1s051 Volume 3 (Edit Code 5)

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1s051 Volume 3 (Edit Code 5) - Quiz


FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is an improper way to store pliers, screwdrivers or wrenches?

    • A.

      A. Rack, shelves or tool boxes.

    • B.

      B. Pant or coat pockets.

    • C.

      C. Carrying bags.

    • D.

      D. Tool belts.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Pant or coat pockets.
    Explanation
    Storing pliers, screwdrivers, or wrenches in pant or coat pockets is an improper way because it can be dangerous. These tools have sharp edges and can cause injuries if not stored properly. Moreover, keeping them in pockets can lead to damage to the tools or the clothing. It is recommended to store these tools in a rack, shelves, tool boxes, carrying bags, or tool belts for safety and easy access.

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  • 2. 

    What is the chief hazard associated with electrically powered tools?

    • A.

      A. Fire.

    • B.

      B. Flash burns.

    • C.

      C. Hand injuries.

    • D.

      D. Electrical shock.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Electrical shock.
    Explanation
    The chief hazard associated with electrically powered tools is electrical shock. When using these tools, there is a risk of coming into contact with live wires or faulty equipment, which can result in electric shock. This can cause severe injury or even death. Therefore, it is important to take proper safety precautions and ensure that the tools are in good working condition to minimize the risk of electrical shock.

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  • 3. 

    On an electric drill, the chuck

    • A.

      A. must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit.

    • B.

      B. must be released before the drill is turned on.

    • C.

      C. should be loosely attached to the drill bit.

    • D.

      D. must be depressed to release the lock.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit.
    Explanation
    The chuck on an electric drill must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit to ensure stability and prevent the drill bit from slipping or becoming loose during operation. This allows for accurate drilling and reduces the risk of accidents or damage to the workpiece.

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  • 4. 

    A twist drill bit with four flutes should only be used to

    • A.

      A. start holes in sheet metal.

    • B.

      B. start holes in plaster.

    • C.

      C. enlarge cored holes.

    • D.

      D. drill into plaster.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. enlarge cored holes.
    Explanation
    A twist drill bit with four flutes is designed to remove material quickly and efficiently. It is not suitable for starting holes in sheet metal or plaster as it may cause damage or create an uneven hole. Instead, it is best used to enlarge cored holes, where a pilot hole has already been drilled. The multiple flutes allow for better chip evacuation and reduce the chances of the bit getting stuck or overheated during the enlargement process.

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  • 5. 

    Maintenance on soldering irons and guns is primarily centered on the

    • A.

      A. tips.

    • B.

      B. handle.

    • C.

      C. shank.

    • D.

      D. power cord.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. tips.
    Explanation
    Maintenance on soldering irons and guns is primarily centered on the tips because the tips are the most critical component of the soldering tool. The tips are responsible for transferring heat to the solder and the joint being soldered. Over time, the tips can become worn, corroded, or contaminated, which can lead to poor soldering performance. Therefore, regular maintenance, such as cleaning, tinning, and replacing tips when necessary, is essential to ensure efficient and effective soldering operations.

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  • 6. 

    Machine guarding is necessary primarily because

    • A.

      A. machines do not perform in a consistent manner.

    • B.

      B. most hazards can be eliminated through engineering.

    • C.

      C. a machine’s moving parts are fragile and must be protected.

    • D.

      D. people are unpredictable and may perform their work inconsistently.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. people are unpredictable and may perform their work inconsistently.
    Explanation
    Machine guarding is necessary primarily because people are unpredictable and may perform their work inconsistently. This means that even if machines are designed to perform in a consistent manner, human operators may not always follow the correct procedures or may make mistakes. Machine guarding helps to protect both the operators and the machines from potential hazards that could arise from these unpredictable actions. It provides a physical barrier that prevents accidental contact with moving parts or other dangerous areas of the machine, reducing the risk of injuries or accidents.

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  • 7. 

    To prevent mishaps involving machinery, the best action, which should be pursued first, is to

    • A.

      A. educate the worker.

    • B.

      B. engineer hazards out.

    • C.

      C. use machine guards for existing hazards.

    • D.

      D. provide personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. engineer hazards out.
    Explanation
    The best action to prevent mishaps involving machinery is to engineer hazards out. This means identifying and eliminating or minimizing potential hazards in the design and construction of machinery. By addressing hazards at the source, the risk of accidents and injuries can be significantly reduced. Educating workers, using machine guards, and providing personal protective equipment are important measures, but they should be implemented after engineering hazards out to provide an additional layer of protection.

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  • 8. 

    In-running nip points are a specific danger of which type of motion?

    • A.

      A. Cutting.

    • B.

      B. Rotating.

    • C.

      C. Transverse.

    • D.

      D. Reciprocating.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Rotating.
    Explanation
    In-running nip points are a specific danger of rotating motion. Nip points occur when two objects come together and create a pinch or squeeze point. In the case of rotating motion, these points can be created between a rotating object and a stationary object or between two rotating objects. This can pose a significant risk to individuals working with or around rotating machinery, as these nip points can catch clothing, body parts, or tools, leading to severe injuries or even amputations. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the presence of in-running nip points and take necessary precautions to ensure safety.

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  • 9. 

    Which hazard is commonly associated with a transverse motion?

    • A.

      A. Projections on the rotating parts may injure the worker.

    • B.

      B. Flying chips or scraps are likely to strike the operator.

    • C.

      C. The worker may be struck or caught in a pinch by the moving part.

    • D.

      D. The worker may be caught between a moving and stationary part.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. The worker may be struck or caught in a pinch by the moving part.
    Explanation
    Transverse motion refers to a motion that occurs perpendicular to the direction of the main motion. In this context, it means that the moving part can move sideways or in a crosswise direction. This type of motion poses a hazard as the worker may be struck or caught in a pinch by the moving part. This can lead to serious injuries or accidents. Therefore, option c is the correct answer as it accurately identifies the hazard commonly associated with transverse motion.

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  • 10. 

    Which type of machine guard is preferable to all others?

    • A.

      A. Fixed.

    • B.

      B. Interlock.

    • C.

      C. Adjustable.

    • D.

      D. Self-adjusting.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Fixed.
    Explanation
    Fixed machine guards are preferable to all others because they provide a permanent barrier that cannot be easily removed or bypassed, ensuring maximum protection for workers. Fixed guards are securely attached to the machine or equipment, preventing access to hazardous areas and reducing the risk of accidents or injuries. Unlike adjustable or self-adjusting guards, fixed guards cannot be altered or tampered with, providing a higher level of safety and reliability. Interlock guards may be effective in certain situations, but they can still be overridden or disabled, making fixed guards the most preferable option overall.

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  • 11. 

    Which guard will not allow a machine to start until the guard is in its proper place?

    • A.

      A. Fixed.

    • B.

      B. Interlock.

    • C.

      C. Adjustable.

    • D.

      D. Self-adjusting.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Interlock.
    Explanation
    An interlock guard is designed to prevent a machine from starting or operating until the guard is in its proper position. This type of guard typically has a mechanism that locks the machine's power source or control system, ensuring that it cannot be activated until the guard is securely in place. This helps to ensure the safety of operators by preventing accidental or unauthorized access to hazardous areas while the machine is in operation.

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  • 12. 

    If a machine guard opens when stock is moved into the danger area and returns to a rest position when the stock is removed, that guard is

    • A.

      A. fixed.

    • B.

      B. adjustable.

    • C.

      C. interlocking.

    • D.

      D. self-adjusting.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. self-adjusting.
    Explanation
    The given answer, d. self-adjusting, is correct because it states that the machine guard opens when stock is moved into the danger area and returns to a rest position when the stock is removed. This indicates that the guard automatically adjusts itself based on the movement of the stock, ensuring that it provides adequate protection at all times without the need for manual adjustments or interventions.

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  • 13. 

    Which safety device uses operator wristbands to ensure a worker’s hands are automatically withdrawn from the point of operation?

    • A.

      A. Gate.

    • B.

      B. Holdout.

    • C.

      C. Pull-out.

    • D.

      D. Presence sensing.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Pull-out.
    Explanation
    The safety device that uses operator wristbands to ensure a worker's hands are automatically withdrawn from the point of operation is called a pull-out device. This device is designed to detect the presence of the operator's hands and if they get too close to the point of operation, the device will automatically retract or pull out the operator's hands to prevent any accidents or injuries.

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  • 14. 

    Which safety device resembles an interlocked machine guard?

    • A.

      A. Gate.

    • B.

      B. Holdout.

    • C.

      C. Pull-out.

    • D.

      D. Presence sensing.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Gate.
    Explanation
    A gate is a safety device that resembles an interlocked machine guard because it acts as a physical barrier that restricts access to a hazardous area. Similar to an interlocked machine guard, a gate is designed to prevent accidental contact with moving parts or dangerous equipment. It typically has a locking mechanism that ensures it remains closed while the machine is in operation, providing an extra layer of protection for operators and workers.

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  • 15. 

    To ensure proper layout, equipment and machinery must be arranged

    • A.

      A. so that weight is distributed equally.

    • B.

      B. to permit an even flow of materials.

    • C.

      C. clockwise most hazardous to least hazardous.

    • D.

      D. so that similar hazards are located close together.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. to permit an even flow of materials.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. to permit an even flow of materials. This means that the layout of equipment and machinery should be organized in a way that allows for a smooth and uninterrupted movement of materials. This ensures efficiency in the production process and minimizes any potential bottlenecks or delays. By arranging the equipment and machinery in a manner that facilitates an even flow of materials, productivity can be maximized and operational efficiency can be improved.

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  • 16. 

    In a machine shop, how many inches wide should aisles be to permit free movement of workers and equipment?

    • A.

      A. 12.

    • B.

      B. 18.

    • C.

      C. 24.

    • D.

      D. 36.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 36.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 36. In a machine shop, wide aisles are necessary to allow for the movement of workers and equipment. A width of 36 inches provides enough space for workers to maneuver comfortably and for equipment to be transported safely throughout the shop. This ensures that there are no obstructions or congestion that could hinder productivity or pose a safety risk.

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  • 17. 

    The flow of electricity may be compared to

    • A.

      A. a streak of lightning.

    • B.

      B. water running through a pipe.

    • C.

      C. water passing through the ground.

    • D.

      D. lightning passing through the ground.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. water running through a pipe.
    Explanation
    The comparison of the flow of electricity to water running through a pipe is appropriate because both electricity and water flow in a continuous path. Just like water flows through a pipe, electricity flows through conductive materials, such as wires. This analogy helps to understand the concept of electrical current and how it moves from one point to another.

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  • 18. 

    What unit of measurement is used to measure electrical pressure, potential, or electromotive force?

    • A.

      A. Volts.

    • B.

      B. Ohms.

    • C.

      C. Amperes.

    • D.

      D. Coulombs.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Volts.
    Explanation
    Volts is the unit of measurement used to measure electrical pressure, potential, or electromotive force. It represents the amount of force or energy that pushes electric charges through a circuit. Ohms is the unit for measuring resistance, Amperes is the unit for measuring electric current, and Coulombs is the unit for measuring electric charge. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Volts.

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  • 19. 

    According to the federal regulation 29 Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) 1910, Occupation Safety and Health Standards, voltage is considered to be high at

    • A.

      A. 120 volts.

    • B.

      B. 220 volts.

    • C.

      C. 440 volts.

    • D.

      D. 600 volts.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 600 volts.
    Explanation
    According to the federal regulation 29 Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) 1910, Occupation Safety and Health Standards, voltage is considered to be high at 600 volts.

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  • 20. 

    The primary factor influencing the severity of electrical shock to the human body is the

    • A.

      A. length of the exposure.

    • B.

      B. amount of the current flow.

    • C.

      C. level of the voltage applied.

    • D.

      D. frequency of the electrical charge.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. amount of the current flow.
    Explanation
    The severity of an electrical shock to the human body is primarily determined by the amount of current flow. The higher the current flow, the more severe the shock. This is because electric current passing through the body can disrupt the normal functioning of the nervous system and vital organs, leading to injuries such as burns, muscle contractions, and even cardiac arrest. The length of exposure, level of voltage applied, and frequency of the electrical charge can also play a role in the severity of the shock, but the amount of current flow is the most significant factor.

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  • 21. 

    How much current causes a normally harmless shock to be felt?

    • A.

      A. 1 milliampere.

    • B.

      B. 25 milliamperes.

    • C.

      C. 1 ampere.

    • D.

      D. 25 ampere.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1 milliampere.
    Explanation
    A normally harmless shock is felt when the current passing through the body reaches a certain threshold. This threshold is typically around 1 milliampere (mA). Currents below this level are generally not felt, while currents above this level can cause discomfort or injury. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 1 milliampere.

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  • 22. 

    What range of current, if it lasts for one second or longer, may produce an immediately fatal electrical shock?

    • A.

      A. 10 to 15 milliamperes.

    • B.

      B. 25 to 50 milliamperes.

    • C.

      C. 60 to 75 milliamperes.

    • D.

      D. 100 to 300 milliamperes.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 100 to 300 milliamperes.
    Explanation
    An electrical shock can be fatal if the current passing through the body is within the range of 100 to 300 milliamperes. Currents within this range can cause severe damage to the heart, leading to cardiac arrest and death. Currents below 100 milliamperes may still cause significant harm, but are less likely to be immediately fatal. Currents above 300 milliamperes may also be fatal, but the risk decreases as the current increases beyond this range. Therefore, the correct answer is d. 100 to 300 milliamperes.

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  • 23. 

    The body can normally tolerate

    • A.

      A. direct currents (DC) one to two times greater than alternating currents (AC).

    • B.

      B. DCs three to five times greater than ACs.

    • C.

      C. ACs six to nine times greater than DC.

    • D.

      D. ACs 10 to 12 times greater than DCs.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. DCs three to five times greater than ACs.
  • 24. 

    What is the purpose of placing bonding wire between two metal objects?

    • A.

      A. Continuity of system grounds.

    • B.

      B. Equalization of static charges that may be generated.

    • C.

      C. Dissipation of static electrical charges to a ground.

    • D.

      D. Prevention of accumulations of dynamic electricity.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Equalization of static charges that may be generated.
    Explanation
    The purpose of placing bonding wire between two metal objects is to equalize static charges that may be generated. This helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity in the objects, which can cause damage or interference in electronic systems. By providing a path for the charges to flow, the bonding wire ensures that the static electricity is evenly distributed and neutralized, reducing the risk of any negative effects.

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  • 25. 

    An example of a system ground is a

    • A.

      A. three-prong adapter.

    • B.

      B. double-insulated tool.

    • C.

      C. return wire attached to a ground in the earth.

    • D.

      D. wire attached to the frame of a tool and a metal bar.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. return wire attached to a ground in the earth.
    Explanation
    A system ground refers to a connection between an electrical system and the earth, which serves as a reference point for the system's voltage. Option c, a return wire attached to a ground in the earth, is an example of a system ground as it provides a direct path for excess electrical current to flow into the earth, preventing the buildup of voltage and ensuring safety. Option a, a three-prong adapter, provides a ground connection in electrical outlets but does not directly connect to the earth. Option b, a double-insulated tool, is designed to protect against electric shock but does not involve a system ground. Option d, a wire attached to the frame of a tool and a metal bar, does not necessarily imply a connection to the earth.

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  • 26. 

    Grounding is effective when

    • A.

      A. there are no breaks in the grounding path.

    • B.

      B. the grounding path is broken before it reaches the ground.

    • C.

      C. dynamic charges are converted into static charges.

    • D.

      D. static charges are converted into to dynamic charges.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. there are no breaks in the grounding path.
    Explanation
    Grounding is effective when there are no breaks in the grounding path because a continuous path allows for the safe dissipation of electrical charges. If there are breaks in the grounding path, the electrical charges may not be able to flow properly and could potentially cause electrical hazards such as electric shocks or equipment damage. Therefore, a continuous grounding path is essential to ensure the effectiveness of grounding in preventing electrical accidents.

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  • 27. 

    It is hard to maintain an effective ground for portable electric equipment because

    • A.

      A. the equipment is relatively small in size.

    • B.

      B. the equipment moves a lot.

    • C.

      C. the equipment uses a three-wire cord.

    • D.

      D. the grounding prong on the plug has probably been removed.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. the equipment moves a lot.
    Explanation
    Portable electric equipment is designed to be easily moved from one location to another. Due to this mobility, it becomes difficult to maintain a consistent and effective ground for the equipment. As the equipment moves, the grounding connection may become loose or disconnected, leading to potential safety hazards. Therefore, the correct answer is b. the equipment moves a lot.

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  • 28. 

    When personnel make repairs to high voltage equipment, it is not a requirement of a safety observer to

    • A.

      A. be capable of applying first aid procedures.

    • B.

      B. be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures.

    • C.

      C. restrict entry into the area before adequate warnings of the hazards are given.

    • D.

      D. stand at the base of antennas or towers when climbers are required to ascend higher than 20 feet.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures. This is because while it is important for a safety observer to have knowledge of first aid procedures (option a), it is not necessary for them to be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures. The main role of a safety observer is to ensure that proper safety protocols are followed during repairs to high voltage equipment, such as restricting entry into the area before adequate warnings of the hazards are given (option c) and standing at the base of antennas or towers when climbers are required to ascend higher than 20 feet (option d).

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  • 29. 

    Electrical resistance gloves that are in active use must be dielectric tested every

    • A.

      A. 1 month.

    • B.

      B. 3 months.

    • C.

      C. 6 months.

    • D.

      D. 12 months.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 6 months.
    Explanation
    Electrical resistance gloves are designed to protect the wearer from electrical shock. Over time, the dielectric properties of the gloves can deteriorate, reducing their effectiveness. Therefore, it is important to regularly test the gloves to ensure they are still capable of providing adequate insulation. Dielectric testing every 6 months allows for timely detection of any degradation in the gloves' dielectric properties, ensuring the safety of the wearer.

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  • 30. 

    What must be locked out before the start of inspections, maintenance, or servicing operations?

    • A.

      A. Energy sources.

    • B.

      B. Machine shops.

    • C.

      C. Authorized personnel.

    • D.

      D. Food in the industrial area.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Energy sources.
    Explanation
    Before the start of inspections, maintenance, or servicing operations, energy sources must be locked out. This is done to ensure the safety of the personnel involved in these operations. Locking out energy sources prevents accidental startup of machines or equipment, which could result in serious injuries or fatalities. By locking out energy sources, such as electrical power, hydraulic systems, or pneumatic systems, potential hazards are eliminated, allowing the work to be carried out safely.

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  • 31. 

    Which tag will only be used where an immediate hazard (RAC 1 through 3) exist?

    • A.

      A. AF Form 979.

    • B.

      B. AF Form 980.

    • C.

      C. AF Form 981.

    • D.

      D. AF Form 982.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. AF Form 979.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 979 is used to identify and communicate immediate hazards, specifically those classified as RAC 1 through 3. RAC stands for Risk Assessment Code, with RAC 1 being the highest level of risk. This form is used to document and track hazardous conditions or situations that require immediate attention and corrective action. The other forms listed (AF Form 980, AF Form 981, and AF Form 982) may be used for different purposes, but they do not specifically address immediate hazards.

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  • 32. 

    When is lockout/tagout (LOTO) not required?

    • A.

      A. When the machine is hard wired.

    • B.

      B. When the circuit panel is within eyesight.

    • C.

      C. When the worker only uses one hand with electrical work.

    • D.

      D. When the power cord is under continuous control of the worker.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. When the power cord is under continuous control of the worker.
    Explanation
    When the power cord is under continuous control of the worker, lockout/tagout (LOTO) is not required. This means that as long as the worker is physically holding or controlling the power cord, there is no need for additional safety measures such as locking or tagging the equipment. However, it is important to note that LOTO is still necessary in all other situations mentioned in the question.

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  • 33. 

    Prior to starting work on the electrical system, who must verify if it has been deenergized or isolated?

    • A.

      A. Affected personnel.

    • B.

      B. Ground Safety office.

    • C.

      C. The functional manager or unit commander.

    • D.

      D. The supervisor or designated representative.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The supervisor or designated representative.
    Explanation
    The supervisor or designated representative must verify if the electrical system has been deenergized or isolated before starting work. This is important to ensure the safety of the workers and prevent any potential accidents or electrical hazards. The supervisor or designated representative is responsible for overseeing the work and making sure all necessary precautions have been taken before allowing work to proceed on the electrical system.

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  • 34. 

    What serves as a warning when lockout/tagout (LOTO) is in place?

    • A.

      A. The tag.

    • B.

      B. An attendant until work is complete.

    • C.

      C. Yellow ribbon tape around the work area.

    • D.

      D. The flashing lights of a utility truck outside.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. The tag.
    Explanation
    When lockout/tagout (LOTO) is in place, the tag serves as a warning. A tag is typically attached to the energy source or equipment that is being locked out or tagged out. It provides information about who is responsible for the lockout/tagout, when it was performed, and why it is necessary. The tag serves as a visual reminder to workers that the equipment is not to be operated until the lockout/tagout is removed. It helps to prevent accidental start-up or release of stored energy, ensuring the safety of workers during maintenance or repair work.

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  • 35. 

    Other than documenting training on the AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, what is another option for documenting lockout/tagout (LOTO) training of authorized workers?

    • A.

      A. Only the AF Form 55.

    • B.

      B. A log in the LOTO program book.

    • C.

      C. Training is not required to be documented.

    • D.

      D. The unit’s computerized information management system.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The unit’s computerized information management system.
    Explanation
    Another option for documenting lockout/tagout (LOTO) training of authorized workers is the unit's computerized information management system. This system can be used to record and track training records, ensuring that all employees who are authorized to perform LOTO procedures have received the necessary training. This option provides a centralized and easily accessible platform for storing and retrieving training information, making it convenient for both employees and management.

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  • 36. 

    How often must the safety staff evaluate a lockout/tagout (LOTO) program to ensure the requirements of the program are being followed?

    • A.

      A. Quarterly.

    • B.

      B. Semi-annually.

    • C.

      C. Annually.

    • D.

      D. Anytime a system is locked or tagged out.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Annually.
    Explanation
    The safety staff must evaluate a lockout/tagout (LOTO) program annually to ensure that the requirements of the program are being followed. This periodic evaluation helps to identify any potential gaps or deficiencies in the program and allows for necessary updates or improvements to be made. It also ensures that employees are consistently following the correct procedures for locking and tagging out equipment, which is essential for their safety. Quarterly or semi-annual evaluations may not be frequent enough to catch any emerging issues, while evaluating only when a system is locked or tagged out may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the overall program.

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  • 37. 

    A skylight screen or grill must be able withstand a load of at least how many pounds?

    • A.

      A. 200 pounds.

    • B.

      B. 250 pounds.

    • C.

      C. 1,200 pounds.

    • D.

      D. 2,000 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 200 pounds.
    Explanation
    A skylight screen or grill must be able to withstand a load of at least 200 pounds. This means that the screen or grill should be strong enough to support a weight of 200 pounds without breaking or collapsing. It is important for skylight screens or grills to have this level of strength in order to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any accidents or injuries that could occur if the screen or grill were to fail under a heavy load.

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  • 38. 

    Scaffolds and their components must be capable of supporting how many times the maximum intended load?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    Scaffolds and their components must be capable of supporting the maximum intended load at least four times. This ensures that the scaffold is strong and stable enough to handle the weight it is designed for, providing a safe working environment for workers. A higher safety factor is necessary to account for potential variations in load distribution and unexpected loads that may occur during construction or maintenance activities.

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  • 39. 

    A bricklayer’s square scaffold must have

    • A.

      A. at least two tiers.

    • B.

      B. frame squares nine feet wide and three feet high.

    • C.

      C. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides.

    • D.

      D. outrigger beams that project six feet beyond the face of the building.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides. This is because braces are necessary for stability in a bricklayer's square scaffold, and they should be 1 by 8 inches in size. The braces are placed on both the front and rear sides of the scaffold to provide support and prevent any wobbling or collapsing.

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  • 40. 

    On an outrigger scaffold, planking must be laid tight and extended

    • A.

      A. to within one inch of the scaffold edge.

    • B.

      B. three inches beyond the scaffold edge.

    • C.

      C. to within six inches of the building wall.

    • D.

      D. to within three inches of the building wall.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. to within three inches of the building wall.
    Explanation
    On an outrigger scaffold, the planking must be laid tight and extended to within three inches of the building wall. This is important for the stability and safety of the scaffold. By extending the planking to within three inches of the building wall, it ensures that there is enough support for workers and materials on the scaffold, while also allowing for any necessary movement or adjustments. This distance helps prevent any gaps or instability that could pose a risk to those using the scaffold.

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  • 41. 

    A portable or extension ladder used at a building must be placed with the foot of the ladder approximately how far from the building?

    • A.

      A. Two feet.

    • B.

      B. Three feet.

    • C.

      C. One-eighth of the ladder’s length.

    • D.

      D. One-fourth of the ladder’s length.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. One-fourth of the ladder’s length.
    Explanation
    When using a portable or extension ladder at a building, it is important to place the foot of the ladder approximately one-fourth of the ladder's length away from the building. This ensures stability and prevents the ladder from tipping over. Placing the foot too close to the building may cause the ladder to become unbalanced and increase the risk of accidents. Therefore, it is crucial to follow this guideline for safe ladder usage.

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  • 42. 

    What is the maximum number of feet an extension ladder can be extended?

    • A.

      A. 50.

    • B.

      B. 60.

    • C.

      C. 70.

    • D.

      D. 80.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 60.
    Explanation
    An extension ladder can be extended up to a maximum length of 60 feet. This is the longest length that the ladder can reach when fully extended.

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  • 43. 

    Stairs are designed to carry a load five times the normal live load anticipated but no less than how many pounds of moving concentrated load?

    • A.

      A. 400 pounds.

    • B.

      B. 500 pounds.

    • C.

      C. 1000 pounds.

    • D.

      D. 5000 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 1000 pounds.
    Explanation
    Stairs are designed to carry a load five times the normal live load anticipated. This means that the stairs should be able to support a load that is five times the usual weight that is expected to be on them. However, the load should not be less than 1000 pounds of moving concentrated load. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 1000 pounds.

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  • 44. 

    The angle of rise for fixed industrial stairs will be installed at what angle?

    • A.

      A. Between 25 to 45 degrees.

    • B.

      B. Between 25 to 50 degrees.

    • C.

      C. Between 30 to 50 degrees.

    • D.

      D. Between 35 to 45 degrees.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Between 30 to 50 degrees.
    Explanation
    Fixed industrial stairs are designed to provide safe and easy access to elevated areas in industrial settings. The angle of rise refers to the incline of the stairs, which affects the comfort and safety of users. The given answer, "c. Between 30 to 50 degrees," suggests that the angle of rise for fixed industrial stairs should fall within this range. This range allows for a balance between the steepness of the stairs and the ease of climbing them, ensuring that users can ascend and descend without excessive strain or risk of tripping or falling.

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  • 45. 

    Fall protection must be used when performing maintenance on aircraft at a height of at least

    • A.

      A. 4 feet.

    • B.

      B. 6 feet.

    • C.

      C. 8 feet.

    • D.

      D. 10 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 4 feet.
    Explanation
    Fall protection must be used when performing maintenance on aircraft at a height of at least 4 feet. This means that any time a person is working at a height of 4 feet or higher, they must have some form of fall protection in place to prevent them from falling and potentially getting injured. This could include using safety harnesses, guardrails, or other safety equipment.

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  • 46. 

    Lanyards, D-rings, locking snap-hooks, and all components of a fall arrest system must be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of

    • A.

      A. 3,000 pounds.

    • B.

      B. 5,000 pounds.

    • C.

      C. 10,000 pounds.

    • D.

      D. 12,000 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 5,000 pounds.
    Explanation
    Lanyards, D-rings, locking snap-hooks, and all components of a fall arrest system must be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 5,000 pounds. This means that these components need to be able to withstand a force of at least 5,000 pounds without breaking or failing. This is important for ensuring the safety of individuals using the fall arrest system, as it ensures that the system can effectively support their weight and protect them from falling.

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  • 47. 

    The sides of excavations in loose dirt must be braced and shored if the excavations are more than

    • A.

      A. two feet deep.

    • B.

      B. three feet deep.

    • C.

      C. four feet deep.

    • D.

      D. five feet deep.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. four feet deep.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. four feet deep. Excavations in loose dirt are at risk of collapsing due to the lack of stability. To prevent this, bracing and shoring are necessary. The depth of the excavation determines the level of risk, and it is recommended to brace and shore excavations that are more than four feet deep to ensure the safety of workers and prevent accidents.

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  • 48. 

    In an excavation, trench sides must have additional shoring or bracing if they are undercut more than

    • A.

      A. 2 inches.

    • B.

      B. 4 inches.

    • C.

      C. 5 inches.

    • D.

      D. 6 inches.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 6 inches.
    Explanation
    In an excavation, trench sides must have additional shoring or bracing if they are undercut more than 6 inches. This is because the stability of the trench walls becomes compromised when they are undercut beyond this depth. The additional shoring or bracing is necessary to prevent cave-ins and ensure the safety of workers in the excavation.

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  • 49. 

    When ladders are required in trenches, they should be placed so that workers must travel no more than how many feet in any direction to reach an exit?

    • A.

      A. 10.

    • B.

      B. 15.

    • C.

      C. 20.

    • D.

      D. 25.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 25.
    Explanation
    When ladders are required in trenches, they should be placed so that workers must travel no more than 25 feet in any direction to reach an exit. This is important for the safety of the workers as it ensures that they have easy and quick access to an exit in case of an emergency. Having ladders placed within a reasonable distance reduces the risk of accidents and allows for a prompt evacuation if needed.

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  • 50. 

    What is the first step when inspecting a flightline fire extinguisher?

    • A.

      A. Check the pressure gauge for proper reading.

    • B.

      B. Ensure the handle is properly pinned and sealed.

    • C.

      C. Ensure there’s no foreign matter in the discharge nozzle.

    • D.

      D. Check the annual inspection and any other periodic inspection dates documented.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Ensure the handle is properly pinned and sealed.
    Explanation
    The first step when inspecting a flightline fire extinguisher is to ensure that the handle is properly pinned and sealed. This is important because if the handle is not secured, the extinguisher may not function properly in case of an emergency. Checking the pressure gauge, ensuring there is no foreign matter in the discharge nozzle, and checking the inspection dates are also important steps in the inspection process, but they come after ensuring the handle is properly pinned and sealed.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 29, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Jim
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