Provide line of sight connectivity to a local area network

    • D. 

      Provide accurate positional data for the data link terminal