A+ Certification 220-702 Part 1 Of 2

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A Plus Certification Quizzes & Trivia

The quiz below is set on the 202 to the 702 series for the A+ certification course. If one is capable of tackling the questions they are sure to pass the coming exams with minimal difficulties. Think you have what it takes? Give this first set of questions a try and find out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the delay in the RAM’s response to a request from the memory controller called?

    • A.

      Latency

    • B.

      Standard deviation

    • C.

      Fetch interval

    • D.

      Lag

    Correct Answer
    A. Latency
    Explanation
    Latency refers to the delay in the RAM's response to a request from the memory controller. It represents the time it takes for the RAM to retrieve and provide the requested data. Latency is an important factor in determining the overall performance and speed of a computer system. It can be influenced by various factors such as the type of RAM, the speed of the memory controller, and the distance between the RAM and the memory controller.

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  • 2. 

    In a standard ATX-based computer, how many IDE devices can be installed?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    In a standard ATX-based computer, up to four IDE devices can be installed. IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) is an older technology used to connect storage devices such as hard drives and optical drives to a computer's motherboard. The computer typically has two IDE channels, each capable of supporting two devices. Therefore, a total of four IDE devices can be connected, with two devices per channel.

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  • 3. 

    What is the minimum number of hard drives necessary to implement RAID 5?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    RAID 5 is a data storage technique that distributes data across multiple hard drives, providing redundancy and increased performance. In RAID 5, data is striped across multiple drives with parity information distributed among them. This allows for data recovery in case of a single drive failure. To implement RAID 5, a minimum of three hard drives is required. One drive is used for parity information, while the other two drives store the data. This setup ensures that data can still be accessed even if one of the drives fails.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following precautions should be taken so that ESD does not cause damage to a computer that is being repaired? Select all that apply.

    • A.

      Use an antistatic strap.

    • B.

      Wear shoes with rubber soles.

    • C.

      Spray antistatic spray on the components.

    • D.

      Put the computer on an antistatic mat.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Use an antistatic strap.
    D. Put the computer on an antistatic mat.
    Explanation
    Using an antistatic strap and putting the computer on an antistatic mat are both precautions that should be taken to prevent ESD (electrostatic discharge) from causing damage to a computer being repaired. An antistatic strap is worn on the wrist and helps to ground the person working on the computer, preventing any static electricity from building up and potentially damaging the components. Placing the computer on an antistatic mat provides a grounded surface that helps to dissipate any static electricity that may be present. Wearing shoes with rubber soles and spraying antistatic spray on the components are not effective precautions for preventing ESD damage.

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  • 5. 

    You start a new computer and nothing seems to happen. Upon closer inspection, you can hear the hard drive spinning; however, nothing is coming up on the monitor. Which of the following would not be a reason for this?

    • A.

      The monitor is not on.

    • B.

      The PC is not connected to the AC outlet.

    • C.

      The monitor is not connected to the PC.

    • D.

      The video card is not properly seated

    Correct Answer
    B. The PC is not connected to the AC outlet.
    Explanation
    The reason for nothing appearing on the monitor is not because the PC is not connected to the AC outlet. The AC outlet is responsible for providing power to the PC, and if it is not connected, the computer would not start at all. In this case, since the hard drive is spinning, it indicates that the PC is receiving power and the issue lies elsewhere, such as the monitor not being on or not being connected to the PC, or the video card not being properly seated.

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  • 6. 

    What is the easiest way to monitor the battery health of a UPS?

    • A.

      Use the UPS monitoring software.

    • B.

      Use a voltmeter.

    • C.

      Replace the battery every year.

    • D.

      Use Event Viewer

    Correct Answer
    A. Use the UPS monitoring software.
    Explanation
    The easiest way to monitor the battery health of a UPS is by using the UPS monitoring software. This software is specifically designed to provide real-time information and alerts about the battery status, allowing users to track the health and performance of the UPS battery. It provides detailed information such as battery voltage, remaining capacity, and estimated runtime, making it convenient and efficient for monitoring the battery health. Using a voltmeter may require manual measurements and may not provide comprehensive information. Replacing the battery every year is not a practical solution as it may lead to unnecessary expenses. Event Viewer is not directly related to monitoring battery health.

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  • 7. 

    A computer you are working on has a lot of dust inside. How should you clean this

    • A.

      Disassemble the power supply and remove the dust

    • B.

      Use a vacuum to clean up the dust

    • C.

      Use a surface dust cleaning solution

    • D.

      Use compressed air to remove the dust.

    Correct Answer
    D. Use compressed air to remove the dust.
    Explanation
    Using compressed air to remove the dust is the most effective and safe method for cleaning a computer with a lot of dust inside. Disassembling the power supply is not recommended unless you have proper knowledge and experience. Using a vacuum can create static electricity and damage the sensitive components of the computer. Using a surface dust cleaning solution can leave residue and potentially damage the electronics. Compressed air, on the other hand, can effectively remove dust without causing any harm to the computer components.

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  • 8. 

    What function is performed by the external power supply of a laptop?

    • A.

      Increases voltage

    • B.

      Stores power

    • C.

      Converts DC power to AC power

    • D.

      Converts AC power to DC power

    Correct Answer
    D. Converts AC power to DC power
    Explanation
    The external power supply of a laptop converts AC power from a wall outlet to DC power that the laptop can use. This is necessary because laptops operate on DC power, while the power supplied by the wall outlet is in the form of AC power. Therefore, the external power supply performs the function of converting the AC power to DC power, allowing the laptop to operate and charge its battery.

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  • 9. 

    Which one of the following keys is found only on a laptop?

    • A.

      Ctrl key

    • B.

      Fn key

    • C.

      Shift key

    • D.

      Numlock key

    Correct Answer
    B. Fn key
    Explanation
    The Fn key is found only on a laptop. This key is used to access special functions and shortcuts on laptops, such as adjusting brightness, volume, or screen resolution. It is not commonly found on desktop keyboards. The Ctrl, Shift, and Numlock keys, on the other hand, are found on both laptops and desktop keyboards.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following commands creates a new directory in the Windows Command Prompt?

    • A.

      CD

    • B.

      RD

    • C.

      XD

    • D.

      MD

    Correct Answer
    D. MD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MD. MD stands for "make directory" and is a command used in the Windows Command Prompt to create a new directory. The CD command is used to change the current directory, RD is used to remove a directory, and XD is not a valid command.

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  • 11. 

    To learn more about the PING command, what would you enter at the command line?

    • A.

      PING HELP

    • B.

      HELP PING

    • C.

      PING /?

    • D.

      PING ?

    Correct Answer
    C. PING /?
    Explanation
    Entering "PING /?" at the command line will provide more information about the PING command. The "/?" is a common syntax used in command line interfaces to display help and usage information for a specific command. By entering this command, the user can access the help documentation for the PING command, which will provide details on its usage, options, and parameters.

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  • 12. 

    Which syntax will enable you to see your computer’s MAC address?

    • A.

      IPCONFIG /?

    • B.

      IPCONFIG /everything

    • C.

      PING /everything

    • D.

      IPCONFIG /all

    Correct Answer
    D. IPCONFIG /all
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IPCONFIG /all. By using this syntax, you will be able to see your computer's MAC address along with other information such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

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  • 13. 

    A customer’s computer is using FAT16. What file system can you upgrade it to when using the convert command?

    • A.

      NTFS

    • B.

      NFS

    • C.

      FAT32

    • D.

      FAT64

    • E.

      EXT

    Correct Answer
    A. NTFS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NTFS. The convert command can be used to upgrade a computer's file system from FAT16 to NTFS. NTFS is a more advanced and secure file system compared to FAT16, offering features such as file and folder permissions, encryption, and support for larger file sizes and partitions.

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  • 14. 

    How do you change the virtual memory in Windows XP?

    • A.

      Click Start > Settings > Control Panel > Virtual Memory.

    • B.

      It is not possible.

    • C.

      Go to the System Properties window, click the Advanced tab, select Performance Options. Click Change and enter the new virtual memory.

    • D.

      Go to the System Properties window and select Performance Options. Click Change and enter the new virtual memory.

    Correct Answer
    C. Go to the System Properties window, click the Advanced tab, select Performance Options. Click Change and enter the new virtual memory.
    Explanation
    To change the virtual memory in Windows XP, you need to go to the System Properties window by clicking on Start > Settings > Control Panel > System. Then, click on the Advanced tab and select Performance Options. From there, click on the Change button and enter the new virtual memory size.

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  • 15. 

    How can you configure Windows XP’s virtual memory to optimal settings?

    • A.

      Set the virtual memory to No Paging File.

    • B.

      Set Windows to Automatically Manage Size.

    • C.

      Manually set the virtual memory settings to 1MB

    • D.

      Set the virtual memory manually to one-third of RAM.

    Correct Answer
    B. Set Windows to Automatically Manage Size.
    Explanation
    Setting Windows to automatically manage the size of the virtual memory is the optimal setting because it allows the operating system to dynamically adjust the size of the virtual memory based on the system's needs. This ensures that the system has enough virtual memory to run efficiently without wasting resources. Manually setting the virtual memory to a specific size may result in inadequate memory allocation or excessive memory usage, depending on the system's requirements.

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  • 16. 

    Jake’s Windows Vista computer has several programs running in the system tray that take up a lot of memory and processing power. He would like you to turn them off permanently. What tool should you use to do this?

    • A.

      MSCONFIG.EXE

    • B.

      SYSEDIT.EXE

    • C.

      IPCONFIG /RELEASE

    • D.

      Task Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. MSCONFIG.EXE
    Explanation
    MSCONFIG.EXE is the correct answer because it is a tool that allows users to manage the startup programs and services on a Windows computer. By using MSCONFIG.EXE, Jake can disable the programs running in the system tray, preventing them from starting up automatically and consuming memory and processing power.

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  • 17. 

    What is a common risk when installing Windows drivers that are unsigned?

    • A.

      System stability may be compromised.

    • B.

      Files might be cross-linked.

    • C.

      The drive might become fragmented.

    • D.

      Physical damage to devices might occur.

    Correct Answer
    A. System stability may be compromised.
    Explanation
    When installing Windows drivers that are unsigned, there is a common risk of compromising system stability. Unsigned drivers are not verified by Microsoft, which means they may not meet the necessary standards and could potentially contain bugs or malware. This can lead to system instability, causing crashes, freezes, or other performance issues. It is important to only install drivers from trusted sources to ensure the stability and security of the system.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following answers can be used to keep disk drives free of errors and Windows XP running efficiently? Select all that apply.

    • A.

      A. Disk Management

    • B.

      B. Disk Defragmenter

    • C.

      C. Check Disk

    • D.

      D. System Restore

    • E.

      E. Scheduled Tasks

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. B. Disk Defragmenter
    C. C. Check Disk
    Explanation
    Disk Defragmenter and Check Disk are two tools that can be used to keep disk drives free of errors and Windows XP running efficiently. Disk Defragmenter helps in optimizing the placement of files on the hard drive, which can improve system performance. Check Disk, on the other hand, scans the hard drive for errors and fixes them, ensuring the integrity of the file system and preventing potential issues. Both tools are important for maintaining the health and performance of the disk drives in Windows XP.

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  • 19. 

    Tom has a 30GB hard disk partition (known as C:). He has 1.5GB free space on the partition. How can he defrag the partition?

    • A.

      He can run the Disk Defragmenter in Computer Management.

    • B.

      He can run DEFRAG.EXE –f in the command line.

    • C.

      He can run DEFRAG.EXE –v in the command line.

    • D.

      He can run DEFRAG.EXE –R in the command line.

    Correct Answer
    B. He can run DEFRAG.EXE –f in the command line.
    Explanation
    Tom can defrag the partition by running DEFRAG.EXE -f in the command line. The -f option stands for "force defragmentation" which will defragment the partition even if there is low free space available. This is suitable for Tom's situation where he only has 1.5GB free space on the partition.

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  • 20. 

    Buzz gets an error that says “Error log full.” Where should you go to clear his Error log?

    • A.

      Device Manager

    • B.

      System Information

    • C.

      Recovery Console

    • D.

      Event Viewer

    Correct Answer
    D. Event Viewer
    Explanation
    To clear Buzz's Error log, you should go to the Event Viewer. The Event Viewer is a tool in Windows that allows users to view and manage event logs on their computer. Event logs store information about events that occur on the system, including errors and warnings. By accessing the Event Viewer, Buzz can locate and clear the error log, which will help in troubleshooting any issues he may be experiencing.

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  • 21. 

    What is Windows Vista’s recovery environment known as? (Select all that apply.)

    • A.

      WinRE

    • B.

      Recovery Console

    • C.

      Advanced Boot Options

    • D.

      System Recovery Options

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. WinRE
    D. System Recovery Options
    Explanation
    The correct answer is WinRE and System Recovery Options. Windows Vista's recovery environment is known as WinRE, which stands for Windows Recovery Environment. It provides various tools and options for troubleshooting and repairing the operating system. System Recovery Options is also a correct answer as it refers to the set of tools and features available within WinRE for recovering and repairing the system.

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  • 22. 

    A user’s time and date keeps resetting to January 1st, 2000. What is the most likely cause?

    • A.

      The BIOS needs to be updated

    • B.

      Windows needs to be updated.

    • C.

      The Windows Date and Time Properties window needs to be modified

    • D.

      The lithium battery needs to be replaced

    Correct Answer
    D. The lithium battery needs to be replaced
    Explanation
    The most likely cause for the user's time and date resetting to January 1st, 2000 is that the lithium battery on the computer's motherboard needs to be replaced. The lithium battery is responsible for providing power to the motherboard's real-time clock (RTC), which keeps track of the date and time even when the computer is turned off. If the battery is no longer functioning properly, it can cause the RTC to reset to a default date, such as January 1st, 2000. Updating the BIOS or Windows, or modifying the Windows Date and Time Properties window, would not typically resolve this issue.

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  • 23. 

    What would you need to access to boot the computer into Safe Mode?

    • A.

      WinRE

    • B.

      Recovery Console

    • C.

      Advanced Boot Options

    • D.

      System Restore

    Correct Answer
    C. Advanced Boot Options
    Explanation
    To boot a computer into Safe Mode, you would need to access the Advanced Boot Options. This menu allows you to choose different startup options for your computer, including Safe Mode. Safe Mode is a troubleshooting mode that starts the computer with only essential drivers and services, which can help diagnose and fix issues with the operating system. Accessing the Advanced Boot Options menu can be done by pressing a specific key (such as F8) during the computer's startup process.

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  • 24. 

    What command repairs the bootmgr.exe file in Windows Vista?

    • A.

      Bootrec /fixboot

    • B.

      Bootrec /fixmbr

    • C.

      Bootrec /rebuildbcd

    • D.

      Boot/bcd

    Correct Answer
    A. Bootrec /fixboot
    Explanation
    The command "bootrec /fixboot" repairs the bootmgr.exe file in Windows Vista. This command is used to fix issues related to the boot configuration data (BCD) store. It specifically repairs the boot sector of the system partition, which is essential for the operating system to start up properly. By using this command, the bootmgr.exe file can be restored or repaired, resolving any boot-related problems in Windows Vista.

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  • 25. 

    If you get a Code 1 message about a particular device in the Device Manager, what should you do?

    • A.

      Close applications and install RAM.

    • B.

      Disable the device.

    • C.

      Update the driver.

    • D.

      Reinstall the driver.

    Correct Answer
    C. Update the driver.
    Explanation
    If you receive a Code 1 message about a specific device in the Device Manager, the correct action to take is to update the driver. This is because a Code 1 message indicates that the device is not configured correctly and updating the driver can resolve the issue. Closing applications and installing RAM, disabling the device, or reinstalling the driver may not address the underlying problem and are not the recommended solutions in this case.

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  • 26. 

    Which tool checks protected system files?

    • A.

      Chkdsk

    • B.

      Xcopy

    • C.

      Scandisk

    • D.

      SFC

    Correct Answer
    D. SFC
    Explanation
    SFC (System File Checker) is the tool that checks protected system files. It is a Windows utility that scans and verifies the integrity of all system files, replacing any corrupted or modified files with the original versions from the Windows cache. This helps in maintaining the stability and functionality of the operating system by ensuring that essential system files are not compromised or damaged. Chkdsk, Xcopy, and Scandisk are not specifically designed for checking protected system files.

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  • 27. 

    What are the six steps of the laser-printing process in order?

    • A.

      Cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing

    • B.

      Charging, cleaning, writing, developing, transferring, fusing

    • C.

      Cleaning, charging, writing, transferring, developing, fusing

    • D.

      Charging, cleaning, writing, transferring, developing, fusing

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing. This sequence of steps is the correct order in which the laser-printing process occurs. First, the printer cleans the drum or other printing surface to remove any residual toner or debris. Then, the drum is charged with an electrical charge to prepare it for writing. Next, the laser writes the image or text onto the drum by selectively discharging the charged areas. After that, the developing unit applies toner to the discharged areas, creating a visible image. The image is then transferred from the drum to the paper or other media. Finally, the fusing unit applies heat and pressure to fuse the toner onto the paper, completing the printing process.

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  • 28. 

    How many pins would you see in a high-quality printhead on a dot matrix printer?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      35

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    A high-quality printhead on a dot matrix printer typically contains 24 pins. These pins are responsible for striking the ink ribbon against the paper to create the desired image or text. The more pins a printhead has, the higher the print quality and resolution it can achieve. Therefore, a high-quality printhead would have a greater number of pins, such as 24 in this case.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following would indicate a secured HTTP server?

    • A.

      HTTPSSL://www.davidlprowse.com

    • B.

      HTTPS://www.davidlprowse.com

    • C.

      HTTP://www.davidlprowse.com

    • D.

      HTTP://www.davidlprowse.com/secure

    Correct Answer
    B. HTTPS://www.davidlprowse.com
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "HTTPS://www.davidlprowse.com". The "HTTPS" protocol indicates that the HTTP server is secured. The "S" in HTTPS stands for Secure Socket Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS), which encrypts the data transmitted between the server and the client, ensuring a secure connection. The other options, HTTPSSL://www.davidlprowse.com, HTTP://www.davidlprowse.com, and HTTP://www.davidlprowse.com/secure, do not include the "S" in HTTPS, indicating that they are not secured HTTP servers.

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  • 30. 

    The IP address 192.168.1.1 should have what default subnet mask?

    • A.

      A. 255.255.0.0

    • B.

      B. 255.255.255.0

    • C.

      C. 255.0.0.0

    • D.

      D. 255.255.255.255

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 255.255.255.0
    Explanation
    The default subnet mask for the IP address 192.168.1.1 is 255.255.255.0 because it is a Class C IP address. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the first 3 octets (192.168.1) represent the network portion of the address, and the last octet (1) represents the host portion. This allows for a maximum of 254 hosts on the network.

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  • 31. 

    Joey’s computer was working fine for weeks, and suddenly it cannot connect to the Internet. Joey runs the command ipconfig and sees that the IP address his computer is using is 169.254.50.68. What can he conclude from this?

    • A.

      The computer cannot access the DHCP server

    • B.

      The computer cannot access the POP3 server

    • C.

      The computer cannot access the DNS server.

    • D.

      The computer cannot access the WINS server

    Correct Answer
    A. The computer cannot access the DHCP server
    Explanation
    The IP address 169.254.50.68 is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. This address is automatically assigned by the computer when it cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. Therefore, Joey can conclude that his computer is unable to access the DHCP server, which is responsible for assigning IP addresses to devices on a network.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following commands ping the loopback address?

    • A.

      PING 127.0.0.1

    • B.

      PING 10.0.0.1

    • C.

      PING 1.0.0.127

    • D.

      PING \\localhost

    Correct Answer
    A. PING 127.0.0.1
    Explanation
    The loopback address is a special IP address that allows a device to send network packets to itself. In this case, the command "PING 127.0.0.1" specifically pings the loopback address, as it is the correct IP address for the loopback interface. The other commands do not target the loopback address, so they will not ping the loopback interface.

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  • 33. 

    Which of these is an example of social engineering?

    • A.

      Asking for a username and password over the phone

    • B.

      Using someone else’s unsecured wireless network

    • C.

      Hacking into a router

    • D.

      A virus

    Correct Answer
    A. Asking for a username and password over the phone
    Explanation
    Asking for a username and password over the phone is an example of social engineering because it involves manipulating or deceiving individuals to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information. In this scenario, the attacker may pretend to be a trusted authority or a technical support representative to trick the victim into revealing their login credentials. This tactic exploits human trust and relies on social interaction rather than technical means to breach security measures.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following settings must be established if you want to make a secure wireless connection? Select all that apply.

    • A.

      A. The brand of access point

    • B.

      B. The wireless standard used

    • C.

      C. The encryption standard used

    • D.

      D. The SSID of the access point

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. C. The encryption standard used
    D. D. The SSID of the access point
    Explanation
    To establish a secure wireless connection, two settings must be established. The first is the encryption standard used, which ensures that the data transmitted over the wireless connection is encrypted and cannot be easily intercepted by unauthorized users. The second setting is the SSID (Service Set Identifier) of the access point, which is the unique name that identifies the wireless network. By setting a specific SSID, you can ensure that only authorized devices can connect to the network, adding an extra layer of security. The brand of access point and the wireless standard used are not directly related to establishing a secure wireless connection.

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  • 35. 

    A co-worker is traveling to Europe and is bringing her computer. She asks you what safety concerns there might be. What should you tell her?

    • A.

      A. That computer is not usable in other countries

    • B.

      B. Check for a compatible power adapter for that country

    • C.

      C. Use a line conditioner for the correct voltage.

    • D.

      D. Check the voltage selector on the power supply

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Check the voltage selector on the power supply
    Explanation
    When traveling to Europe with a computer, it is important to check the voltage selector on the power supply. Different countries have different electrical systems and voltages. By checking the voltage selector, the co-worker can ensure that the computer is set to the correct voltage for the country she is visiting. This will prevent any potential damage to the computer and ensure its safe usage.

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  • 36. 

    A customer wants you to replace the fan in her power supply. What should you do?

    • A.

      Order the correct replacement fan and replace it.

    • B.

      Clean the inside of the power supply first.

    • C.

      Unplug the power supply first.

    • D.

      Refuse the customer.

    Correct Answer
    D. Refuse the customer.
  • 37. 

    Which of these tools can protect you in the case of a surge?

    • A.

      Torx wrench

    • B.

      Antistatic strap

    • C.

      Voltmeter

    • D.

      Antistatic mat

    Correct Answer
    B. Antistatic strap
    Explanation
    An antistatic strap can protect you in the case of a surge by grounding any static electricity that may build up on your body. This prevents the static electricity from damaging sensitive electronic components or causing a surge that could damage the equipment you are working with. By wearing an antistatic strap, you can safely discharge any static electricity and reduce the risk of electrical damage.

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  • 38. 

    You are at a customer’s office you have visited before. You can guess what the problem is, and when the customer mentions getting an IP address of 169.254..., you immediately know how to fix the problem. However, as you ponder the solution, you notice that the customer is now talking about his server. What should you do?

    • A.

      Fix the IP problem while the customer talks.

    • B.

      Hold up your hand and tell him that you understand the problem.

    • C.

      Let the customer finish what he is saying

    • D.

      Leave the job site

    Correct Answer
    C. Let the customer finish what he is saying
    Explanation
    It is important to let the customer finish what he is saying because he might provide additional information or mention other issues that need to be addressed. Interrupting him could lead to misunderstandings or missing important details. It is best to actively listen to the customer and then address the IP problem once he has finished speaking.

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  • 39. 

    While you are working on a customer’s computer at her home, she informs you that she needs to leave for about 10 minutes and that her 8-year-old son can help you with anything if you need it. What should you do?

    • A.

      Tell the customer to get back home as soon as possible.

    • B.

      Tell her that you are not responsible for the child

    • C.

      Tell her that an adult must be home while you work

    • D.

      Tell her that the child must be removed.

    Correct Answer
    C. Tell her that an adult must be home while you work
    Explanation
    It is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of both the child and the technician. Leaving an 8-year-old child unsupervised can pose risks and potential hazards. Therefore, it is appropriate to inform the customer that an adult must be present while the technician is working to ensure a safe environment for everyone involved.

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  • 40. 

    After installing a new hard drive on a Windows XP computer, Len tries to format the drive. Windows XP does not show the format option in Disk Management. What did Len forget to do first?

    • A.

      Run CHKDSK.

    • B.

      Partition the drive.

    • C.

      Defragment the drive.

    • D.

      Copy system files.

    Correct Answer
    B. Partition the drive.
    Explanation
    Len forgot to partition the drive before trying to format it. Partitioning a hard drive involves dividing it into separate sections or partitions, which allows the operating system to recognize and use the drive. Without partitioning, Windows XP will not show the format option in Disk Management.

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  • 41. 

    What is the thickness of a Type II PC Card?

    • A.

      0.3 inches (7.5mm)

    • B.

      0.129 inches (3.3mm)

    • C.

      0.2 inches (5.0mm)

    • D.

      0.41 inches (10.5mm)

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.2 inches (5.0mm)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.2 inches (5.0mm). This is the thickness of a Type II PC Card.

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  • 42. 

    What type of adapter card is normally plugged into an AGP adapter card slot?

    • A.

      Modem

    • B.

      Video

    • C.

      NIC

    • D.

      Sound

    Correct Answer
    B. Video
    Explanation
    An AGP adapter card slot is specifically designed to accommodate a video adapter card. This type of adapter card is responsible for generating and displaying visual content on the computer's monitor. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is "Video".

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following recovery options uses a floppy disk?

    • A.

      WinRE

    • B.

      ASR

    • C.

      NTBackup

    • D.

      Recovery Console

    Correct Answer
    B. ASR
    Explanation
    ASR (Automated System Recovery) is the recovery option that uses a floppy disk. ASR is a feature in Windows operating systems that allows users to create a backup of their system's critical files and settings. In the event of a system failure, the ASR floppy disk can be used to restore the system to its previous state. This option is particularly useful for restoring a system when the operating system cannot be accessed or when other recovery options are not available.

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  • 44. 

    To prevent damage to a computer and its peripherals, the computer should be connected to what?

    • A.

      A. A power strip

    • B.

      B. A power inverter

    • C.

      C. An AC to DC converter

    • D.

      D. A UPS

    Correct Answer
    D. D. A UPS
    Explanation
    A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is essential to prevent damage to a computer and its peripherals. A UPS provides backup power in case of a power outage or fluctuation, ensuring that the computer remains powered on and protected. It also acts as a surge protector, safeguarding against power spikes or surges that could potentially damage the computer components. Therefore, connecting a computer to a UPS is crucial for maintaining its functionality and protecting it from potential harm.

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  • 45. 

    A computer has 512MB of RAM. It also has 64MB of shared video memory. How much RAM is available to the operating system?

    • A.

      512MB

    • B.

      256MB

    • C.

      448MB

    • D.

      576MB

    Correct Answer
    C. 448MB
    Explanation
    The computer has 512MB of RAM, but 64MB of it is allocated for shared video memory. Shared video memory is memory that is used by the graphics card for displaying images on the screen. Therefore, the operating system only has access to the remaining amount of RAM, which is 448MB.

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  • 46. 

    Jennifer just installed a DVD-ROM drive and a CD-RW drive in a PC. When she boots the system, she sees only the DVD-ROM drive. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

    • A.

      The drives are jumpered incorrectly.

    • B.

      The Molex connector is not connected to the CD-RW drive

    • C.

      The IDE cable to the CD-RW drive is upside down.

    • D.

      The CD-RW drive has not been initialized.

    Correct Answer
    B. The Molex connector is not connected to the CD-RW drive
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of Jennifer only seeing the DVD-ROM drive when she boots the system is that the Molex connector is not connected to the CD-RW drive.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following components could cause the POST to beep several times and fail during boot?

    • A.

      Sound card

    • B.

      Power supply

    • C.

      Hard drive

    • D.

      RAM

    Correct Answer
    D. RAM
    Explanation
    RAM stands for Random Access Memory, which is a crucial component in a computer system. During the Power-On Self Test (POST), the computer checks the functionality of different hardware components. If the RAM is faulty or not properly installed, it can cause the POST to beep several times and fail during boot. This is because the computer is unable to access or use the RAM properly, leading to errors in the boot process.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is the proper boot sequence of a PC?

    • A.

      CPU, POST, boot loader, operating system

    • B.

      Boot loader, operating system, CPU, RAM

    • C.

      POST, CPU, boot loader, operating system

    • D.

      CPU, RAM, boot loader, operating system

    Correct Answer
    A. CPU, POST, boot loader, operating system
    Explanation
    The proper boot sequence of a PC starts with the CPU, which initiates the boot process. After the CPU, the Power-On Self Test (POST) is performed to check the hardware components of the computer. Once the POST is completed, the boot loader is loaded, which is responsible for loading the operating system. Finally, the operating system is loaded and the PC is ready for use.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following has the fastest data throughput?

    • A.

      CD-ROM

    • B.

      Hard drive

    • C.

      RAM

    • D.

      USB

    Correct Answer
    C. RAM
    Explanation
    RAM (Random Access Memory) has the fastest data throughput among the given options. This is because RAM is a type of computer memory that allows data to be read from or written to quickly. It is much faster than other storage devices like CD-ROM, hard drive, and USB, which have slower data transfer rates. RAM is designed to provide quick access to data, making it ideal for storing and retrieving information that needs to be accessed frequently and rapidly by the computer's processor.

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  • 50. 

    Roger informs you that none of the three SCSI drives can be seen on his SCSI chain. What should you check?

    • A.

      Whether the host adapter is terminated and that the disks have consecutive IDs of 1, 2, and 3

    • B.

      Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7 or 15, and whether all the disks are terminated and have consecutive IDs of 0, 1, and 2

    • C.

      Whether the host adapter has an ID of 0, and whether the disks are terminated with the same ID

    • D.

      Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7, and whether both ends of the chain are terminated, and that each disk has a unique ID

    Correct Answer
    D. Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7, and whether both ends of the chain are terminated, and that each disk has a unique ID
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the first thing to check is whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7. This is important because the SCSI adapter needs to have a specific ID in order to function properly. Additionally, it is important to ensure that both ends of the chain are terminated, as this helps to prevent signal reflections and ensure proper communication between devices. Lastly, each disk should have a unique ID, as having duplicate IDs can cause conflicts and prevent the drives from being recognized.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 12, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Spawn_2_extreme
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