1s051 Volume 3 (edit Code 5)

100 Questions

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Electronics Quizzes & Trivia

FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is an improper way to store pliers, screwdrivers or wrenches?
    • A. 

      A. Rack, shelves or tool boxes.

    • B. 

      B. Pant or coat pockets.

    • C. 

      C. Carrying bags.

    • D. 

      D. Tool belts.

  • 2. 
    What is the chief hazard associated with electrically powered tools?
    • A. 

      A. Fire.

    • B. 

      B. Flash burns.

    • C. 

      C. Hand injuries.

    • D. 

      D. Electrical shock.

  • 3. 
    On an electric drill, the chuck
    • A. 

      A. must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit.

    • B. 

      B. must be released before the drill is turned on.

    • C. 

      C. should be loosely attached to the drill bit.

    • D. 

      D. must be depressed to release the lock.

  • 4. 
    A twist drill bit with four flutes should only be used to
    • A. 

      A. start holes in sheet metal.

    • B. 

      B. start holes in plaster.

    • C. 

      C. enlarge cored holes.

    • D. 

      D. drill into plaster.

  • 5. 
    Maintenance on soldering irons and guns is primarily centered on the
    • A. 

      A. tips.

    • B. 

      B. handle.

    • C. 

      C. shank.

    • D. 

      D. power cord.

  • 6. 
    Machine guarding is necessary primarily because
    • A. 

      A. machines do not perform in a consistent manner.

    • B. 

      B. most hazards can be eliminated through engineering.

    • C. 

      C. a machine’s moving parts are fragile and must be protected.

    • D. 

      D. people are unpredictable and may perform their work inconsistently.

  • 7. 
    To prevent mishaps involving machinery, the best action, which should be pursued first, is to
    • A. 

      A. educate the worker.

    • B. 

      B. engineer hazards out.

    • C. 

      C. use machine guards for existing hazards.

    • D. 

      D. provide personal protective equipment.

  • 8. 
    In-running nip points are a specific danger of which type of motion?
    • A. 

      A. Cutting.

    • B. 

      B. Rotating.

    • C. 

      C. Transverse.

    • D. 

      D. Reciprocating.

  • 9. 
    Which hazard is commonly associated with a transverse motion?
    • A. 

      A. Projections on the rotating parts may injure the worker.

    • B. 

      B. Flying chips or scraps are likely to strike the operator.

    • C. 

      C. The worker may be struck or caught in a pinch by the moving part.

    • D. 

      D. The worker may be caught between a moving and stationary part.

  • 10. 
    Which type of machine guard is preferable to all others?
    • A. 

      A. Fixed.

    • B. 

      B. Interlock.

    • C. 

      C. Adjustable.

    • D. 

      D. Self-adjusting.

  • 11. 
    Which guard will not allow a machine to start until the guard is in its proper place?
    • A. 

      A. Fixed.

    • B. 

      B. Interlock.

    • C. 

      C. Adjustable.

    • D. 

      D. Self-adjusting.

  • 12. 
    If a machine guard opens when stock is moved into the danger area and returns to a rest position when the stock is removed, that guard is
    • A. 

      A. fixed.

    • B. 

      B. adjustable.

    • C. 

      C. interlocking.

    • D. 

      D. self-adjusting.

  • 13. 
    Which safety device uses operator wristbands to ensure a worker’s hands are automatically withdrawn from the point of operation?
    • A. 

      A. Gate.

    • B. 

      B. Holdout.

    • C. 

      C. Pull-out.

    • D. 

      D. Presence sensing.

  • 14. 
    Which safety device resembles an interlocked machine guard?
    • A. 

      A. Gate.

    • B. 

      B. Holdout.

    • C. 

      C. Pull-out.

    • D. 

      D. Presence sensing.

  • 15. 
    To ensure proper layout, equipment and machinery must be arranged
    • A. 

      A. so that weight is distributed equally.

    • B. 

      B. to permit an even flow of materials.

    • C. 

      C. clockwise most hazardous to least hazardous.

    • D. 

      D. so that similar hazards are located close together.

  • 16. 
    In a machine shop, how many inches wide should aisles be to permit free movement of workers and equipment?
    • A. 

      A. 12.

    • B. 

      B. 18.

    • C. 

      C. 24.

    • D. 

      D. 36.

  • 17. 
    The flow of electricity may be compared to
    • A. 

      A. a streak of lightning.

    • B. 

      B. water running through a pipe.

    • C. 

      C. water passing through the ground.

    • D. 

      D. lightning passing through the ground.

  • 18. 
    What unit of measurement is used to measure electrical pressure, potential, or electromotive force?
    • A. 

      A. Volts.

    • B. 

      B. Ohms.

    • C. 

      C. Amperes.

    • D. 

      D. Coulombs.

  • 19. 
    According to the federal regulation 29 Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) 1910, Occupation Safety and Health Standards, voltage is considered to be high at
    • A. 

      A. 120 volts.

    • B. 

      B. 220 volts.

    • C. 

      C. 440 volts.

    • D. 

      D. 600 volts.

  • 20. 
    The primary factor influencing the severity of electrical shock to the human body is the
    • A. 

      A. length of the exposure.

    • B. 

      B. amount of the current flow.

    • C. 

      C. level of the voltage applied.

    • D. 

      D. frequency of the electrical charge.

  • 21. 
    How much current causes a normally harmless shock to be felt?
    • A. 

      A. 1 milliampere.

    • B. 

      B. 25 milliamperes.

    • C. 

      C. 1 ampere.

    • D. 

      D. 25 ampere.

  • 22. 
    What range of current, if it lasts for one second or longer, may produce an immediately fatal electrical shock?
    • A. 

      A. 10 to 15 milliamperes.

    • B. 

      B. 25 to 50 milliamperes.

    • C. 

      C. 60 to 75 milliamperes.

    • D. 

      D. 100 to 300 milliamperes.

  • 23. 
    The body can normally tolerate
    • A. 

      A. direct currents (DC) one to two times greater than alternating currents (AC).

    • B. 

      B. DCs three to five times greater than ACs.

    • C. 

      C. ACs six to nine times greater than DC.

    • D. 

      D. ACs 10 to 12 times greater than DCs.

  • 24. 
    What is the purpose of placing bonding wire between two metal objects?
    • A. 

      A. Continuity of system grounds.

    • B. 

      B. Equalization of static charges that may be generated.

    • C. 

      C. Dissipation of static electrical charges to a ground.

    • D. 

      D. Prevention of accumulations of dynamic electricity.

  • 25. 
    An example of a system ground is a
    • A. 

      A. three-prong adapter.

    • B. 

      B. double-insulated tool.

    • C. 

      C. return wire attached to a ground in the earth.

    • D. 

      D. wire attached to the frame of a tool and a metal bar.

  • 26. 
    Grounding is effective when
    • A. 

      A. there are no breaks in the grounding path.

    • B. 

      B. the grounding path is broken before it reaches the ground.

    • C. 

      C. dynamic charges are converted into static charges.

    • D. 

      D. static charges are converted into to dynamic charges.

  • 27. 
    It is hard to maintain an effective ground for portable electric equipment because
    • A. 

      A. the equipment is relatively small in size.

    • B. 

      B. the equipment moves a lot.

    • C. 

      C. the equipment uses a three-wire cord.

    • D. 

      D. the grounding prong on the plug has probably been removed.

  • 28. 
    When personnel make repairs to high voltage equipment, it is not a requirement of a safety observer to
    • A. 

      A. be capable of applying first aid procedures.

    • B. 

      B. be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures.

    • C. 

      C. restrict entry into the area before adequate warnings of the hazards are given.

    • D. 

      D. stand at the base of antennas or towers when climbers are required to ascend higher than 20 feet.

  • 29. 
    Electrical resistance gloves that are in active use must be dielectric tested every
    • A. 

      A. 1 month.

    • B. 

      B. 3 months.

    • C. 

      C. 6 months.

    • D. 

      D. 12 months.

  • 30. 
    What must be locked out before the start of inspections, maintenance, or servicing operations?
    • A. 

      A. Energy sources.

    • B. 

      B. Machine shops.

    • C. 

      C. Authorized personnel.

    • D. 

      D. Food in the industrial area.

  • 31. 
    Which tag will only be used where an immediate hazard (RAC 1 through 3) exist?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 979.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 980.

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 981.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 982.

  • 32. 
    When is lockout/tagout (LOTO) not required?
    • A. 

      A. When the machine is hard wired.

    • B. 

      B. When the circuit panel is within eyesight.

    • C. 

      C. When the worker only uses one hand with electrical work.

    • D. 

      D. When the power cord is under continuous control of the worker.

  • 33. 
    Prior to starting work on the electrical system, who must verify if it has been deenergized or isolated?
    • A. 

      A. Affected personnel.

    • B. 

      B. Ground Safety office.

    • C. 

      C. The functional manager or unit commander.

    • D. 

      D. The supervisor or designated representative.

  • 34. 
    What serves as a warning when lockout/tagout (LOTO) is in place?
    • A. 

      A. The tag.

    • B. 

      B. An attendant until work is complete.

    • C. 

      C. Yellow ribbon tape around the work area.

    • D. 

      D. The flashing lights of a utility truck outside.

  • 35. 
    Other than documenting training on the AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, what is another option for documenting lockout/tagout (LOTO) training of authorized workers?
    • A. 

      A. Only the AF Form 55.

    • B. 

      B. A log in the LOTO program book.

    • C. 

      C. Training is not required to be documented.

    • D. 

      D. The unit’s computerized information management system.

  • 36. 
    How often must the safety staff evaluate a lockout/tagout (LOTO) program to ensure the requirements of the program are being followed?
    • A. 

      A. Quarterly.

    • B. 

      B. Semi-annually.

    • C. 

      C. Annually.

    • D. 

      D. Anytime a system is locked or tagged out.

  • 37. 
    A skylight screen or grill must be able withstand a load of at least how many pounds?
    • A. 

      A. 200 pounds.

    • B. 

      B. 250 pounds.

    • C. 

      C. 1,200 pounds.

    • D. 

      D. 2,000 pounds.

  • 38. 
    Scaffolds and their components must be capable of supporting how many times the maximum intended load?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 39. 
    A bricklayer’s square scaffold must have
    • A. 

      A. at least two tiers.

    • B. 

      B. frame squares nine feet wide and three feet high.

    • C. 

      C. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides.

    • D. 

      D. outrigger beams that project six feet beyond the face of the building.

  • 40. 
    On an outrigger scaffold, planking must be laid tight and extended
    • A. 

      A. to within one inch of the scaffold edge.

    • B. 

      B. three inches beyond the scaffold edge.

    • C. 

      C. to within six inches of the building wall.

    • D. 

      D. to within three inches of the building wall.

  • 41. 
    A portable or extension ladder used at a building must be placed with the foot of the ladder approximately how far from the building?
    • A. 

      A. Two feet.

    • B. 

      B. Three feet.

    • C. 

      C. One-eighth of the ladder’s length.

    • D. 

      D. One-fourth of the ladder’s length.

  • 42. 
    What is the maximum number of feet an extension ladder can be extended?
    • A. 

      A. 50.

    • B. 

      B. 60.

    • C. 

      C. 70.

    • D. 

      D. 80.

  • 43. 
    Stairs are designed to carry a load five times the normal live load anticipated but no less than how many pounds of moving concentrated load?
    • A. 

      A. 400 pounds.

    • B. 

      B. 500 pounds.

    • C. 

      C. 1000 pounds.

    • D. 

      D. 5000 pounds.

  • 44. 
    The angle of rise for fixed industrial stairs will be installed at what angle?
    • A. 

      A. Between 25 to 45 degrees.

    • B. 

      B. Between 25 to 50 degrees.

    • C. 

      C. Between 30 to 50 degrees.

    • D. 

      D. Between 35 to 45 degrees.

  • 45. 
    Fall protection must be used when performing maintenance on aircraft at a height of at least
    • A. 

      A. 4 feet.

    • B. 

      B. 6 feet.

    • C. 

      C. 8 feet.

    • D. 

      D. 10 feet.

  • 46. 
    Lanyards, D-rings, locking snap-hooks, and all components of a fall arrest system must be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of
    • A. 

      A. 3,000 pounds.

    • B. 

      B. 5,000 pounds.

    • C. 

      C. 10,000 pounds.

    • D. 

      D. 12,000 pounds.

  • 47. 
    The sides of excavations in loose dirt must be braced and shored if the excavations are more than
    • A. 

      A. two feet deep.

    • B. 

      B. three feet deep.

    • C. 

      C. four feet deep.

    • D. 

      D. five feet deep.

  • 48. 
    In an excavation, trench sides must have additional shoring or bracing if they are undercut more than
    • A. 

      A. 2 inches.

    • B. 

      B. 4 inches.

    • C. 

      C. 5 inches.

    • D. 

      D. 6 inches.

  • 49. 
    When ladders are required in trenches, they should be placed so that workers must travel no more than how many feet in any direction to reach an exit?
    • A. 

      A. 10.

    • B. 

      B. 15.

    • C. 

      C. 20.

    • D. 

      D. 25.

  • 50. 
    What is the first step when inspecting a flightline fire extinguisher?
    • A. 

      A. Check the pressure gauge for proper reading.

    • B. 

      B. Ensure the handle is properly pinned and sealed.

    • C. 

      C. Ensure there’s no foreign matter in the discharge nozzle.

    • D. 

      D. Check the annual inspection and any other periodic inspection dates documented.

  • 51. 
    Who can temporarily approve the use of portable electrical equipment that is not intrinsically safe, in a class I division I location?
    • A. 

      A. Fire chief.

    • B. 

      B. Group commander.

    • C. 

      C. Maintenance officer.

    • D. 

      D. Ground safety manager.

  • 52. 
    Who ensures detailed local operating procedures covering safety precautions for hangaring aircraft are prepared and coordinated with installation ground safety and fire department personnel?
    • A. 

      A. Hangar supervisor.

    • B. 

      B. Maintenance flight chief.

    • C. 

      C. Maintenance officer.

    • D. 

      D. Group commander.

  • 53. 
    Horizontal sliding hangar doors must be opened wide enough to permit clearance of at least how many feet at each wing tip?
    • A. 

      A. 5.

    • B. 

      B. 10.

    • C. 

      C. 15.

    • D. 

      D. 20.

  • 54. 
    How far above the floor of aircraft hangars must the design of the generator be to allow sparking contacts and other possible ignition sources?
    • A. 

      A. 12 inches.

    • B. 

      B. 18 inches.

    • C. 

      C. 24 inches.

    • D. 

      D. 32 inches.

  • 55. 
    Who establishes emergency procedures to remove aircraft from hangars in case of fire?
    • A. 

      A. Fire chief.

    • B. 

      B. Tow supervisor.

    • C. 

      C. Ground safety manager.

    • D. 

      D. Aircraft maintenance officer.

  • 56. 
    How far above the floor of aircraft hangars must spark-producing components be located when a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar?
    • A. 

      A. 12 inches.

    • B. 

      B. 18 inches.

    • C. 

      C. 24 inches.

    • D. 

      D. 32 inches.

  • 57. 
    When a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar, what is the minimum distance that must be maintained between the pumping unit and the aircraft?
    • A. 

      A. 5 feet.

    • B. 

      B. 10 feet.

    • C. 

      C. 25 feet.

    • D. 

      D. 50 feet.

  • 58. 
    What piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) must personnel working in a parachute drying tower wear?
    • A. 

      A. Goggles.

    • B. 

      B. Hard hats.

    • C. 

      C. Leather gloves.

    • D. 

      D. Heat resistant overalls.

  • 59. 
    When may a safety guard enter a tank cell in an attempt to rescue someone?
    • A. 

      A. After notifying paramedics.

    • B. 

      B. Never, only team qualified in confined space rescue may enter a tank.

    • C. 

      C. After notifying the fire rescue unit and putting on the prescribed respiratory protection.

    • D. 

      D. When additional help is present and the safety guard is equipped with the prescribed respiratory equipment.

  • 60. 
    After fuel residues have been removed through depuddling, fuel cells must be
    • A. 

      A. air purged.

    • B. 

      B. water purged.

    • C. 

      C. steam cleaned.

    • D. 

      D. immediately refilled.

  • 61. 
    The number of refueling vehicles required to service an aircraft at any one time is determined by the
    • A. 

      A. quantity of fuel needed and the time required to refuel the aircraft.

    • B. 

      B. number of refueling ports on the aircraft and available supervisors.

    • C. 

      C. size of the aircraft and holding area.

    • D. 

      D. mission priority and ground crew.

  • 62. 
    A service cart must be at least how many feet away from a fueling operation?
    • A. 

      A. 25.

    • B. 

      B. 50.

    • C. 

      C. 75.

    • D. 

      D. 100.

  • 63. 
    When filling the fuel tank of a self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC), never smoke or allow any open flame closer than how many feet to the unit?
    • A. 

      A. 25.

    • B. 

      B. 50.

    • C. 

      C. 100.

    • D. 

      D. 150.

  • 64. 
    Refueling equipment and aircraft involved in hot-pit refueling operations should be positioned so that
    • A. 

      A. the standby fire truck has a clear path to the aircraft fueling ports.

    • B. 

      B. ground personnel have a clear path of egress in case of an emergency.

    • C. 

      C. hot sparks from vehicle exhaust do not blow into aircraft fueling ports.

    • D. 

      D. the wind does not blow fuel towards the intakes of operating aircraft engines.

  • 65. 
    Who advises the pilot when to abandon an aircraft during emergency hot pit refueling procedures?
    • A. 

      A. Maintenance control officer.

    • B. 

      B. Ground safety manager.

    • C. 

      C. Refueling supervisor.

    • D. 

      D. Fire department.

  • 66. 
    A minimum of how many brakes are required on work stands used around aircraft?
    • A. 

      A. One.

    • B. 

      B. Two.

    • C. 

      C. Three.

    • D. 

      D. Four.

  • 67. 
    The maximum speed that any two maintenance stands may be towed over a smooth, paved surface is
    • A. 

      A. 5 mile per hour (mph).

    • B. 

      B. 10 mph.

    • C. 

      C. 15 mph.

    • D. 

      D. 20 mph.

  • 68. 
    The maximum speed that any aircraft may be towed at any time is
    • A. 

      A. 20 mile per hour (mph).

    • B. 

      B. 15 mph.

    • C. 

      C. 10 mph.

    • D. 

      D. 5 mph.

  • 69. 
    Generally people and vehicles should not pass closer than how many feet to the rear of an aircraft with its engines running?
    • A. 

      A. 100.

    • B. 

      B. 150.

    • C. 

      C. 200.

    • D. 

      D. 250.

  • 70. 
    Which publication lists the international aircraft marshalling signals?
    • A. 

      A. AFI 75–2.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 91–202.

    • C. 

      C. AFI 11–218.

    • D. 

      D. AFI 91–206.

  • 71. 
    Personnel must be tested within how many days of being assigned to duties requiring their knowledge of marshaling signals?
    • A. 

      A. 30.

    • B. 

      B. 60.

    • C. 

      C. 90.

    • D. 

      D. 120.

  • 72. 
    Where is the fireguard positioned during an engine start?
    • A. 

      A. Even with the tail of the aircraft and at a 35-degree angle outboard of the engine.

    • B. 

      B. Even with the tail of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine.

    • C. 

      C. Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 35-degree angle outboard of the engine.

    • D. 

      D. Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine.

  • 73. 
    Who has the responsibility for policing up the area after the aircraft has taxied?
    • A. 

      A. Fireguard.

    • B. 

      B. Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) monitor.

    • C. 

      C. Lead crew chief.

    • D. 

      D. Ground controller.

  • 74. 
    After turning, the aircraft must be marshaled forward in a straight line at least how many feet to relieve the loads on the main landing gear?
    • A. 

      A. 5.

    • B. 

      B. 10.

    • C. 

      C. 15.

    • D. 

      D. 20.

  • 75. 
    What is the minimum wing tip clearance for aircraft with wingspans greater than 110 feet?
    • A. 

      A. 10–25 feet.

    • B. 

      B. 25–50 feet.

    • C. 

      C. 50–75 feet.

    • D. 

      D. 75–100 feet.

  • 76. 
    Under normal circumstances general purpose vehicles may not exceed what speed when operating on the flight line?
    • A. 

      A. 10 mile per hour (mph).

    • B. 

      B. 15 mph.

    • C. 

      C. 20 mph.

    • D. 

      D. 25 mph.

  • 77. 
    The maximum speed for a vehicle operated within 10 feet of an aircraft is
    • A. 

      A. 3 miles per hour (mph).

    • B. 

      B. 5 mph.

    • C. 

      C. 10 mph.

    • D. 

      D. 15 mph.

  • 78. 
    Which statement is not true concerning vehicle operation on the flight line?
    • A. 

      A. “Follow-me” vehicles may exceed 15 miles per hour (mph).

    • B. 

      B. Vehicles should not pass under the wings of an aircraft.

    • C. 

      C. A flashing white light at a junction to the flight line indicates it is safe for vehicles to cross.

    • D. 

      D. Passenger-carrying vehicles must stop at the side of aircraft only when they are loading or unloading passengers.

  • 79. 
    Which of the following is not a basic rule for aircraft engine runs?
    • A. 

      A. A pilot qualified on the aircraft must be present at all times.

    • B. 

      B. Do not leave controls unattended when engines are running.

    • C. 

      C. Parking brakes must be set.

    • D. 

      D. Wheels must be chocked.

  • 80. 
    How soon prior to the start of the concurrent servicing operation (CSO) must the concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS) ensure the fire department is notified?
    • A. 

      A. 15 minutes.

    • B. 

      B. 60 minutes.

    • C. 

      C. 24 hours.

    • D. 

      D. 48 hours.

  • 81. 
    Weapons load personnel can be certified on how many types of aircraft?
    • A. 

      A. One.

    • B. 

      B. Two.

    • C. 

      C. Three.

    • D. 

      D. No limit.

  • 82. 
    During aircraft loading of vehicles, vehicle drivers must follow the instructions of the individual designated by whom as a spotter?
    • A. 

      A. The loadmaster or load team chief.

    • B. 

      B. Wing safety or the unit safety representative.

    • C. 

      C. The base operations official or control tower official.

    • D. 

      D. Unit safety representative or base operations official.

  • 83. 
    Who chairs the Bird Hazard Working Group (BHWG) meetings?
    • A. 

      A. Wing commander.

    • B. 

      B. Vice wing commander.

    • C. 

      C. Chief of flight safety.

    • D. 

      D. Airfield manager.

  • 84. 
    To limit the attractiveness to wildlife, the grass in aircraft movement areas must not be more than?
    • A. 

      A. 14 inches.

    • B. 

      B. 18 inches.

    • C. 

      C. 22 inches.

    • D. 

      D. 26 inches.

  • 85. 
    Who appoints a flight safety officer (FSO) as a safety advisor to the baser aero club?
    • A. 

      A. Host unit commander.

    • B. 

      B. Chief of flight safety.

    • C. 

      C. Aero club director.

    • D. 

      D. Airfield manager.

  • 86. 
    Although the host safety office may investigate aero club mishaps, who has the primary responsibility to investigate mishaps in the US?
    • A. 

      A. Major command (MAJCOM).

    • B. 

      B. Air Force Safety Center.

    • C. 

      C. Federal Aviation Agency.

    • D. 

      D. National Traffic Safety Board.

  • 87. 
    An explosives license does not apply to which activities?
    • A. 

      A. Explosives operations.

    • B. 

      B. Explosives storage facilities.

    • C. 

      C. Pre-positioned mobility explosives.

    • D. 

      D. Munitions locations used solely for exercises.

  • 88. 
    Which action is a written authorization that allows a specific departure from a mandatory requirement for other than quantity-distance (Q-D) criteria?
    • A. 

      A. Waiver.

    • B. 

      B. Deviation.

    • C. 

      C. Immunity.

    • D. 

      D. Exemption.

  • 89. 
    In an explosive storage area, a barricade provide protection for which hazard?
    • A. 

      A. Flooding.

    • B. 

      B. Low-angle fragments.

    • C. 

      C. High-angle fragments.

    • D. 

      D. Unauthorized personnel.

  • 90. 
    What is the advantage of the earth-covered igloo magazine?
    • A. 

      A. A firebreak around the perimeter is not required.

    • B. 

      B. Is a secure structure without the need for additional security.

    • C. 

      C. Offer the greatest protection from the effects of an explosion.

    • D. 

      D. Provides storage of explosives next to other industrial activities.

  • 91. 
    What is not an authorized way to ship or move explosives?
    • A. 

      A. Private vehicle.

    • B. 

      B. Commercial rail.

    • C. 

      C. Commercial aircraft.

    • D. 

      D. Battery-powered material handling equipment.

  • 92. 
    Which of the following actions is a preferred way to reduce lead exposure on the firing range?
    • A. 

      A. Do not eat or drink on the range.

    • B. 

      B. Daily clean the bullet traps of metal backstops.

    • C. 

      C. Manually remove spent projectiles from wooden material.

    • D. 

      D. Personnel will use their hat when collecting spent brass.

  • 93. 
    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the armorer?
    • A. 

      A. Verify individual’s authorization to draw a weapon.

    • B. 

      B. Ensure each weapon is cleared before issue or turn-in.

    • C. 

      C. Issue the weapon muzzle first with bolt forward.

    • D. 

      D. Allow one person at a time to approach the issue window.

  • 94. 
    How does the range operating agency (ROA) minimize potential safety hazards associated with weapons employment?
    • A. 

      A. Approve public use of an active range and risk assessments.

    • B. 

      B. Observe off-range impacts and acquire additional land for the mission.

    • C. 

      C. Risk assessments and establish mission parameters for range activities.

    • D. 

      D. Establish mission parameters for range activities and observe off-range impacts.

  • 95. 
    In addition to grounding the aircraft, a worker must meet which other requirement while loading missiles?
    • A. 

      A. No refueling will be authorized.

    • B. 

      B. No other maintenance will be performed.

    • C. 

      C. Other electrical systems must be turned off.

    • D. 

      D. All non-essential personnel must be removed.

  • 96. 
    Why should personnel working with solid propellants not wear woolen or synthetic clothing?
    • A. 

      A. Because of potential chemical reactions.

    • B. 

      B. These materials have a tendency to produce static electricity.

    • C. 

      C. The fabric is usually cumbersome and may get caught in some support equipment.

    • D. 

      D. To the contrary, wool and synthetics are preferred for these operations because of their insulating properties.

  • 97. 
    What can store sufficient energy to cause injury from electrical shock even though the power has been disconnected?
    • A. 

      A. Batteries.

    • B. 

      B. Capacitors.

    • C. 

      C. Generators.

    • D. 

      D. When power is turned off energy is dissipated.

  • 98. 
    When flexible high-pressure lines are used around missile systems, they must be
    • A. 

      A. secured to prevent whipping.

    • B. 

      B. encased in a hardened substance to prevent punctures.

    • C. 

      C. placed at least eight feet above all working and walking surfaces.

    • D. 

      D. loose on the floor and not covered with any objects.

  • 99. 
    When connecting or disconnecting high pressure lines from corrosive liquids or gases, take special care to avoid
    • A. 

      A. rupturing the tank.

    • B. 

      B. decompressing the system.

    • C. 

      C. contaminating the system.

    • D. 

      D. spilling the agent being used.

  • 100. 
    Speed limits for missile-loaded vehicles must be strictly obeyed to prevent
    • A. 

      A. jarring or overturning the missile.

    • B. 

      B. trailer tire-heat buildup.

    • C. 

      C. static buildup.

    • D. 

      D. trailer sway.