1s051 Volume 3 (Edit Code 5)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which of the following is an improper way to store pliers, screwdrivers or wrenches?

    • A. Rack, shelves or tool boxes.
    • B. Pant or coat pockets.
    • C. Carrying bags.
    • D. Tool belts.
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '1S051 VOLUME 3 (Edit Code 5)', assesses knowledge on proper storage and handling of tools like pliers, screwdrivers, and electric drills. It focuses on safety hazards, maintenance practices, and the importance of machine guarding, enhancing both safety awareness and operational consistency.

1s051 Volume 3 (Edit Code 5) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which tag will only be used where an immediate hazard (RAC 1 through 3) exist?

    • A. AF Form 979.

    • B. AF Form 980.

    • C. AF Form 981.

    • D. AF Form 982.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. AF Form 979.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 979 is used to identify and communicate immediate hazards, specifically those classified as RAC 1 through 3. RAC stands for Risk Assessment Code, with RAC 1 being the highest level of risk. This form is used to document and track hazardous conditions or situations that require immediate attention and corrective action. The other forms listed (AF Form 980, AF Form 981, and AF Form 982) may be used for different purposes, but they do not specifically address immediate hazards.

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  • 3. 

    What must be locked out before the start of inspections, maintenance, or servicing operations?

    • A. Energy sources.

    • B. Machine shops.

    • C. Authorized personnel.

    • D. Food in the industrial area.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Energy sources.
    Explanation
    Before the start of inspections, maintenance, or servicing operations, energy sources must be locked out. This is done to ensure the safety of the personnel involved in these operations. Locking out energy sources prevents accidental startup of machines or equipment, which could result in serious injuries or fatalities. By locking out energy sources, such as electrical power, hydraulic systems, or pneumatic systems, potential hazards are eliminated, allowing the work to be carried out safely.

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  • 4. 

    When is lockout/tagout (LOTO) not required?

    • A. When the machine is hard wired.

    • B. When the circuit panel is within eyesight.

    • C. When the worker only uses one hand with electrical work.

    • D. When the power cord is under continuous control of the worker.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. When the power cord is under continuous control of the worker.
    Explanation
    When the power cord is under continuous control of the worker, lockout/tagout (LOTO) is not required. This means that as long as the worker is physically holding or controlling the power cord, there is no need for additional safety measures such as locking or tagging the equipment. However, it is important to note that LOTO is still necessary in all other situations mentioned in the question.

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  • 5. 

    What serves as a warning when lockout/tagout (LOTO) is in place?

    • A. The tag.

    • B. An attendant until work is complete.

    • C. Yellow ribbon tape around the work area.

    • D. The flashing lights of a utility truck outside.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. The tag.
    Explanation
    When lockout/tagout (LOTO) is in place, the tag serves as a warning. A tag is typically attached to the energy source or equipment that is being locked out or tagged out. It provides information about who is responsible for the lockout/tagout, when it was performed, and why it is necessary. The tag serves as a visual reminder to workers that the equipment is not to be operated until the lockout/tagout is removed. It helps to prevent accidental start-up or release of stored energy, ensuring the safety of workers during maintenance or repair work.

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  • 6. 

    To ensure proper layout, equipment and machinery must be arranged

    • A. so that weight is distributed equally.

    • B. to permit an even flow of materials.

    • C. clockwise most hazardous to least hazardous.

    • D. so that similar hazards are located close together.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. to permit an even flow of materials.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. to permit an even flow of materials. This means that the layout of equipment and machinery should be organized in a way that allows for a smooth and uninterrupted movement of materials. This ensures efficiency in the production process and minimizes any potential bottlenecks or delays. By arranging the equipment and machinery in a manner that facilitates an even flow of materials, productivity can be maximized and operational efficiency can be improved.

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  • 7. 

    Fall protection must be used when performing maintenance on aircraft at a height of at least

    • A. 4 feet.

    • B. 6 feet.

    • C. 8 feet.

    • D. 10 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 4 feet.
    Explanation
    Fall protection must be used when performing maintenance on aircraft at a height of at least 4 feet. This means that any time a person is working at a height of 4 feet or higher, they must have some form of fall protection in place to prevent them from falling and potentially getting injured. This could include using safety harnesses, guardrails, or other safety equipment.

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  • 8. 

    Who can temporarily approve the use of portable electrical equipment that is not intrinsically safe, in a class I division I location?

    • A. Fire chief.

    • B. Group commander.

    • C. Maintenance officer.

    • D. Ground safety manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Fire chief.
    Explanation
    The fire chief can temporarily approve the use of portable electrical equipment that is not intrinsically safe in a class I division I location. This is because the fire chief is responsible for ensuring the safety of the location, including approving any exceptions or temporary measures that need to be taken.

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  • 9. 

    On an electric drill, the chuck

    • A. must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit.

    • B. must be released before the drill is turned on.

    • C. should be loosely attached to the drill bit.

    • D. must be depressed to release the lock.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit.
    Explanation
    The chuck on an electric drill must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit to ensure stability and prevent the drill bit from slipping or becoming loose during operation. This allows for accurate drilling and reduces the risk of accidents or damage to the workpiece.

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  • 10. 

    Maintenance on soldering irons and guns is primarily centered on the

    • A. tips.

    • B. handle.

    • C. shank.

    • D. power cord.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. tips.
    Explanation
    Maintenance on soldering irons and guns is primarily centered on the tips because the tips are the most critical component of the soldering tool. The tips are responsible for transferring heat to the solder and the joint being soldered. Over time, the tips can become worn, corroded, or contaminated, which can lead to poor soldering performance. Therefore, regular maintenance, such as cleaning, tinning, and replacing tips when necessary, is essential to ensure efficient and effective soldering operations.

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  • 11. 

    Grounding is effective when

    • A. there are no breaks in the grounding path.

    • B. the grounding path is broken before it reaches the ground.

    • C. dynamic charges are converted into static charges.

    • D. static charges are converted into to dynamic charges.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. there are no breaks in the grounding path.
    Explanation
    Grounding is effective when there are no breaks in the grounding path because a continuous path allows for the safe dissipation of electrical charges. If there are breaks in the grounding path, the electrical charges may not be able to flow properly and could potentially cause electrical hazards such as electric shocks or equipment damage. Therefore, a continuous grounding path is essential to ensure the effectiveness of grounding in preventing electrical accidents.

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  • 12. 

    It is hard to maintain an effective ground for portable electric equipment because

    • A. the equipment is relatively small in size.

    • B. the equipment moves a lot.

    • C. the equipment uses a three-wire cord.

    • D. the grounding prong on the plug has probably been removed.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. the equipment moves a lot.
    Explanation
    Portable electric equipment is designed to be easily moved from one location to another. Due to this mobility, it becomes difficult to maintain a consistent and effective ground for the equipment. As the equipment moves, the grounding connection may become loose or disconnected, leading to potential safety hazards. Therefore, the correct answer is b. the equipment moves a lot.

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  • 13. 

    How often must the safety staff evaluate a lockout/tagout (LOTO) program to ensure the requirements of the program are being followed?

    • A. Quarterly.

    • B. Semi-annually.

    • C. Annually.

    • D. Anytime a system is locked or tagged out.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Annually.
    Explanation
    The safety staff must evaluate a lockout/tagout (LOTO) program annually to ensure that the requirements of the program are being followed. This periodic evaluation helps to identify any potential gaps or deficiencies in the program and allows for necessary updates or improvements to be made. It also ensures that employees are consistently following the correct procedures for locking and tagging out equipment, which is essential for their safety. Quarterly or semi-annual evaluations may not be frequent enough to catch any emerging issues, while evaluating only when a system is locked or tagged out may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the overall program.

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  • 14. 

    A twist drill bit with four flutes should only be used to

    • A. start holes in sheet metal.

    • B. start holes in plaster.

    • C. enlarge cored holes.

    • D. drill into plaster.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. enlarge cored holes.
    Explanation
    A twist drill bit with four flutes is designed to remove material quickly and efficiently. It is not suitable for starting holes in sheet metal or plaster as it may cause damage or create an uneven hole. Instead, it is best used to enlarge cored holes, where a pilot hole has already been drilled. The multiple flutes allow for better chip evacuation and reduce the chances of the bit getting stuck or overheated during the enlargement process.

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  • 15. 

    Which guard will not allow a machine to start until the guard is in its proper place?

    • A. Fixed.

    • B. Interlock.

    • C. Adjustable.

    • D. Self-adjusting.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Interlock.
    Explanation
    An interlock guard is designed to prevent a machine from starting or operating until the guard is in its proper position. This type of guard typically has a mechanism that locks the machine's power source or control system, ensuring that it cannot be activated until the guard is securely in place. This helps to ensure the safety of operators by preventing accidental or unauthorized access to hazardous areas while the machine is in operation.

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  • 16. 

    The flow of electricity may be compared to

    • A. a streak of lightning.

    • B. water running through a pipe.

    • C. water passing through the ground.

    • D. lightning passing through the ground.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. water running through a pipe.
    Explanation
    The comparison of the flow of electricity to water running through a pipe is appropriate because both electricity and water flow in a continuous path. Just like water flows through a pipe, electricity flows through conductive materials, such as wires. This analogy helps to understand the concept of electrical current and how it moves from one point to another.

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  • 17. 

    According to the federal regulation 29 Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) 1910, Occupation Safety and Health Standards, voltage is considered to be high at

    • A. 120 volts.

    • B. 220 volts.

    • C. 440 volts.

    • D. 600 volts.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 600 volts.
    Explanation
    According to the federal regulation 29 Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) 1910, Occupation Safety and Health Standards, voltage is considered to be high at 600 volts.

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  • 18. 

    An example of a system ground is a

    • A. three-prong adapter.

    • B. double-insulated tool.

    • C. return wire attached to a ground in the earth.

    • D. wire attached to the frame of a tool and a metal bar.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. return wire attached to a ground in the earth.
    Explanation
    A system ground refers to a connection between an electrical system and the earth, which serves as a reference point for the system's voltage. Option c, a return wire attached to a ground in the earth, is an example of a system ground as it provides a direct path for excess electrical current to flow into the earth, preventing the buildup of voltage and ensuring safety. Option a, a three-prong adapter, provides a ground connection in electrical outlets but does not directly connect to the earth. Option b, a double-insulated tool, is designed to protect against electric shock but does not involve a system ground. Option d, a wire attached to the frame of a tool and a metal bar, does not necessarily imply a connection to the earth.

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  • 19. 

    Under normal circumstances general purpose vehicles may not exceed what speed when operating on the flight line?

    • A. 10 mile per hour (mph).

    • B. 15 mph.

    • C. 20 mph.

    • D. 25 mph.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 15 mph.
    Explanation
    Under normal circumstances, general purpose vehicles are not allowed to exceed a speed of 15 mph when operating on the flight line. This speed limit is put in place to ensure the safety of personnel and aircraft on the flight line. Operating at higher speeds can increase the risk of accidents and collisions, which can have serious consequences. Therefore, it is important for drivers of general purpose vehicles to adhere to this speed limit to maintain a safe environment on the flight line.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is not a basic rule for aircraft engine runs?

    • A. A pilot qualified on the aircraft must be present at all times.

    • B. Do not leave controls unattended when engines are running.

    • C. Parking brakes must be set.

    • D. Wheels must be chocked.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. A pilot qualified on the aircraft must be present at all times.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. A pilot qualified on the aircraft must be present at all times. This is not a basic rule for aircraft engine runs because it is not necessary for a pilot to be present at all times during engine runs. While it is important for a pilot to be present during certain operations, such as taxiing and takeoff, it is not required for them to be present during engine runs. Engine runs can be performed by qualified ground personnel or maintenance technicians without a pilot being present.

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  • 21. 

    During aircraft loading of vehicles, vehicle drivers must follow the instructions of the individual designated by whom as a spotter?

    • A. The loadmaster or load team chief.

    • B. Wing safety or the unit safety representative.

    • C. The base operations official or control tower official.

    • D. Unit safety representative or base operations official.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. The loadmaster or load team chief.
    Explanation
    During aircraft loading of vehicles, vehicle drivers must follow the instructions of the individual designated as a spotter, who is typically the loadmaster or load team chief. These individuals are responsible for overseeing the loading process and ensuring that it is done safely and efficiently. They have the necessary knowledge and experience to guide the drivers and ensure that the vehicles are properly positioned and secured on the aircraft. By following their instructions, the drivers can help prevent accidents and ensure that the loading process goes smoothly.

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  • 22. 

    Why should personnel working with solid propellants not wear woolen or synthetic clothing?

    • A. Because of potential chemical reactions.

    • B. These materials have a tendency to produce static electricity.

    • C. The fabric is usually cumbersome and may get caught in some support equipment.

    • D. To the contrary, wool and synthetics are preferred for these operations because of their insulating properties.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. These materials have a tendency to produce static electricity.
  • 23. 

    What can store sufficient energy to cause injury from electrical shock even though the power has been disconnected?

    • A. Batteries.

    • B. Capacitors.

    • C. Generators.

    • D. When power is turned off energy is dissipated.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Capacitors.
    Explanation
    Capacitors can store electrical energy even after the power has been disconnected. This is because capacitors store energy in an electric field between two conductive plates. When the power is disconnected, the charge stored in the capacitor remains, and if someone comes into contact with the charged capacitor, it can discharge a significant amount of energy, causing injury from electrical shock.

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  • 24. 

    To prevent mishaps involving machinery, the best action, which should be pursued first, is to

    • A. educate the worker.

    • B. engineer hazards out.

    • C. use machine guards for existing hazards.

    • D. provide personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. engineer hazards out.
    Explanation
    The best action to prevent mishaps involving machinery is to engineer hazards out. This means identifying and eliminating or minimizing potential hazards in the design and construction of machinery. By addressing hazards at the source, the risk of accidents and injuries can be significantly reduced. Educating workers, using machine guards, and providing personal protective equipment are important measures, but they should be implemented after engineering hazards out to provide an additional layer of protection.

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  • 25. 

    After fuel residues have been removed through depuddling, fuel cells must be

    • A. air purged.

    • B. water purged.

    • C. steam cleaned.

    • D. immediately refilled.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. air purged.
    Explanation
    After fuel residues have been removed through depuddling, fuel cells must be air purged. This is necessary to ensure that any remaining fuel or flammable gases are removed from the fuel cells before they are refilled. Air purging helps to prevent the risk of explosions or other safety hazards that could occur if fuel residues were left inside the cells. By purging the cells with air, any remaining fuel or flammable gases can be safely removed, making the cells ready for refilling and subsequent use.

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  • 26. 

    A minimum of how many brakes are required on work stands used around aircraft?

    • A. One.

    • B. Two.

    • C. Three.

    • D. Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Two.
    Explanation
    To ensure safety, a minimum of two brakes are required on work stands used around aircraft. This is necessary to prevent any unintended movement or rolling of the stands, which could potentially cause damage to the aircraft or pose a risk to personnel working nearby. Having two brakes provides a reliable and stable support system, reducing the chances of accidents or mishaps during maintenance or operations on the aircraft.

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  • 27. 

    What is the advantage of the earth-covered igloo magazine?

    • A. A firebreak around the perimeter is not required.

    • B. Is a secure structure without the need for additional security.

    • C. Offer the greatest protection from the effects of an explosion.

    • D. Provides storage of explosives next to other industrial activities.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Offer the greatest protection from the effects of an explosion.
    Explanation
    The advantage of the earth-covered igloo magazine is that it offers the greatest protection from the effects of an explosion. This means that the structure is designed in a way that minimizes the impact and damage caused by an explosion, making it a safe storage option for explosives.

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  • 28. 

    Machine guarding is necessary primarily because

    • A. machines do not perform in a consistent manner.

    • B. most hazards can be eliminated through engineering.

    • C. a machine’s moving parts are fragile and must be protected.

    • D. people are unpredictable and may perform their work inconsistently.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. people are unpredictable and may perform their work inconsistently.
    Explanation
    Machine guarding is necessary primarily because people are unpredictable and may perform their work inconsistently. This means that even if machines are designed to perform in a consistent manner, human operators may not always follow the correct procedures or may make mistakes. Machine guarding helps to protect both the operators and the machines from potential hazards that could arise from these unpredictable actions. It provides a physical barrier that prevents accidental contact with moving parts or other dangerous areas of the machine, reducing the risk of injuries or accidents.

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  • 29. 

    When personnel make repairs to high voltage equipment, it is not a requirement of a safety observer to

    • A. be capable of applying first aid procedures.

    • B. be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures.

    • C. restrict entry into the area before adequate warnings of the hazards are given.

    • D. stand at the base of antennas or towers when climbers are required to ascend higher than 20 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures. This is because while it is important for a safety observer to have knowledge of first aid procedures (option a), it is not necessary for them to be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures. The main role of a safety observer is to ensure that proper safety protocols are followed during repairs to high voltage equipment, such as restricting entry into the area before adequate warnings of the hazards are given (option c) and standing at the base of antennas or towers when climbers are required to ascend higher than 20 feet (option d).

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  • 30. 

    What is not an authorized way to ship or move explosives?

    • A. Private vehicle.

    • B. Commercial rail.

    • C. Commercial aircraft.

    • D. Battery-powered material handling equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Private vehicle.
    Explanation
    Private vehicles are not an authorized way to ship or move explosives because they do not have the necessary safety measures and regulations in place to ensure the secure transportation of such hazardous materials. Commercial rail, commercial aircraft, and battery-powered material handling equipment are all authorized methods for transporting explosives as they have specific protocols and safety standards in place to prevent accidents and ensure the safe handling and transportation of these materials.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following actions is a preferred way to reduce lead exposure on the firing range?

    • A. Do not eat or drink on the range.

    • B. Daily clean the bullet traps of metal backstops.

    • C. Manually remove spent projectiles from wooden material.

    • D. Personnel will use their hat when collecting spent brass.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Do not eat or drink on the range.
    Explanation
    Eating or drinking on the firing range can increase the risk of lead exposure because lead particles can contaminate food and beverages. By not eating or drinking on the range, individuals can minimize the chances of ingesting lead and reduce their overall lead exposure.

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  • 32. 

    In a machine shop, how many inches wide should aisles be to permit free movement of workers and equipment?

    • A. 12.

    • B. 18.

    • C. 24.

    • D. 36.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 36.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 36. In a machine shop, wide aisles are necessary to allow for the movement of workers and equipment. A width of 36 inches provides enough space for workers to maneuver comfortably and for equipment to be transported safely throughout the shop. This ensures that there are no obstructions or congestion that could hinder productivity or pose a safety risk.

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  • 33. 

    Scaffolds and their components must be capable of supporting how many times the maximum intended load?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 8

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Scaffolds and their components must be capable of supporting the maximum intended load at least four times. This ensures that the scaffold is strong and stable enough to handle the weight it is designed for, providing a safe working environment for workers. A higher safety factor is necessary to account for potential variations in load distribution and unexpected loads that may occur during construction or maintenance activities.

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  • 34. 

    How far above the floor of aircraft hangars must spark-producing components be located when a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar?

    • A. 12 inches.

    • B. 18 inches.

    • C. 24 inches.

    • D. 32 inches.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 18 inches.
    Explanation
    Spark-producing components must be located at least 18 inches above the floor of aircraft hangars when a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside. This is to minimize the risk of sparks igniting flammable materials or causing a fire hazard.

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  • 35. 

    What is the chief hazard associated with electrically powered tools?

    • A. Fire.

    • B. Flash burns.

    • C. Hand injuries.

    • D. Electrical shock.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Electrical shock.
    Explanation
    The chief hazard associated with electrically powered tools is electrical shock. When using these tools, there is a risk of coming into contact with live wires or faulty equipment, which can result in electric shock. This can cause severe injury or even death. Therefore, it is important to take proper safety precautions and ensure that the tools are in good working condition to minimize the risk of electrical shock.

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  • 36. 

    In-running nip points are a specific danger of which type of motion?

    • A. Cutting.

    • B. Rotating.

    • C. Transverse.

    • D. Reciprocating.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Rotating.
    Explanation
    In-running nip points are a specific danger of rotating motion. Nip points occur when two objects come together and create a pinch or squeeze point. In the case of rotating motion, these points can be created between a rotating object and a stationary object or between two rotating objects. This can pose a significant risk to individuals working with or around rotating machinery, as these nip points can catch clothing, body parts, or tools, leading to severe injuries or even amputations. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the presence of in-running nip points and take necessary precautions to ensure safety.

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  • 37. 

    Which safety device resembles an interlocked machine guard?

    • A. Gate.

    • B. Holdout.

    • C. Pull-out.

    • D. Presence sensing.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Gate.
    Explanation
    A gate is a safety device that resembles an interlocked machine guard because it acts as a physical barrier that restricts access to a hazardous area. Similar to an interlocked machine guard, a gate is designed to prevent accidental contact with moving parts or dangerous equipment. It typically has a locking mechanism that ensures it remains closed while the machine is in operation, providing an extra layer of protection for operators and workers.

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  • 38. 

    The body can normally tolerate

    • A. direct currents (DC) one to two times greater than alternating currents (AC).

    • B. DCs three to five times greater than ACs.

    • C. ACs six to nine times greater than DC.

    • D. ACs 10 to 12 times greater than DCs.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. DCs three to five times greater than ACs.
  • 39. 

    Other than documenting training on the AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, what is another option for documenting lockout/tagout (LOTO) training of authorized workers?

    • A. Only the AF Form 55.

    • B. A log in the LOTO program book.

    • C. Training is not required to be documented.

    • D. The unit’s computerized information management system.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. The unit’s computerized information management system.
    Explanation
    Another option for documenting lockout/tagout (LOTO) training of authorized workers is the unit's computerized information management system. This system can be used to record and track training records, ensuring that all employees who are authorized to perform LOTO procedures have received the necessary training. This option provides a centralized and easily accessible platform for storing and retrieving training information, making it convenient for both employees and management.

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  • 40. 

    A bricklayer’s square scaffold must have

    • A. at least two tiers.

    • B. frame squares nine feet wide and three feet high.

    • C. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides.

    • D. outrigger beams that project six feet beyond the face of the building.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides. This is because braces are necessary for stability in a bricklayer's square scaffold, and they should be 1 by 8 inches in size. The braces are placed on both the front and rear sides of the scaffold to provide support and prevent any wobbling or collapsing.

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  • 41. 

    A portable or extension ladder used at a building must be placed with the foot of the ladder approximately how far from the building?

    • A. Two feet.

    • B. Three feet.

    • C. One-eighth of the ladder’s length.

    • D. One-fourth of the ladder’s length.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. One-fourth of the ladder’s length.
    Explanation
    When using a portable or extension ladder at a building, it is important to place the foot of the ladder approximately one-fourth of the ladder's length away from the building. This ensures stability and prevents the ladder from tipping over. Placing the foot too close to the building may cause the ladder to become unbalanced and increase the risk of accidents. Therefore, it is crucial to follow this guideline for safe ladder usage.

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  • 42. 

    The sides of excavations in loose dirt must be braced and shored if the excavations are more than

    • A. two feet deep.

    • B. three feet deep.

    • C. four feet deep.

    • D. five feet deep.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. four feet deep.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. four feet deep. Excavations in loose dirt are at risk of collapsing due to the lack of stability. To prevent this, bracing and shoring are necessary. The depth of the excavation determines the level of risk, and it is recommended to brace and shore excavations that are more than four feet deep to ensure the safety of workers and prevent accidents.

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  • 43. 

    What piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) must personnel working in a parachute drying tower wear?

    • A. Goggles.

    • B. Hard hats.

    • C. Leather gloves.

    • D. Heat resistant overalls.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Hard hats.
    Explanation
    Personnel working in a parachute drying tower must wear hard hats as a piece of personal protective equipment (PPE). This is because there is a risk of objects falling from above, which could potentially cause head injuries. Hard hats provide protection against such hazards by absorbing the impact and reducing the risk of head injuries.

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  • 44. 

    Which publication lists the international aircraft marshalling signals?

    • A. AFI 75–2.

    • B. AFI 91–202.

    • C. AFI 11–218.

    • D. AFI 91–206.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. AFI 11–218.
    Explanation
    AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is the publication that lists the international aircraft marshalling signals. The other options, AFI 75-2, AFI 91-202, and AFI 91-206, do not specifically pertain to aircraft marshalling signals.

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  • 45. 

    Personnel must be tested within how many days of being assigned to duties requiring their knowledge of marshaling signals?

    • A. 30.

    • B. 60.

    • C. 90.

    • D. 120.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 30.
    Explanation
    Personnel must be tested within 30 days of being assigned to duties requiring their knowledge of marshaling signals. This ensures that they are knowledgeable and capable of performing their duties effectively and safely. Testing within this timeframe allows for timely identification of any knowledge gaps or training needs, allowing for appropriate action to be taken to address them.

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  • 46. 

    Where is the fireguard positioned during an engine start?

    • A. Even with the tail of the aircraft and at a 35-degree angle outboard of the engine.

    • B. Even with the tail of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine.

    • C. Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 35-degree angle outboard of the engine.

    • D. Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine.
    Explanation
    During an engine start, the fireguard is positioned even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine. This positioning ensures that the fireguard is in a safe location to monitor the engine start and quickly respond to any potential fire hazards. Placing the fireguard at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine also allows for a clear line of sight to the engine and surrounding areas, ensuring that any signs of fire or smoke can be detected promptly.

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  • 47. 

    The maximum speed for a vehicle operated within 10 feet of an aircraft is

    • A. 3 miles per hour (mph).

    • B. 5 mph.

    • C. 10 mph.

    • D. 15 mph.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 5 mph.
    Explanation
    The maximum speed for a vehicle operated within 10 feet of an aircraft is 5 mph. This speed limit is imposed to ensure the safety of both the aircraft and the vehicle. Operating at a slower speed allows the vehicle to have better control and maneuverability, reducing the risk of collisions or accidents. Additionally, a lower speed limit allows for better communication and coordination between the vehicle operator and the aircraft personnel, ensuring a safe working environment.

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  • 48. 

    Which action is a written authorization that allows a specific departure from a mandatory requirement for other than quantity-distance (Q-D) criteria?

    • A. Waiver.

    • B. Deviation.

    • C. Immunity.

    • D. Exemption.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Deviation.
    Explanation
    A deviation is a written authorization that allows a specific departure from a mandatory requirement for other than quantity-distance (Q-D) criteria. This means that it grants permission to deviate from a requirement that is not related to the distance between quantities of hazardous materials. A waiver, on the other hand, is a written authorization that allows a specific departure from a mandatory requirement for quantity-distance (Q-D) criteria. Immunity and exemption are not relevant to this context.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the armorer?

    • A. Verify individual’s authorization to draw a weapon.

    • B. Ensure each weapon is cleared before issue or turn-in.

    • C. Issue the weapon muzzle first with bolt forward.

    • D. Allow one person at a time to approach the issue window.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Issue the weapon muzzle first with bolt forward.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the armorer is to ensure the safe and proper handling of weapons. They are responsible for verifying an individual's authorization to draw a weapon and ensuring each weapon is cleared before issue or turn-in. They are also responsible for allowing one person at a time to approach the issue window. However, issuing the weapon muzzle first with the bolt forward is not a responsibility of the armorer. This is because it is unsafe to issue a weapon in this manner as it increases the risk of accidental discharge.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 3, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 29, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Jim
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