Test For Medical Students

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  • 1/28 Questions

    Which is the only leukocyte that, after entering the connective tissue from the bloodstream, can re-enter the bloodstream?

    • Lymphocyte
    • Neutrophil
    • Monocyte
    • Basophil
    • Thrombocyte
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About This Quiz

Below is a Test for medical students. It is ideal for those students that are reading up for their final exams and need a refresher on the topics they have covered in class. Do give this quiz a try and get an idea of which topics you need to put more effort on or research more on. All the best!

Test For Medical Students - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    One of your patients was a mechanic who worked on automobile exhaust     systems exclusively. He came into your clinic drowsy and with pink cheeks.     He claimed that he often fainted when he exerted himself. Laboratory data show a remarkably increased carboxyhemoglobin level in the blood. The best     explanation for this finding is that carbon monoxide

    • Increases the hydrogen ion concentration causing oxyhemoglobin to precipitate

    • Changes the valence state of iron in hemoglobin

    • Competitively displaces oxygen from oxyhemoglobin.

    • Converts myoglobin to carboxyhemoglobin at a rapid rate

    • Prevents transfer of oxygen across the alveolar membranes

    Correct Answer
    A. Competitively displaces oxygen from oxyhemoglobin.
    Explanation
    Carbon monoxide competitively displaces oxygen from oxyhemoglobin. This means that carbon monoxide has a higher affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen, so it binds to hemoglobin more readily. This leads to a decrease in the amount of oxygen that can bind to hemoglobin, resulting in reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. This explains the patient's symptoms of drowsiness and fainting when exerting himself. The increased carboxyhemoglobin level in the blood confirms the presence of carbon monoxide poisoning.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following would be supporting evidence that a patient’s complaint of tiredness has an autoimmune basis?

    • Low levels of anti antibody

    • Suicidal thoughts

    • A past history of tiredness

    • A family history of systemic lupus

    • Thyroid gland is palpable

    Correct Answer
    A. A family history of systemic lupus
    Explanation
    A family history of systemic lupus would be supporting evidence that a patient's complaint of tiredness has an autoimmune basis. Systemic lupus is an autoimmune disease that can cause fatigue as one of its symptoms. Therefore, if a patient has a family history of systemic lupus, it suggests that there may be a genetic predisposition to autoimmune conditions, which could explain the patient's tiredness.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following are abundant in bone marrow stroma?

    • Skeletal muscle cells

    • T lymphocytes

    • Macrophages

    • Smooth muscle cells

    • Platelets

    Correct Answer
    A. Macrophages
    Explanation
    Macrophages are abundant in bone marrow stroma. Bone marrow stroma consists of various types of cells and tissues that support the growth and development of blood cells. Macrophages are a type of immune cell that play a crucial role in the immune response by engulfing and digesting pathogens, dead cells, and other debris. They are found in high numbers in the bone marrow stroma, where they contribute to the regulation of hematopoiesis, the process of blood cell formation.

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  • 5. 

    In the sarcomeres, the thick filaments are anchored to the Z disks by

    • Nebulin

    • C protein

    • Titin

    • ą-actinin

    • Myomesin

    Correct Answer
    A. Titin
    Explanation
    Titin is a giant protein that spans the entire length of the sarcomere and is responsible for connecting the thick filaments to the Z disks. It acts as a molecular spring, providing elasticity and stability to the sarcomere. Titin also plays a role in regulating muscle contraction and contributes to the overall structure and organization of the sarcomere. Therefore, it is the correct answer for the question.

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  • 6. 

    A 22 year old girl complained of pain in the foot and swelling of the first metatarsal base for 2 weeks after being pricked by a thorn during a hike. This had caused her to limp and she had to visit her family physician. On physical examination which of the following lymph nodes are most likely to be enlarged and palpable?

    • Popliteal

    • Inguinal

    • Pre aortic

    • Para aortic

    • Lumbar

    Correct Answer
    A. Inguinal
    Explanation
    The inguinal lymph nodes are most likely to be enlarged and palpable in this case. The patient complained of pain in the foot and swelling of the first metatarsal base, indicating an infection or inflammation in the foot. The lymphatic drainage from the foot and lower leg region is primarily to the inguinal lymph nodes, making them the most likely to be affected in this scenario.

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  • 7. 

    Bipolar neurons are located in the

    • Dorsal root ganglia

    • Paravertebral ganglia

    • Retina

    • Olfactory epithelium and autonomic ganglia

    • Ventral horn and lateral horn of spinal cord

    Correct Answer
    A. Retina
    Explanation
    Bipolar neurons are located in the retina. The retina is the innermost layer of the eye and contains several types of neurons, including bipolar neurons. These neurons have two processes, or extensions, that transmit signals from the photoreceptor cells to other retinal cells. Bipolar neurons play a crucial role in the initial processing of visual information before it is sent to the brain for further interpretation.

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  • 8. 

    A 52 year old male drinks alcohol excessively. You pose the CAGE questions to him to determine if he may have a drinking problem. Which single question from the CAGE questions may on its own be indicative that he is physically dependent on alcohol?

    • C (Cut down)

    • A (Angry)

    • G (Guilty)

    • E (Eye opener)

    Correct Answer
    A. E (Eye opener)
    Explanation
    The CAGE questionnaire is a tool used to screen for alcoholism. Each letter in CAGE represents a question. "E" stands for "Eye opener" and refers to whether the person feels the need to drink alcohol first thing in the morning to steady their nerves or get rid of a hangover. If the person answers "yes" to this question, it suggests that they may be physically dependent on alcohol, as they require it to function or alleviate withdrawal symptoms.

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  • 9. 

    A 32 year old skier visited his family physician for pain and persistent numbness along the plantar aspect of the foot. New ski boots may have been the cause of the problem, and physical exam was unremarkable except for diminished sharp/dull and two point discrimination in the sole. Tinel’s was positive over the tarsal tunnel, radiographs were normal, and electromyography and nerve conduction velocity revealed a problem in which of the following nerves?

    • Saphenous nerve

    • Tibial nerve

    • Common Fibular nerve

    • Sural nerve

    • Femoral nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Tibial nerve
    Explanation
    The patient is experiencing pain and persistent numbness along the plantar aspect of the foot, which suggests a problem with the nerves in that area. The physical exam revealed diminished sharp/dull and two-point discrimination in the sole, indicating sensory deficits. Tinel's sign was positive over the tarsal tunnel, which is a common site for entrapment of the tibial nerve. Radiographs were normal, ruling out any bony abnormalities. Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity tests confirmed a problem with the tibial nerve. Therefore, the correct answer is the Tibial nerve.

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  • 10. 
    Select the diagram with the dotted line that represents the change in fluid volume that will occur as a result of drinking 1 gallon of pure water in 20 minutes without urinating. - ProProfs

    Select the diagram with the dotted line that represents the change in fluid volume that will occur as a result of drinking 1 gallon of pure water in 20 minutes without urinating.

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. C
  • 11. 

    An entrance of sodium inside the cell at the synapse level through ligand gated sodium channels will generate:

    • A membrane potential

    • An excitatory post-synaptic potential

    • An inhibitory post-synaptic potential

    • An action potential if the concentration of sodium outside the cell is high enough

    • Nothing

    Correct Answer
    A. An excitatory post-synaptic potential
    Explanation
    When sodium enters the cell through ligand-gated sodium channels at the synapse level, it will cause a change in the membrane potential. This change in membrane potential is known as an excitatory post-synaptic potential (EPSP). EPSPs are depolarizations that make the neuron more likely to generate an action potential. Therefore, the correct answer is an excitatory post-synaptic potential.

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  • 12. 

    In an experiment you want to shorten the duration of a skeletal muscle contraction. There are different possibilities to achieve this goal. One is:

    • To block the Ca2+ ATPase activity of cell membrane

    • To block the Ca2+ ATPase activity of sarcoplasmic membrane

    • To increase Ca2+ entry through DHP receptors

    • To increase Ca2+ release through ryanodin receptors

    • To increase the activity of Ca2+/3Na+ exchanger

    Correct Answer
    A. To increase the activity of Ca2+/3Na+ exchanger
    Explanation
    Increasing the activity of the Ca2+/3Na+ exchanger would lead to an increased exchange of calcium ions (Ca2+) out of the cell in exchange for sodium ions (Na+). This would result in a decrease in the intracellular calcium concentration, which is necessary for muscle contraction. Therefore, increasing the activity of the Ca2+/3Na+ exchanger would effectively shorten the duration of a skeletal muscle contraction.

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  • 13. 

    In response to the sight of food it is common to salivate.  The preganglionic fibers that innervate the parotid gland arise from the?

    • Glossopharnygeal nerve

    • Facial nerve

    • Tympanic nerve

    • Vagus nerve

    • Oculomotor nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Glossopharnygeal nerve
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the glossopharyngeal nerve. The glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for innervating the parotid gland, which is one of the salivary glands. When we see food, the glossopharyngeal nerve sends signals to the parotid gland, stimulating it to produce saliva in preparation for digestion.

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  • 14. 

    You are asked to perform a general physical exam on a young boy who suffered a bicycle accident two months previously.  Sensory testing (pinprick and vibration) is normal on both upper and lower limbs. Cranial nerve testing is unremarkable as well.  Left side deep tendon reflexes are normal but right side patellar and ankle reflexes are elevated.  What other signs might you expect in such a patient?

    • Positive babinski reflex

    • Negative babinski reflex

    • Muscle atrophy

    • Muscle fasiculations

    • Loss of tone

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive babinski reflex
    Explanation
    In a patient with elevated patellar and ankle reflexes on one side, a positive Babinski reflex would be expected. This reflex is characterized by the extension of the big toe and fanning of the other toes when the sole of the foot is stimulated. It is typically seen in conditions involving damage to the corticospinal tract, such as an upper motor neuron lesion. The presence of a positive Babinski reflex suggests that there may be an underlying neurological issue resulting from the bicycle accident. Other signs that may be expected in such a patient include muscle weakness, spasticity, and hyperreflexia on the affected side.

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  • 15. 

    What process underlies the refractory period?

    • The delayed reactivity of voltage-dependant gated potassium channels

    • The slow functioning of Na/K ATP-ase

    • The absence of graded gradient

    • The transient inactivation of ligand gated sodium channels

    • The transient inactivation of voltage-dependant gated sodium channels

    Correct Answer
    A. The transient inactivation of voltage-dependant gated sodium channels
    Explanation
    The refractory period refers to a period of time after an action potential where a neuron is unable to generate another action potential. This is due to the transient inactivation of voltage-dependent gated sodium channels. These channels are responsible for the rapid depolarization phase of an action potential. During the refractory period, these channels are temporarily unable to open, preventing the generation of another action potential. This allows for proper signaling and prevents excessive firing of neurons.

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  • 16. 

    Which form of the following contractions is typical for skeletal but not for cardiac muscle?

    • Isotonic contraction

    • Isometric contraction

    • Single twitches

    • Fused twitches

    Correct Answer
    A. Fused twitches
    Explanation
    Fused twitches are a form of contraction that is typical for skeletal muscle but not for cardiac muscle. In fused twitches, the individual twitches of the muscle fibers fuse together, resulting in a sustained contraction. This is characteristic of skeletal muscle, which can generate sustained contractions for activities like lifting weights or maintaining posture. In contrast, cardiac muscle contracts in a coordinated and rhythmic manner, producing a steady and continuous contraction without the fusion of individual twitches. Therefore, fused twitches are not typical for cardiac muscle.

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  • 17. 

    Dr. Yin Which of the following statements concerning neurons is correct?

    • Microtubule and neurofilaments are found in soma, dendrites and axon.

    • Dendrites conduct impulse from the cell body towards the effector organ.

    • Some neurons have two axons

    • There are basophilic granular structures within axon called Nissl bodies.

    • Bipolar neurons do not have axons

    Correct Answer
    A. Microtubule and neurofilaments are found in soma, dendrites and axon.
    Explanation
    Microtubules and neurofilaments are structural components found in neurons that provide support and help in transporting substances within the cell. They are present not only in the soma (cell body) but also in dendrites and axons. This statement correctly describes the distribution of microtubules and neurofilaments in neurons.

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  • 18. 

    Nerve tracts running through the caudal medulla develop ventral to the sulcus limitans and eventually form the pyramids. Based on the position of their embryological development, the functional association of the pyramids is

    • Somatic sensory

    • Visceral sensory

    • Special sensory

    • Motor

    • Sympathetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Motor
    Explanation
    The pyramids, which develop ventral to the sulcus limitans in the caudal medulla, are primarily associated with motor functions. This suggests that the correct answer is "motor."

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  • 19. 

    The vasodilation associated with erection is mediated by which of the following?

    • A neurotransmitter packed in vesicles

    • A neurotransmitter that works via metabatropic receptors

    • A retrograde neurotransmitter

    • A gaseous neurotransmitter

    • The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS

    • More than one above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. More than one above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "more than one above". This is because the vasodilation associated with erection is mediated by multiple factors, including neurotransmitters that are packed in vesicles, neurotransmitters that work via metabotropic receptors, retrograde neurotransmitters, and gaseous neurotransmitters. Therefore, more than one of the options provided can contribute to the vasodilation associated with erection.

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  • 20. 

    Ectopia Cordis or Pentalogy of Cantrell is a congenital malformation of the anterior body wall that includes a defect of the lower sternum, a deficient anterior diaphragm, and a heart that lies outside the chest. This condition is primarily a defect in what embryological process?

    • Formation of the intraembryonic coelom

    • Lateral folding

    • Formation of the intermediate mesoderm

    • Longitudinal folding

    • Formation of the head fold

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral folding
    Explanation
    During embryonic development, lateral folding is the process by which the flat embryonic disc folds inwards, creating a cylindrical shape. This folding brings the two sides of the body wall together, forming the anterior body wall. Ectopia Cordis or Pentalogy of Cantrell is a congenital malformation that occurs due to a defect in the lateral folding process. This defect leads to the heart being positioned outside the chest, along with other associated abnormalities in the anterior body wall. Therefore, the correct answer is lateral folding.

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  • 21. 

    During Stage 3 of labor, the placenta separates at which layer from the uterus?

    • Spongy layer of the decidua basalis

    • At the chorionic plate

    • Between the chorion and the amnion

    • Between the smooth chorion (chorion leave) and the decidua parietalis

    • At the umbilical cord

    Correct Answer
    A. Spongy layer of the decidua basalis
    Explanation
    During Stage 3 of labor, the placenta separates at the spongy layer of the decidua basalis. This layer is part of the uterine lining and provides a supportive and nourishing environment for the placenta during pregnancy. As the uterus contracts and the placenta detaches, the spongy layer of the decidua basalis is shed along with the placenta, allowing it to be expelled from the uterus.

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  • 22. 

    Through which blood vessel does the most oxygenated blood flow to supply the fetus?

    • Umbilical artery

    • Pulmonary artery

    • Aorta

    • Femoral artery

    • Internal carotid artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Aorta
    Explanation
    The most oxygenated blood flows to supply the fetus through the aorta. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygen-rich blood from the heart to all the organs and tissues, including the placenta, which supplies oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.

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  • 23. 

    1 L of 12 g/L inulin and 100 ml of 10 g/L antipyrine are given to a patient intravenously.  Two hours later a blood sample is taken and the concentration of inulin and antipyrine in the plasma are both 1 g/L.  Given the patient has a hematocrit of 30% and there is no lose of the indicators in their urine, what is the patient’s extracellular fluid volume?

    • 1.0 L

    • 5.0 L

    • 10.0 L

    • 12.0 L

    Correct Answer
    A. 12.0 L
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12.0 L because the concentration of inulin and antipyrine in the plasma is the same as the initial concentration given to the patient. This suggests that there was no loss of the indicators in the urine, indicating that the extracellular fluid volume remains the same as the initial volume given to the patient, which is 12.0 L.

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  • 24. 

     A young quadriplegic patient (secondary to spinal cord injury) presents with hypertension, profuse sweating, and other sympathetic signs.  A nurse notes that his catheter is dirty and replaces it with a sterile one.  Pulse examination reveals bradycardia.  Abdominal MRI is normal. Do you suspect?

    • Raynaud syndrome

    • Horner’s syndrome

    • Pheochromocytoma

    • Autonomic dysreflexia

    • Myasthenia gravis

    Correct Answer
    A. Autonomic dysreflexia
    Explanation
    The correct answer is autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in individuals with spinal cord injuries. It is characterized by a sudden and severe increase in blood pressure due to a stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. In this case, the dirty catheter may have caused irritation or infection, triggering autonomic dysreflexia. The symptoms of hypertension, profuse sweating, and bradycardia are consistent with autonomic dysreflexia. The normal abdominal MRI helps rule out other potential causes.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following compounds would be effective in relaxing skeletal muscle via a post-synaptic mechanism at the neuromuscular junction?

    • Glutamate agonist

    • Selective serotonin reuptake pump inhibitor

    • Curare

    • Strychnine

    • Botulinum toxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Curare
    Explanation
    Curare is a compound that blocks the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter responsible for muscle contraction, so by blocking its action, curare effectively relaxes skeletal muscle. This makes it an effective compound for muscle relaxation via a post-synaptic mechanism at the neuromuscular junction. The other compounds listed do not have the same mechanism of action and therefore would not be effective in relaxing skeletal muscle in the same way.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is a derivative of the epaxial musculature?

    • Rectus abdominis

    • Pectoralis major

    • Sternocleidomastoid

    • Inner intercostal

    • Rectus capitis posterior minor

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectus capitis posterior minor
    Explanation
    The rectus capitis posterior minor is a derivative of the epaxial musculature. The epaxial musculature refers to the muscles located on the posterior side of the body, specifically the muscles that run along the vertebral column. The rectus capitis posterior minor is a small muscle located in the back of the neck, and it is considered part of the epaxial musculature.

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  • 27. 

    What process is involved in the generation of the membrane potential?

    • The exit of sodium out of the cell against its concentration gradient through Na/K APT-ase

    • The entrance of potassium in the cell against its concentration gradient through Na/K APT-ase

    • The variation of concentration of ions chloride outside the cell

    • The passage of potassium in and out the cell through potassium leak channels

    • The entrance of sodium inside the cell at the synapse level through ligand gated sodium channels

    Correct Answer
    A. The passage of potassium in and out the cell through potassium leak channels
    Explanation
    The membrane potential is generated through the passage of potassium ions in and out of the cell through potassium leak channels. These channels allow potassium ions to move down their concentration gradient, resulting in a separation of charge across the cell membrane. This separation of charge creates the membrane potential, which is essential for various cellular processes, including nerve impulse transmission and muscle contraction.

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  • 28. 

    Dr. Johanessen 18) You have erythrocytes soaking in two different solutions. The first solution is a 300 mosm\L Urea solution (urea has an osmotic coeffiecient of 0) . The second solution is a 300 mosm\L NaCl solution (NaCl has an osmotic coeffiecient of 1). What will happen to the cells in each of these solutions after equilibration?   Cells in Urea Solution:                               Cells in NaCl solution:

    • swell swell

    • swell shrink

    • shrink swell

    • shrink shrink

    • no change swell

    • no change shrink

    • swell no change

    • shrink no change

    Correct Answer
    A. swell no change

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  • Nov 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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    Chachelly

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