1s051 Volume 3 (edit Code 5)
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FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY
- 1.Which of the following is an improper way to store pliers, screwdrivers or wrenches?
- A.
A. Rack, shelves or tool boxes.
- B.
B. Pant or coat pockets.
- C.
C. Carrying bags.
- D.
D. Tool belts.
- 2.What is the chief hazard associated with electrically powered tools?
- A.
A. Fire.
- B.
B. Flash burns.
- C.
C. Hand injuries.
- D.
D. Electrical shock.
- 3.On an electric drill, the chuck
- A.
A. must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit.
- B.
B. must be released before the drill is turned on.
- C.
C. should be loosely attached to the drill bit.
- D.
D. must be depressed to release the lock.
- 4.A twist drill bit with four flutes should only be used to
- A.
A. start holes in sheet metal.
- B.
B. start holes in plaster.
- C.
C. enlarge cored holes.
- D.
D. drill into plaster.
- 5.Maintenance on soldering irons and guns is primarily centered on the
- A.
A. tips.
- B.
B. handle.
- C.
C. shank.
- D.
D. power cord.
- 6.Machine guarding is necessary primarily because
- A.
A. machines do not perform in a consistent manner.
- B.
B. most hazards can be eliminated through engineering.
- C.
C. a machine’s moving parts are fragile and must be protected.
- D.
D. people are unpredictable and may perform their work inconsistently.
- 7.To prevent mishaps involving machinery, the best action, which should be pursued first, is to
- A.
A. educate the worker.
- B.
B. engineer hazards out.
- C.
C. use machine guards for existing hazards.
- D.
D. provide personal protective equipment.
- 8.In-running nip points are a specific danger of which type of motion?
- A.
A. Cutting.
- B.
B. Rotating.
- C.
C. Transverse.
- D.
D. Reciprocating.
- 9.Which hazard is commonly associated with a transverse motion?
- A.
A. Projections on the rotating parts may injure the worker.
- B.
B. Flying chips or scraps are likely to strike the operator.
- C.
C. The worker may be struck or caught in a pinch by the moving part.
- D.
D. The worker may be caught between a moving and stationary part.
- 10.Which type of machine guard is preferable to all others?
- A.
A. Fixed.
- B.
B. Interlock.
- C.
C. Adjustable.
- D.
D. Self-adjusting.
- 11.Which guard will not allow a machine to start until the guard is in its proper place?
- A.
A. Fixed.
- B.
B. Interlock.
- C.
C. Adjustable.
- D.
D. Self-adjusting.
- 12.If a machine guard opens when stock is moved into the danger area and returns to a rest position when the stock is removed, that guard is
- A.
A. fixed.
- B.
B. adjustable.
- C.
C. interlocking.
- D.
D. self-adjusting.
- 13.Which safety device uses operator wristbands to ensure a worker’s hands are automatically withdrawn from the point of operation?
- A.
A. Gate.
- B.
B. Holdout.
- C.
C. Pull-out.
- D.
D. Presence sensing.
- 14.Which safety device resembles an interlocked machine guard?
- A.
A. Gate.
- B.
B. Holdout.
- C.
C. Pull-out.
- D.
D. Presence sensing.
- 15.To ensure proper layout, equipment and machinery must be arranged
- A.
A. so that weight is distributed equally.
- B.
B. to permit an even flow of materials.
- C.
C. clockwise most hazardous to least hazardous.
- D.
D. so that similar hazards are located close together.
- 16.In a machine shop, how many inches wide should aisles be to permit free movement of workers and equipment?
- A.
A. 12.
- B.
B. 18.
- C.
C. 24.
- D.
D. 36.
- 17.The flow of electricity may be compared to
- A.
A. a streak of lightning.
- B.
B. water running through a pipe.
- C.
C. water passing through the ground.
- D.
D. lightning passing through the ground.
- 18.What unit of measurement is used to measure electrical pressure, potential, or electromotive force?
- A.
A. Volts.
- B.
B. Ohms.
- C.
C. Amperes.
- D.
D. Coulombs.
- 19.According to the federal regulation 29 Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) 1910, Occupation Safety and Health Standards, voltage is considered to be high at
- A.
A. 120 volts.
- B.
B. 220 volts.
- C.
C. 440 volts.
- D.
D. 600 volts.
- 20.The primary factor influencing the severity of electrical shock to the human body is the
- A.
A. length of the exposure.
- B.
B. amount of the current flow.
- C.
C. level of the voltage applied.
- D.
D. frequency of the electrical charge.
- 21.How much current causes a normally harmless shock to be felt?
- A.
A. 1 milliampere.
- B.
B. 25 milliamperes.
- C.
C. 1 ampere.
- D.
D. 25 ampere.
- 22.What range of current, if it lasts for one second or longer, may produce an immediately fatal electrical shock?
- A.
A. 10 to 15 milliamperes.
- B.
B. 25 to 50 milliamperes.
- C.
C. 60 to 75 milliamperes.
- D.
D. 100 to 300 milliamperes.
- 23.The body can normally tolerate
- A.
A. direct currents (DC) one to two times greater than alternating currents (AC).
- B.
B. DCs three to five times greater than ACs.
- C.
C. ACs six to nine times greater than DC.
- D.
D. ACs 10 to 12 times greater than DCs.
- 24.What is the purpose of placing bonding wire between two metal objects?
- A.
A. Continuity of system grounds.
- B.
B. Equalization of static charges that may be generated.
- C.
C. Dissipation of static electrical charges to a ground.
- D.
D. Prevention of accumulations of dynamic electricity.
- 25.An example of a system ground is a
- A.
A. three-prong adapter.
- B.
B. double-insulated tool.
- C.
C. return wire attached to a ground in the earth.
- D.
D. wire attached to the frame of a tool and a metal bar.
- 26.Grounding is effective when
- A.
A. there are no breaks in the grounding path.
- B.
B. the grounding path is broken before it reaches the ground.
- C.
C. dynamic charges are converted into static charges.
- D.
D. static charges are converted into to dynamic charges.
- 27.It is hard to maintain an effective ground for portable electric equipment because
- A.
A. the equipment is relatively small in size.
- B.
B. the equipment moves a lot.
- C.
C. the equipment uses a three-wire cord.
- D.
D. the grounding prong on the plug has probably been removed.
- 28.When personnel make repairs to high voltage equipment, it is not a requirement of a safety observer to
- A.
A. be capable of applying first aid procedures.
- B.
B. be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures.
- C.
C. restrict entry into the area before adequate warnings of the hazards are given.
- D.
D. stand at the base of antennas or towers when climbers are required to ascend higher than 20 feet.
- 29.Electrical resistance gloves that are in active use must be dielectric tested every
- A.
A. 1 month.
- B.
B. 3 months.
- C.
C. 6 months.
- D.
D. 12 months.
- 30.What must be locked out before the start of inspections, maintenance, or servicing operations?
- A.
A. Energy sources.
- B.
B. Machine shops.
- C.
C. Authorized personnel.
- D.
D. Food in the industrial area.
- 31.Which tag will only be used where an immediate hazard (RAC 1 through 3) exist?
- A.
A. AF Form 979.
- B.
B. AF Form 980.
- C.
C. AF Form 981.
- D.
D. AF Form 982.
- 32.When is lockout/tagout (LOTO) not required?
- A.
A. When the machine is hard wired.
- B.
B. When the circuit panel is within eyesight.
- C.
C. When the worker only uses one hand with electrical work.
- D.
D. When the power cord is under continuous control of the worker.
- 33.Prior to starting work on the electrical system, who must verify if it has been deenergized or isolated?
- A.
A. Affected personnel.
- B.
B. Ground Safety office.
- C.
C. The functional manager or unit commander.
- D.
D. The supervisor or designated representative.
- 34.What serves as a warning when lockout/tagout (LOTO) is in place?
- A.
A. The tag.
- B.
B. An attendant until work is complete.
- C.
C. Yellow ribbon tape around the work area.
- D.
D. The flashing lights of a utility truck outside.
- 35.Other than documenting training on the AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, what is another option for documenting lockout/tagout (LOTO) training of authorized workers?
- A.
A. Only the AF Form 55.
- B.
B. A log in the LOTO program book.
- C.
C. Training is not required to be documented.
- D.
D. The unit’s computerized information management system.
- 36.How often must the safety staff evaluate a lockout/tagout (LOTO) program to ensure the requirements of the program are being followed?
- A.
A. Quarterly.
- B.
B. Semi-annually.
- C.
C. Annually.
- D.
D. Anytime a system is locked or tagged out.
- 37.A skylight screen or grill must be able withstand a load of at least how many pounds?
- A.
A. 200 pounds.
- B.
B. 250 pounds.
- C.
C. 1,200 pounds.
- D.
D. 2,000 pounds.
- 38.Scaffolds and their components must be capable of supporting how many times the maximum intended load?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
8
- D.
10
- 39.A bricklayer’s square scaffold must have
- A.
A. at least two tiers.
- B.
B. frame squares nine feet wide and three feet high.
- C.
C. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides.
- D.
D. outrigger beams that project six feet beyond the face of the building.
- 40.On an outrigger scaffold, planking must be laid tight and extended
- A.
A. to within one inch of the scaffold edge.
- B.
B. three inches beyond the scaffold edge.
- C.
C. to within six inches of the building wall.
- D.
D. to within three inches of the building wall.
- 41.A portable or extension ladder used at a building must be placed with the foot of the ladder approximately how far from the building?
- A.
A. Two feet.
- B.
B. Three feet.
- C.
C. One-eighth of the ladder’s length.
- D.
D. One-fourth of the ladder’s length.
- 42.What is the maximum number of feet an extension ladder can be extended?
- A.
A. 50.
- B.
B. 60.
- C.
C. 70.
- D.
D. 80.
- 43.Stairs are designed to carry a load five times the normal live load anticipated but no less than how many pounds of moving concentrated load?
- A.
A. 400 pounds.
- B.
B. 500 pounds.
- C.
C. 1000 pounds.
- D.
D. 5000 pounds.
- 44.The angle of rise for fixed industrial stairs will be installed at what angle?
- A.
A. Between 25 to 45 degrees.
- B.
B. Between 25 to 50 degrees.
- C.
C. Between 30 to 50 degrees.
- D.
D. Between 35 to 45 degrees.
- 45.Fall protection must be used when performing maintenance on aircraft at a height of at least
- A.
A. 4 feet.
- B.
B. 6 feet.
- C.
C. 8 feet.
- D.
D. 10 feet.
- 46.Lanyards, D-rings, locking snap-hooks, and all components of a fall arrest system must be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of
- A.
A. 3,000 pounds.
- B.
B. 5,000 pounds.
- C.
C. 10,000 pounds.
- D.
D. 12,000 pounds.
- 47.The sides of excavations in loose dirt must be braced and shored if the excavations are more than
- A.
A. two feet deep.
- B.
B. three feet deep.
- C.
C. four feet deep.
- D.
D. five feet deep.
- 48.In an excavation, trench sides must have additional shoring or bracing if they are undercut more than
- A.
A. 2 inches.
- B.
B. 4 inches.
- C.
C. 5 inches.
- D.
D. 6 inches.
- 49.When ladders are required in trenches, they should be placed so that workers must travel no more than how many feet in any direction to reach an exit?
- A.
A. 10.
- B.
B. 15.
- C.
C. 20.
- D.
D. 25.
- 50.What is the first step when inspecting a flightline fire extinguisher?
- A.
A. Check the pressure gauge for proper reading.
- B.
B. Ensure the handle is properly pinned and sealed.
- C.
C. Ensure there’s no foreign matter in the discharge nozzle.
- D.
D. Check the annual inspection and any other periodic inspection dates documented.
- 51.Who can temporarily approve the use of portable electrical equipment that is not intrinsically safe, in a class I division I location?
- A.
A. Fire chief.
- B.
B. Group commander.
- C.
C. Maintenance officer.
- D.
D. Ground safety manager.
- 52.Who ensures detailed local operating procedures covering safety precautions for hangaring aircraft are prepared and coordinated with installation ground safety and fire department personnel?
- A.
A. Hangar supervisor.
- B.
B. Maintenance flight chief.
- C.
C. Maintenance officer.
- D.
D. Group commander.
- 53.Horizontal sliding hangar doors must be opened wide enough to permit clearance of at least how many feet at each wing tip?
- A.
A. 5.
- B.
B. 10.
- C.
C. 15.
- D.
D. 20.
- 54.How far above the floor of aircraft hangars must the design of the generator be to allow sparking contacts and other possible ignition sources?
- A.
A. 12 inches.
- B.
B. 18 inches.
- C.
C. 24 inches.
- D.
D. 32 inches.
- 55.Who establishes emergency procedures to remove aircraft from hangars in case of fire?
- A.
A. Fire chief.
- B.
B. Tow supervisor.
- C.
C. Ground safety manager.
- D.
D. Aircraft maintenance officer.
- 56.How far above the floor of aircraft hangars must spark-producing components be located when a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar?
- A.
A. 12 inches.
- B.
B. 18 inches.
- C.
C. 24 inches.
- D.
D. 32 inches.
- 57.When a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar, what is the minimum distance that must be maintained between the pumping unit and the aircraft?
- A.
A. 5 feet.
- B.
B. 10 feet.
- C.
C. 25 feet.
- D.
D. 50 feet.
- 58.What piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) must personnel working in a parachute drying tower wear?
- A.
A. Goggles.
- B.
B. Hard hats.
- C.
C. Leather gloves.
- D.
D. Heat resistant overalls.
- 59.When may a safety guard enter a tank cell in an attempt to rescue someone?
- A.
A. After notifying paramedics.
- B.
B. Never, only team qualified in confined space rescue may enter a tank.
- C.
C. After notifying the fire rescue unit and putting on the prescribed respiratory protection.
- D.
D. When additional help is present and the safety guard is equipped with the prescribed respiratory equipment.
- 60.After fuel residues have been removed through depuddling, fuel cells must be
- A.
A. air purged.
- B.
B. water purged.
- C.
C. steam cleaned.
- D.
D. immediately refilled.
- 61.The number of refueling vehicles required to service an aircraft at any one time is determined by the
- A.
A. quantity of fuel needed and the time required to refuel the aircraft.
- B.
B. number of refueling ports on the aircraft and available supervisors.
- C.
C. size of the aircraft and holding area.
- D.
D. mission priority and ground crew.
- 62.A service cart must be at least how many feet away from a fueling operation?
- A.
A. 25.
- B.
B. 50.
- C.
C. 75.
- D.
D. 100.
- 63.When filling the fuel tank of a self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC), never smoke or allow any open flame closer than how many feet to the unit?
- A.
A. 25.
- B.
B. 50.
- C.
C. 100.
- D.
D. 150.
- 64.Refueling equipment and aircraft involved in hot-pit refueling operations should be positioned so that
- A.
A. the standby fire truck has a clear path to the aircraft fueling ports.
- B.
B. ground personnel have a clear path of egress in case of an emergency.
- C.
C. hot sparks from vehicle exhaust do not blow into aircraft fueling ports.
- D.
D. the wind does not blow fuel towards the intakes of operating aircraft engines.
- 65.Who advises the pilot when to abandon an aircraft during emergency hot pit refueling procedures?
- A.
A. Maintenance control officer.
- B.
B. Ground safety manager.
- C.
C. Refueling supervisor.
- D.
D. Fire department.
- 66.A minimum of how many brakes are required on work stands used around aircraft?
- A.
A. One.
- B.
B. Two.
- C.
C. Three.
- D.
D. Four.
- 67.The maximum speed that any two maintenance stands may be towed over a smooth, paved surface is
- A.
A. 5 mile per hour (mph).
- B.
B. 10 mph.
- C.
C. 15 mph.
- D.
D. 20 mph.
- 68.The maximum speed that any aircraft may be towed at any time is
- A.
A. 20 mile per hour (mph).
- B.
B. 15 mph.
- C.
C. 10 mph.
- D.
D. 5 mph.
- 69.Generally people and vehicles should not pass closer than how many feet to the rear of an aircraft with its engines running?
- A.
A. 100.
- B.
B. 150.
- C.
C. 200.
- D.
D. 250.
- 70.Which publication lists the international aircraft marshalling signals?
- A.
A. AFI 75–2.
- B.
B. AFI 91–202.
- C.
C. AFI 11–218.
- D.
D. AFI 91–206.
- 71.Personnel must be tested within how many days of being assigned to duties requiring their knowledge of marshaling signals?
- A.
A. 30.
- B.
B. 60.
- C.
C. 90.
- D.
D. 120.
- 72.Where is the fireguard positioned during an engine start?
- A.
A. Even with the tail of the aircraft and at a 35-degree angle outboard of the engine.
- B.
B. Even with the tail of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine.
- C.
C. Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 35-degree angle outboard of the engine.
- D.
D. Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine.
- 73.Who has the responsibility for policing up the area after the aircraft has taxied?
- A.
A. Fireguard.
- B.
B. Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) monitor.
- C.
C. Lead crew chief.
- D.
D. Ground controller.
- 74.After turning, the aircraft must be marshaled forward in a straight line at least how many feet to relieve the loads on the main landing gear?
- A.
A. 5.
- B.
B. 10.
- C.
C. 15.
- D.
D. 20.
- 75.What is the minimum wing tip clearance for aircraft with wingspans greater than 110 feet?
- A.
A. 10–25 feet.
- B.
B. 25–50 feet.
- C.
C. 50–75 feet.
- D.
D. 75–100 feet.
- 76.Under normal circumstances general purpose vehicles may not exceed what speed when operating on the flight line?
- A.
A. 10 mile per hour (mph).
- B.
B. 15 mph.
- C.
C. 20 mph.
- D.
D. 25 mph.
- 77.The maximum speed for a vehicle operated within 10 feet of an aircraft is
- A.
A. 3 miles per hour (mph).
- B.
B. 5 mph.
- C.
C. 10 mph.
- D.
D. 15 mph.
- 78.Which statement is not true concerning vehicle operation on the flight line?
- A.
A. “Follow-me” vehicles may exceed 15 miles per hour (mph).
- B.
B. Vehicles should not pass under the wings of an aircraft.
- C.
C. A flashing white light at a junction to the flight line indicates it is safe for vehicles to cross.
- D.
D. Passenger-carrying vehicles must stop at the side of aircraft only when they are loading or unloading passengers.
- 79.Which of the following is not a basic rule for aircraft engine runs?
- A.
A. A pilot qualified on the aircraft must be present at all times.
- B.
B. Do not leave controls unattended when engines are running.
- C.
C. Parking brakes must be set.
- D.
D. Wheels must be chocked.
- 80.How soon prior to the start of the concurrent servicing operation (CSO) must the concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS) ensure the fire department is notified?
- A.
A. 15 minutes.
- B.
B. 60 minutes.
- C.
C. 24 hours.
- D.
D. 48 hours.
- 81.Weapons load personnel can be certified on how many types of aircraft?
- A.
A. One.
- B.
B. Two.
- C.
C. Three.
- D.
D. No limit.
- 82.During aircraft loading of vehicles, vehicle drivers must follow the instructions of the individual designated by whom as a spotter?
- A.
A. The loadmaster or load team chief.
- B.
B. Wing safety or the unit safety representative.
- C.
C. The base operations official or control tower official.
- D.
D. Unit safety representative or base operations official.
- 83.Who chairs the Bird Hazard Working Group (BHWG) meetings?
- A.
A. Wing commander.
- B.
B. Vice wing commander.
- C.
C. Chief of flight safety.
- D.
D. Airfield manager.
- 84.To limit the attractiveness to wildlife, the grass in aircraft movement areas must not be more than?
- A.
A. 14 inches.
- B.
B. 18 inches.
- C.
C. 22 inches.
- D.
D. 26 inches.
- 85.Who appoints a flight safety officer (FSO) as a safety advisor to the baser aero club?
- A.
A. Host unit commander.
- B.
B. Chief of flight safety.
- C.
C. Aero club director.
- D.
D. Airfield manager.
- 86.Although the host safety office may investigate aero club mishaps, who has the primary responsibility to investigate mishaps in the US?
- A.
A. Major command (MAJCOM).
- B.
B. Air Force Safety Center.
- C.
C. Federal Aviation Agency.
- D.
D. National Traffic Safety Board.
- 87.An explosives license does not apply to which activities?
- A.
A. Explosives operations.
- B.
B. Explosives storage facilities.
- C.
C. Pre-positioned mobility explosives.
- D.
D. Munitions locations used solely for exercises.
- 88.Which action is a written authorization that allows a specific departure from a mandatory requirement for other than quantity-distance (Q-D) criteria?
- A.
A. Waiver.
- B.
B. Deviation.
- C.
C. Immunity.
- D.
D. Exemption.
- 89.In an explosive storage area, a barricade provide protection for which hazard?
- A.
A. Flooding.
- B.
B. Low-angle fragments.
- C.
C. High-angle fragments.
- D.
D. Unauthorized personnel.
- 90.What is the advantage of the earth-covered igloo magazine?
- A.
A. A firebreak around the perimeter is not required.
- B.
B. Is a secure structure without the need for additional security.
- C.
C. Offer the greatest protection from the effects of an explosion.
- D.
D. Provides storage of explosives next to other industrial activities.
- 91.What is not an authorized way to ship or move explosives?
- A.
A. Private vehicle.
- B.
B. Commercial rail.
- C.
C. Commercial aircraft.
- D.
D. Battery-powered material handling equipment.
- 92.Which of the following actions is a preferred way to reduce lead exposure on the firing range?
- A.
A. Do not eat or drink on the range.
- B.
B. Daily clean the bullet traps of metal backstops.
- C.
C. Manually remove spent projectiles from wooden material.
- D.
D. Personnel will use their hat when collecting spent brass.
- 93.Which of the following is not a responsibility of the armorer?
- A.
A. Verify individual’s authorization to draw a weapon.
- B.
B. Ensure each weapon is cleared before issue or turn-in.
- C.
C. Issue the weapon muzzle first with bolt forward.
- D.
D. Allow one person at a time to approach the issue window.
- 94.How does the range operating agency (ROA) minimize potential safety hazards associated with weapons employment?
- A.
A. Approve public use of an active range and risk assessments.
- B.
B. Observe off-range impacts and acquire additional land for the mission.
- C.
C. Risk assessments and establish mission parameters for range activities.
- D.
D. Establish mission parameters for range activities and observe off-range impacts.
- 95.In addition to grounding the aircraft, a worker must meet which other requirement while loading missiles?
- A.
A. No refueling will be authorized.
- B.
B. No other maintenance will be performed.
- C.
C. Other electrical systems must be turned off.
- D.
D. All non-essential personnel must be removed.
- 96.Why should personnel working with solid propellants not wear woolen or synthetic clothing?
- A.
A. Because of potential chemical reactions.
- B.
B. These materials have a tendency to produce static electricity.
- C.
C. The fabric is usually cumbersome and may get caught in some support equipment.
- D.
D. To the contrary, wool and synthetics are preferred for these operations because of their insulating properties.
- 97.What can store sufficient energy to cause injury from electrical shock even though the power has been disconnected?
- A.
A. Batteries.
- B.
B. Capacitors.
- C.
C. Generators.
- D.
D. When power is turned off energy is dissipated.
- 98.When flexible high-pressure lines are used around missile systems, they must be
- A.
A. secured to prevent whipping.
- B.
B. encased in a hardened substance to prevent punctures.
- C.
C. placed at least eight feet above all working and walking surfaces.
- D.
D. loose on the floor and not covered with any objects.
- 99.When connecting or disconnecting high pressure lines from corrosive liquids or gases, take special care to avoid
- A.
A. rupturing the tank.
- B.
B. decompressing the system.
- C.
C. contaminating the system.
- D.
D. spilling the agent being used.
- 100.Speed limits for missile-loaded vehicles must be strictly obeyed to prevent
- A.
A. jarring or overturning the missile.
- B.
B. trailer tire-heat buildup.
- C.
C. static buildup.
- D.
D. trailer sway.
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