2a553a Volumes 1-6

44 Questions | Attempts: 336
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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz is designed around URE questions that have a pass rate lower than 70%.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The TO that list all Air Force MPTO is TO 

    • A.

      0-1-1

    • B.

      00-1-02

    • C.

      00-1-20

    • D.

      0-1-02

    Correct Answer
    D. 0-1-02
  • 2. 

      The Air Force TO that gives detailed instructions for preparing and submitting an AFTO Form 22 is

    • A.

      00-5-2

    • B.

      00-20 series

    • C.

      00-5-1

    • D.

      00-5-15

    Correct Answer
    C. 00-5-1
  • 3. 

    What publication contains broad, enduring guidance for preparing and employing AF resources?

    • A.

      AF manuals

    • B.

      AF policy directives

    • C.

      AF doctrine documents

    • D.

      Mission directives

    Correct Answer
    C. AF doctrine documents
  • 4. 

    The REMIS is designed to provide information to support AF

    • A.

      Data for the DDN

    • B.

      Data for the IMDS

    • C.

      Document production data for the MDC system

    • D.

      Equipment maintenance program

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment maintenance program
  • 5. 

    Which inspection is more extensive that the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections, and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection? 

    • A.

      Minor

    • B.

      Periodic

    • C.

      Phase

    • D.

      Major

    Correct Answer
    B. Periodic
  • 6. 

    What is the structure of a Military Standard 1553B data word?

    • A.

      32 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit

    • B.

      20 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit

    • C.

      32 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits

    • D.

      20 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits

    Correct Answer
    B. 20 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit
  • 7. 

    Which is not a type of solderless connector?

    • A.

      Connector plug pins

    • B.

      Terminal lug

    • C.

      Splice

    • D.

      Connector splice

    Correct Answer
    D. Connector splice
  • 8. 

    What schedules task execution that selects the inertial navigation unit's mode, performs mode initialization, provides geographic-oriented system outputs (including data representing Earth radii and gravity vectors), monitors the INU's performance, and reports system failures?

    • A.

      Avionics operational flight program

    • B.

      Built-in test function

    • C.

      Preprocessor formatting software

    • D.

      Operational flight program

    Correct Answer
    D. Operational flight program
  • 9. 

    In a frequency-modulated signal, the amount of separation between the sideband frequencies is equal to the

    • A.

      Rate of carrier swing

    • B.

      Carrier frequency

    • C.

      Amplitude of the modulating signal

    • D.

      Modulating frequency

    Correct Answer
    D. Modulating frequency
  • 10. 

    The low-pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a frequency-modulated transmitter is designed to prevent

    • A.

      The lower sideband from being transmitted

    • B.

      The audio signal from the audio amplifier from tuning the

    • C.

      Correction voltage changes caused by the modulating signals

    • D.

      Carrier frequency feedback from tuning the reactance modulator

    Correct Answer
    C. Correction voltage changes caused by the modulating signals
  • 11. 

    In a signal-sideband system, which mode of operation transmits both sidebands and deletes the carrier?

    • A.

      Independent sideband

    • B.

      Amplitude-modulate equivalent

    • C.

      Single-sideband suppressed carrier

    • D.

      Single-sideband transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Independent sideband
  • 12. 

    In a single-sideband transmitter, the balance modulator's output consists of the

    • A.

      Lower sideband only

    • B.

      Upper sideband only

    • C.

      Carrier and upper and lower sidebands

    • D.

      Upper and lower sidebands

    Correct Answer
    D. Upper and lower sidebands
  • 13. 

    In an amplitude-modulated receiver, the detector circuit responds only to the

    • A.

      Frequency variations of the intermediate-frequency signal

    • B.

      Pulse width of the intermediate-frequency signal

    • C.

      Rate of frequency deviation of the intermediate-frequency signal

    • D.

      Amplitude variations of the intermediate-frequency signal

    Correct Answer
    D. Amplitude variations of the intermediate-frequency signal
  • 14. 

    Which VHF radio system has the best chance of receiving a signal from a station located beyond the horizon?

    • A.

      Super-high frequency

    • B.

      Very-high frequency frequency modulation

    • C.

      Very-high frequency amplitude modulation

    • D.

      Ultra-high frequency

    Correct Answer
    B. Very-high frequency frequency modulation
  • 15. 

    On which frequencies can the ARC-186 VHF radio not transmit in the AM mode? 

    • A.

      38 to 87.975 MHz

    • B.

      108 to 151.975 MHz

    • C.

      116 to 151.975 MHz

    • D.

      30 to 87.975 MHz

    Correct Answer
    B. 108 to 151.975 MHz
  • 16. 

    The AN/ARC-210 receiver/transmitter does not provide

    • A.

      Half-duplex, two-way communications of normal and secure voice frequency-modulated signals

    • B.

      Transmit-only mode of operation of normal and secure voice from 108.000 to 117.9975 MHz AM

    • C.

      Receive-only mode of operation of normal and secure voice from 108.000 to 117.9975 MHz AM

    • D.

      Half-duplex, two-way communications of normal and secure voice AM signals

    Correct Answer
    B. Transmit-only mode of operation of normal and secure voice from 108.000 to 117.9975 MHz AM
  • 17. 

    In VOR mode, what information is sent to the HSI by the ARN-147 VOR/localizer receiver? 

    • A.

      TO/FROM, heading, and relative bearing

    • B.

      Left/right deviation, flag alarm, and TO/FROM

    • C.

      Relative bearing, flag alarm, and heading

    • D.

      Flag alarm, distance, and left/right deviation

    Correct Answer
    B. Left/right deviation, flag alarm, and TO/FROM
  • 18. 

    If the HSI indicator displays a magnetic heading of 45 degrees and magnetic bearing of 5 degrees to the tactical air navigation station, the the relative bearing is 

    • A.

      45 degrees

    • B.

      225 degrees

    • C.

      320 degrees

    • D.

      40 degrees

    Correct Answer
    C. 320 degrees
  • 19. 

    In the tactical air navigation mode, each dot on the HSI represents an error from the selected course of 

    • A.

      10.0 degrees

    • B.

      1.25 degrees

    • C.

      2.50 degrees

    • D.

      5.0 degrees

    Correct Answer
    D. 5.0 degrees
  • 20. 

    The IFF information pulses used for mode 1 replies are

    • A.

      A1, A22, A4, B1, and B2

    • B.

      A1, A2, A3, B1, and B4

    • C.

      A1, B1, B2, B4, and C1

    • D.

      A1, A4, B1, B4, and C1

    Correct Answer
    A. A1, A22, A4, B1, and B2
  • 21. 

    The maximum number of IFF reply codes that can be selected in mode 1 is

    • A.

      1064

    • B.

      73

    • C.

      77

    • D.

      32

    Correct Answer
    D. 32
  • 22. 

    When the IDENT switch is activated, the IFF transponder automatically transmits an identification of position reply for

    • A.

      10 seconds

    • B.

      30 seconds

    • C.

      20 seconds

    • D.

      25 seconds

    Correct Answer
    C. 20 seconds
  • 23. 

    With the IFF antenna switch in the BOTH position, each IFF antenna is alternately selected

    • A.

      45 times per second

    • B.

      25 times per second

    • C.

      33 times per second

    • D.

      38 times per second

    Correct Answer
    D. 38 times per second
  • 24. 

    How many complete reply trains for identification of position (I/P) operation are generated by the coding circuits when the IFF system's I/P control circuits are enabled? 

    • A.

      Three

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      One

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
  • 25. 

    The Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System surveys valid transponder traffic that is approximately 

    • A.

      10-20 NMs fwd, 5-15 NMs, aft, and 10-40 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    • B.

      10-40 NMs fwd, 5-15 NMs, aft, and 10-20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    • C.

      15-40 NMs fwd, 10-20 NMs, aft, and 5-15 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    • D.

      15-40 NMs fwd, 5-15 NMs, aft, and 10-20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft

    Correct Answer
    D. 15-40 NMs fwd, 5-15 NMs, aft, and 10-20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft
  • 26. 

    What ASC-19(V)3 SATCOM system LRU contains all controls for UHF LOS operation and for switching system control for satellite operation?

    • A.

      C-10091/A control power supply

    • B.

      MD-1035/A telegraph modem

    • C.

      C-10357 SATCOM control panel

    • D.

      C-9665(V)1/A radio set control

    Correct Answer
    D. C-9665(V)1/A radio set control
  • 27. 

    What ASC-19(V)3 SATCOM system component controls the TT-712/A printer operation? 

    • A.

      C-10091/A control power supply

    • B.

      MD-1035/A telegraph modem

    • C.

      C-10090/A keyboard

    • D.

      C-10357 SATCOM control panel

    Correct Answer
    A. C-10091/A control power supply
  • 28. 

    What is the purpose of the KY-100 secure voice system main terminal unit?

    • A.

      Controls plain text, cipher, and guard transmission levels

    • B.

      Encodes and decodes transmitted and received audio signals

    • C.

      Converts digital voice text into analog cipher text for radio-frequency transmission

    • D.

      Established operating mode selection and code zeroing

    Correct Answer
    B. Encodes and decodes transmitted and received audio signals
  • 29. 

    What is the electrical difference between the record and playback processes in video tape recorders? 

    • A.

      The playback signal is positively biased; the record signal is negatively biased

    • B.

      Playback is a current function; record is a voltage function

    • C.

      The playback signal is negatively biased; the record signal is positively biased

    • D.

      Playback is a voltage function; record is a current function

    Correct Answer
    D. Playback is a voltage function; record is a current function
  • 30. 

    The frequency response of a video tape recorder is determined by the

    • A.

      Head gap width and tape width

    • B.

      Slant angle of the tape and tape width

    • C.

      Head gap width and tape speed

    • D.

      Slant angle of the tape and tape speed

    Correct Answer
    C. Head gap width and tape speed
  • 31. 

    In a video tape recorder, what is the frequency of the pulse generator sampling signals used in the servo control circuits when the drum speed is 1,800 revolutions per minute? 

    • A.

      60 Hz

    • B.

      30 Hz

    • C.

      120 Hz

    • D.

      90 Hz

    Correct Answer
    B. 30 Hz
  • 32. 

    In the airborne video tape recorder unit, the event mark signal is recorded on

    • A.

      The same track as the audio signal

    • B.

      One of the audio channels

    • C.

      The same track as the servo control signal

    • D.

      Both audio channels

    Correct Answer
    B. One of the audio channels
  • 33. 

    Which FLIR set sensor component receives the video output from the sensor unit?

    • A.

      Signal data converter

    • B.

      Video post processor

    • C.

      Focal plan array

    • D.

      Gimbal assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. Signal data converter
  • 34. 

    The electronics that provide control of the FLIR set's cryocooler compressor are contained in the 

    • A.

      Cryocooler

    • B.

      Signal data converter

    • C.

      Video post processor

    • D.

      Sensor unit

    Correct Answer
    C. Video post processor
  • 35. 

    You do not use the UPM-145 radar test set to test receiver-transmitter

    • A.

      Transmitter bandwidth

    • B.

      Frequency

    • C.

      Receiver bandwidth

    • D.

      Power

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitter bandwidth
  • 36. 

    Which entry is not provided by the UPN-145 radar test set keyboard? 

    • A.

      Range rate

    • B.

      Pulse width

    • C.

      Pulse timing

    • D.

      Range

    Correct Answer
    C. Pulse timing
  • 37. 

    Which is not a purpose of flag notes (numbered flags) on a schematic diagram? 

    • A.

      Refer to information too lengthy to fit on the face of the diagram

    • B.

      Denote that information can be found on different pages

    • C.

      Refer to information too lengthy to fit in the margin of the diagram

    • D.

      Refer to frequently repeated information

    Correct Answer
    B. Denote that information can be found on different pages
  • 38. 

    What LRU controls the overall reading/writing of information on the data transfer set data cartridges? 

    • A.

      Transmitter control

    • B.

      Radar data terminal

    • C.

      Electrical equipment mounting base

    • D.

      Mass storage device

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitter control
  • 39. 

    The controls and displays display electronics unit transfers data to avionics multiplex data bus 

    • A.

      D

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    C. C
  • 40. 

    The data presented on the multifunction displays is controlled by the

    • A.

      Navigation/auxiliary control

    • B.

      Radar set control

    • C.

      Integrated keyboard

    • D.

      Bomb/navigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Navigation/auxiliary control
  • 41. 

    Which control is used by the offensive system operator to enable the electronic counter-countermeasures radar mode of operation?

    • A.

      Navigation/auxiliary

    • B.

      Radar set

    • C.

      Central integrated test system control and display

    • D.

      Bomb/navigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Navigation/auxiliary
  • 42. 

    The NAV UPDATE ACPT switchlight on the bomb/navigation control commands the navigation system to accept 

    • A.

      Certain types of computed data that must first be manually evaluated

    • B.

      The inputs from the radar, altimeter, and Doppler velocity sensor systems

    • C.

      Emergency override data information which the offensive systems operator manually enters

    • D.

      The information inputs which the offensive systems operator manually enters

    Correct Answer
    A. Certain types of computed data that must first be manually evaluated
  • 43. 

    The STEER FLY TO switchlight on the bomb/navigation control is used to manually select 

    • A.

      Another sequence point for navigation update

    • B.

      Another sequence as the next destination

    • C.

      The current crosshair position as the next destination

    • D.

      The next offset aim point

    Correct Answer
    B. Another sequence as the next destination
  • 44. 

    What is the purpose of the Multifunctional Information Distribution System data terminal?

    • A.

      Transmit secure data messages across the demand assigned multiple access satellite network

    • B.

      Extend networks beyond the local area

    • C.

      Provide line of sight connectivity to a local area network

    • D.

      Provide accurate positional data for the data link terminal

    Correct Answer
    C. Provide line of sight connectivity to a local area network

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 29, 2013
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 13, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Egramza
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