Rt Simulation Examination 5

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Ultrasound Imaging, which involves exposing part of the body to high-frequency sound waves to produce pictures of the inside of the body, is also known as what?
- Intonography
- Resonography
- Sonography
- Harmonography

About This Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Gulf RT Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks.
This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE.
Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics.
Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Rtonline. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF RT EXAMINATIONS INCLUDING HAAD RT, SAUDI PROMETRICS, DUBAI DHA, AND UAE MOH. THE QUESTIONS HERE ARE TAKEN FROM THIS ACTUAL EXAMINATIONS, SO PASSING THIS ASSESSMENT EXAM WILL GIVE YOU A HIGH PROBABILITY OF PASSING THE SAID EXAMINATIONS

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2.

Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?
- Ct angiogram for circle of Willis
- Coronal scan to r/o pituitary tumor
- CT of brain to r/o subdural hematoma
- Ct of brain to r/o metastatic disease
Correct Answer

A. CT of brain to r/o subdural hematoma

Explanation

A CT scan of the brain to rule out a subdural hematoma is typically performed without a contrast agent because the presence of blood in the subdural space can be easily detected without the need for contrast enhancement. Contrast agents are typically used in CT angiograms to visualize blood vessels, in coronal scans to evaluate pituitary tumors, and in CT scans to rule out metastatic disease. However, in the case of a subdural hematoma, the blood is already present and can be easily identified on a non-contrast CT scan.

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3.

During the CT exam of a knee. The PT is mostly to be in the __________ position
- Ventral recumbent
- Right lateral
- Supine
- Left lateral
Correct Answer

A. Supine

Explanation

During a CT exam of the knee, the patient is mostly positioned in the supine position. This means that the patient lies flat on their back with their face and torso facing upward. This position allows for better visualization and access to the knee joint during the scan. The supine position also provides a comfortable and stable position for the patient during the procedure.

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4.

Which letter corresponds to the achilles tendon?
- A
- H
- K
- I
Correct Answer

A. K

Explanation

The letter "k" corresponds to the achilles tendon. The achilles tendon is the largest tendon in the human body and connects the calf muscles to the heel bone. It is responsible for allowing the foot to point and enabling activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

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5.

Which letter corresponds to the right adrenal gland
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

The letter "a" corresponds to the right adrenal gland.

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6.

Positioning PT with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during the CT scan of the lumbar spine assists in 1 Decreasing the kyphotic curvature of lumbar spine2 making the PT more comfortable during the exam3 decreasing the lordotic curvature of the L-SP
- 1 only
- 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3
Correct Answer

A. 2 and 3

Explanation

Positioning the patient with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during the CT scan of the lumbar spine helps in two ways. Firstly, it helps in decreasing the lordotic curvature of the lumbar spine (3), which is the natural inward curve of the lower back. This positioning can help to straighten the spine and provide a clearer image during the scan. Secondly, it makes the patient more comfortable during the exam (2) by providing support and reducing strain on the lower back. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.

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7.

Ultrasound exams are captured in real-time, using ionizing radiation to show the structure and movement of the patient's internal organs.
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. False

Explanation

Ultrasound does not use ionizing radiation, it uses sound waves.

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8.

A common nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland is typically referred to as
- Prostatic carcinoma
- Prostatic abscess
- Prostatic hypertrophy
- Extrapostatic extension
Correct Answer

A. Prostatic hypertrophy

Explanation

Prostatic hypertrophy is the correct answer because it refers to the common nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland. This condition, also known as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), is a common age-related condition in men. It occurs when the prostate gland grows in size and can cause symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, weak urine stream, and difficulty starting or stopping urination. Prostatic carcinoma, prostatic abscess, and extrapostatic extension are not accurate terms to describe a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland.

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9.

Which of the pelvic bones cobine(s) to form the acetabulum?
- Ilium
- Ischium
- Pubis
- A and C
- A, B, and C
Correct Answer

A. A, B, and C

Explanation

The acetabulum is formed by the combination of the ilium, ischium, and pubis bones. These three pelvic bones come together to create a socket-like structure that connects with the head of the femur, forming the hip joint.

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10.

The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:
- Spondylolisthesis
- Spondylolysis
- Herniated nucleus pulposus
- Spinal stenosis
Correct Answer

A. Spondylolisthesis

Explanation

a result of degenerative changes of the facet joints.

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11.

Non-contrast CT of the urinary tract is a valuable tool in the investigation of;
- Transitional cell carcinoma(TCC)
- Urinary tract lithiasis
- Renal artery stenosis
- Ureteral duplication
Correct Answer

A. Urinary tract lithiasis

Explanation

Lithiasis refers to the presence of stones

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12.

Of the following ranges, which would be most suited for a scout image of the abdomen?
- Below the diaphragm to the bottom of the kidney
- To of the kidney to the level of the mid sacrum
- Top of the kidney to the umbilicus
- Above the diaphragm to the illiac crest
Correct Answer

A. Above the diaphragm to the illiac crest

Explanation

The range "above the diaphragm to the illiac crest" would be most suited for a scout image of the abdomen because it includes the entire abdominal region, from the top of the diaphragm (which separates the chest and abdomen) down to the illiac crest (the top ridge of the hip bone). This range allows for a comprehensive view of the abdomen, including the organs and structures within it. The other ranges mentioned in the question either do not cover the entire abdomen or include areas outside of the abdomen.

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13.

During CT of the head, the gantry should be angled
- 15 degrees above the OML
- 10 degrees below the IML
- 0 degrees
- 20 degrees above the skull base
Correct Answer

A. 15 degrees above the OML

Explanation

During CT of the head, angling the gantry 15 degrees above the OML (Orbitomeatal Line) is the correct approach. The OML is an imaginary line that connects the external auditory meatus to the infraorbital rim. Angling the gantry in this manner helps to align the scan with the anatomical structures of the head, providing accurate imaging of the brain and surrounding areas. This specific angle allows for optimal visualization of the cranial structures while minimizing artifacts and distortion in the images.

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14.

Which of the following techniques assists in visualizing the vagina during the CT of the pelvis?
- Tampon insertion
- Precontrast and postcontrast scanning
- Oral contrast
- Enema contrast
Correct Answer

A. Tampon insertion

Explanation

Tampon insertion is a technique that can assist in visualizing the vagina during CT of the pelvis. By inserting a tampon into the vagina, it helps to provide a clear and defined outline of the vaginal canal, making it easier to visualize and interpret the CT images. This technique is commonly used in cases where specific evaluation of the vaginal anatomy is required, such as in cases of vaginal bleeding or suspected abnormalities. The tampon acts as a contrast agent, highlighting the vaginal structure and aiding in the diagnostic process.

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15.

The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is
- 3 mm
- 5 mm
- 7 mm
Correct Answer

A. 3 mm

Explanation

A section thickness of 3 mm would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses because it is a thinner section compared to 5 mm and 7 mm. Thinner sections provide higher resolution and allow for better visualization of small structures and details. Therefore, a 3 mm section thickness would provide the best opportunity to capture the intricate details of the paranasal sinuses.

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16.

Which on the following would not be considered an absolute contradiction to IV contrast during a CT exam of the kidneys
- Pheochromocytoma
- Acute sickle cell anemia
- Allergies to shell fish
- Prior major reaction to contrast
Correct Answer

A. Allergies to shell fish

Explanation

Allergies to shellfish would not be considered an absolute contradiction to IV contrast during a CT exam of the kidneys. While shellfish allergies can cause allergic reactions, they are not directly related to the administration of IV contrast. The other options, pheochromocytoma, acute sickle cell anemia, and prior major reaction to contrast, can all be contraindications for IV contrast due to potential risks and complications associated with these conditions.

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17.

Prior to a CT colongraphy, the patient may undrgo a process of bowel cleansing termed:
- Purgation
- Hydration
- Catharsis
- Fasting
Correct Answer

A. Catharsis

Explanation

Catharsis is the correct answer because prior to a CT colongraphy, the patient needs to undergo a process of bowel cleansing. Catharsis refers to the process of emptying the bowels through the use of laxatives or other methods to ensure that the colon is clean and free of any fecal matter or debris. This is necessary for accurate imaging and diagnosis during the CT colongraphy procedure.

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18.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?
- Leiomyoma
- Cystic teratoma
- Endometriosis
- Corpus luteum
Correct Answer

A. Leiomyoma

Explanation

identified on CT examination as a bulky

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19.

The stanford type A desecting aneurysm affects which portion of the aorta?
- Ascending thoracic(arota)
- Descending thoracic(arota)
- Abdominal
- Bifurcation
Correct Answer

A. Ascending thoracic(arota)

Explanation

Stanford type B dissecting aneurysms affect the descending aorta

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20.

CT image of the abdomen should be acquired with the PT
- At full inspiration
- Breathing quietly
- At full expiration
- Breathing normally
Correct Answer

A. At full expiration

Explanation

The CT image of the abdomen should be acquired at full expiration because this allows for better visualization of the abdominal organs and structures. When a person exhales fully, the diaphragm moves upward, pushing the abdominal organs closer to the chest. This results in better contrast and detail in the image, as there is less overlap of the organs. Additionally, acquiring the image at full expiration helps to reduce motion artifacts, as the patient is more likely to remain still during exhalation.

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21.

Which of the follwoing sets of section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT oe neck?
- 0.75 mm thick every 0.75 mm
- 3 mm thick every 5 mm
- 3 mm thick every 3 mm
- 10 mm thick every 10 mm
Correct Answer

A. 3 mm thick every 3 mm

Explanation

A general survey CT of the neck requires high-resolution imaging to capture detailed structures. The set of section width and spacing that would be most suitable for this purpose is 3 mm thick every 3 mm. This means that each section will have a thickness of 3 mm and there will be no gaps larger than 3 mm between each section. This allows for a comprehensive and detailed examination of the neck area, ensuring that no important structures or abnormalities are missed.

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22.

Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lung?
- Bronchiectasis
- Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
- Pulmonary metastasis
- Bronchogenic carcinoma
Correct Answer

A. Bronchiectasis

Explanation

example interstitial diseases are bronchiectasis, emphysema, asbestosis, and sarcoidosis

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23.

Bowel obstruction due to loss of normal contractile motion in an area of intestine is termed:
- Dyspepsia
- Intussusception
- Ileus
- Adhesion
Correct Answer

A. Ileus

Explanation

Ileus refers to a condition where there is a loss of normal contractile motion in a section of the intestine, leading to a bowel obstruction. This can occur due to various reasons such as inflammation, surgery, or medication side effects. Dyspepsia refers to indigestion or discomfort in the upper abdomen. Intussusception is a condition where one part of the intestine slides into another part, causing a blockage. Adhesion refers to the formation of scar tissue that can cause organs or tissues to stick together. Therefore, the correct answer is ileus.

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24.

Which of the following is a common complication during CT guided biopsy of the lung
- Pulmonary embolism
- Aspiration
- Pneumoconiosis
- Pnuemothorax
Correct Answer

A. Pnuemothorax

Explanation

During a CT guided biopsy of the lung, a common complication is the development of a pneumothorax. A pneumothorax occurs when air leaks into the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. This can happen when the needle used during the biopsy accidentally punctures the lung tissue. Pneumothorax can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen levels. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to treat and manage this complication.

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25.

The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the :
- Thrombolytic zone
- Hemorrhage focus
- Ischemic penumbra
- Strocke volume
Correct Answer

A. Ischemic penumbra

Explanation

The term "ischemic penumbra" refers to the still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke. This area is at risk of becoming infarcted if blood flow is not restored promptly. It is important to identify and treat the ischemic penumbra in order to prevent further damage and improve patient outcomes.

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26.

Which of the following types of CT scanners is the best suited for the evaluation of the coronary artery disseas
- Spiral
- Fourth generation
- Ultrafast
- Third generation
Correct Answer

A. Ultrafast

Explanation

The ultrafast CT scanner is the best suited for the evaluation of coronary artery disease because it can capture images of the heart in a very short amount of time, typically within a single heartbeat. This allows for detailed imaging of the coronary arteries, which are small and constantly moving, without the need for invasive procedures. The speed of the ultrafast CT scanner reduces motion artifacts and provides high-resolution images, making it an ideal choice for evaluating the presence and severity of coronary artery disease.

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27.

The average density of a mass within the kidney measures 75 HU. The mass is most likely
- Cyst
- Lipoma
- Stone
- Hydrocele
Correct Answer

A. Lipoma

Explanation

Lipoma has the consistency of fat and fat is 50 to 100 HU

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28.

To reduce peristalsis and distend the colon, __________ may be administered before a CT scan of the abd or pelvis
- Diazepam
- Glucagon
- Prochlorperazine maleate
- Bisacody
Correct Answer

A. Glucagon

Explanation

Glucagon may be administered before a CT scan of the abdomen or pelvis to reduce peristalsis and distend the colon. This is because glucagon is a hormone that relaxes the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, including the colon. By reducing peristalsis, the movement of the intestines is slowed down, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal and pelvic structures during the CT scan.

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29.

An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication btw the bowel and the
- Uterus
- Bladder
- Vagina
- Umbilicus
Correct Answer

A. Bladder

Explanation

An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the bladder. This means that there is a passage or connection that has formed between these two organs, allowing the contents of the bowel to enter the bladder. This can lead to various symptoms such as urinary tract infections, urinary incontinence, and passage of gas or feces in the urine. Therefore, the correct answer is bladder.

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30.

Surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum for treatment of pancreatic carcinoma
- ERCP
- Cholecystectomy
- Roux-en-Y anastomosis
- Whipple procedure
Correct Answer

A. Whipple procedure

Explanation

The Whipple procedure is a surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum commonly used to treat pancreatic carcinoma. It involves removing the head of the pancreas, the duodenum, a portion of the bile duct, and sometimes a portion of the stomach. The remaining organs are then reconnected to allow for normal digestion and bile flow. This procedure is considered the standard treatment for pancreatic carcinoma that is confined to the head of the pancreas and is performed to remove the tumor and prevent its spread.

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31.

Which of the following types of contrast material may be used during CT evaluation of the pelvis1. IV contrast2. low density barium sulfate solution3. oil based contrast
- 1 only
- 2 only
- 1 and 2
- 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer

A. 1 and 2

Explanation

During CT evaluation of the pelvis, both IV contrast and low density barium sulfate solution may be used as types of contrast material. IV contrast is a type of contrast material that is injected into the patient's vein, which helps to enhance the visibility of blood vessels, organs, and other structures in the pelvis. Low density barium sulfate solution is another type of contrast material that is ingested orally, and it helps to highlight the gastrointestinal tract and any abnormalities in the pelvis. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2.

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32.

Which of the following may be included as part of a routin preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?
- Instructing the pt to take nothing by mouth for 4 hrs prior to exam
- 1200 mL of oral contrast agent administered 90 min. prior to exam
- Having the patient drink 4 liters of polyethylene glycol (peg) 24 hrs prior to exam
- A only
- A and B
Correct Answer

A. A and B

Explanation

The correct answer is A and B. Instructing the patient to take nothing by mouth for 4 hours prior to the exam helps ensure that the stomach and intestines are empty, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal and pelvic structures. Administering 1200 mL of oral contrast agent 90 minutes before the exam helps to enhance the visibility of the gastrointestinal tract and any abnormalities within it. Therefore, both of these measures are commonly included as part of the routine preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis.

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33.

The tird ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:
- Anterior commissure
- Septum pellucidum
- Cerebral aqueduct
- Fornix
Correct Answer

A. Cerebral aqueduct

Explanation

The cerebral aqueduct is a narrow canal that connects the third ventricle of the brain to the fourth ventricle. It is located within the midbrain, specifically in the region called the mesencephalon. This canal allows for the passage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) between the two ventricles. CSF is a clear fluid that surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord, and it plays a crucial role in maintaining the brain's homeostasis. Therefore, the cerebral aqueduct serves as a vital pathway for the circulation of CSF within the brain.

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34.

Which letter corresponds to the inferior vena cava?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

The letter "c" corresponds to the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the right atrium of the heart.

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35.

During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data:
- Continusly as the patient travels throught the gantry
- One section at a time
- In the form of a complete volumetric data set
- A & B
- A & C
Correct Answer

A. A & C

Explanation

During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data continuously as the patient travels through the gantry and in the form of a complete volumetric data set. This means that the scanner captures data in a continuous manner as the patient moves through the scanner, allowing for a more efficient and faster scanning process. Additionally, the scanner collects data in the form of a complete volumetric data set, which means that it captures images of the entire area being scanned, providing a comprehensive view of the anatomy.

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36.

The epithelial lining of the urinary tract called the:
- Omentum
- Haustrum
- Urothelium
- Pyelocalyx
Correct Answer

A. Urothelium

Explanation

site of transitional cell carcinoma (TCC), common malignacy of the bladder, ureters, and kidneys

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37.

The Lisfranc joint is the articulation between the:
- Tarsals and metatarsals
- Tarsals and lower leg
- Metatarsals and phalanges
- Metatarsals and tarsals
Correct Answer

A. Tarsals and metatarsals

Explanation

site complex fractures and dislocations of the foot

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38.

This image was aquired with localizers placed
- Using the axial to place the localizers perpendicular to the supraspinatus tendon
- Using the axial to place the localizers parallel to the supraspinatus tendon
Correct Answer

A. Using the axial to place the localizers parallel to the supraspinatus tendon

Explanation

The correct answer is using the axial to place the localizers parallel to the supraspinatus tendon. This means that the localizers were positioned in such a way that they align with the supraspinatus tendon in a parallel manner. This is important for accurate imaging and assessment of the supraspinatus tendon, as it allows for clear visualization and measurement of any abnormalities or pathology. Placing the localizers perpendicular to the supraspinatus tendon would not provide the same level of detail and accuracy in imaging.

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39.

The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called
- Varices
- Claudication
- Stenosis
- Thrombosis
Correct Answer

A. Claudication

Explanation

Claudication is the correct answer because it refers to the condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs caused by poor circulation. This pain typically occurs during physical activity and is relieved with rest. Varices, stenosis, and thrombosis are not specifically related to poor circulation and do not describe the symptoms mentioned in the question.

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40.

The volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination are quantified with use of a value called the:
- Euler constant
- Housfield number
- Agatston score
- Lambert-Beer value
Correct Answer

A. Agatston score

Explanation

The Agatston score is used to quantify the volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination. It is a value that helps assess the amount of calcified plaque in the arteries, which is an indicator of coronary artery disease. The score is calculated by multiplying the area of calcified plaque by a density factor derived from the peak Hounsfield units. Higher Agatston scores indicate a higher risk of cardiovascular events.

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41.

A focused, thin section axial CT acquisition through just the regionof the vocal cords should extend:
- From external auditory to the mandible
- From above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage
- From the cricoid cartilage inferiorly through sternoclavicular joint
- From hard palate inferiorly to the hyoid bone
Correct Answer

A. From above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage

Explanation

The correct answer is from above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage. This is because the vocal cords are located in the larynx, which is situated between the hyoid bone and the cricoid cartilage. Therefore, a focused, thin section axial CT acquisition through just the region of the vocal cords should capture this specific area.

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42.

The prone position may be used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to :
- Reduce the lordotic curve
- Decrease patient gonadal radiation dose
- Reduce metrizamide pooling
- Increase the lordotic curve
Correct Answer

A. Reduce metrizamide pooling

Explanation

The prone position is used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine to reduce metrizamide pooling. Metrizamide is a contrast agent that is injected into the spinal canal during a myelogram to help visualize the spinal cord and nerves. When the patient is in the prone position, gravity helps to distribute the metrizamide more evenly throughout the spinal canal, reducing the pooling of the contrast agent in certain areas. This allows for better visualization of the entire lumbar spine during the CT examination.

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43.

Delayed post-contrast acquistion of the lower extremities following a CTA of the pulmonary arteries is termed:
- CT venography
- CT perfusion
- Femoral CTA
- Iliac CTA
Correct Answer

A. CT venography

Explanation

After the CTPA acquisition, a delay of 2 to 3 minutes is employed, and an acquisition is made from iliac crest to ankles CT venography (CTV)

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44.

Pixels vs Resolution
- (Pixel width) ( Slice) / Pixel Ht = Resolution
- (Pixel ht) (Pixel Width) (Slice) = Resolution
- (Pixel Ht) (Slice) / (Pixel Width)= Resolution
- Slice / (pixel ht) (Pixel Width) = Resolution
Correct Answer

A. (Pixel ht) (Pixel Width) (Slice) = Resolution

Explanation

The formula (Pixel ht) (Pixel Width) (Slice) = Resolution is the correct answer because it correctly calculates the resolution by multiplying the pixel height, pixel width, and slice. This formula takes into account all three variables to determine the resolution, which is the total number of pixels in an image or display.

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45.

Which of the following terms describes the appearance of a acute subdural hematoma on a CT image
- Radiolucent
- Hyperdense
- Hypodense
- Isodense
Correct Answer

A. Hyperdense

Explanation

A hyperdense appearance on a CT image refers to an area that appears brighter or denser than the surrounding tissues. In the context of an acute subdural hematoma, this means that the blood clot is more opaque and stands out prominently on the CT scan. This is due to the high density of blood compared to the brain tissue.

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46.

The average density of a mass within the kidney measure -75 Hounsfield units (HU). the mass is most likely a:
- Cyst
- Lipoma
- Stone
- Hydrocele
Correct Answer

A. Lipoma

Explanation

fat is -50 to -100

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47.

Arterial phase CT imaging of the liver is used to optimally demonstrate which of the following?
- Fatty inflitration
- Hepatic cysts
- Portal vein thrombosis
- Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
Correct Answer

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

Explanation

HCC hypervascular lesions that appear hyperdense

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48.

The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral dis is called
- Aeration effect
- Vacuum phenomenon
- Oxygen saturation point
- Carbonization sign
Correct Answer

A. Vacuum phenomenon

Explanation

The correct answer is "vacuum phenomenon." The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc is known as the vacuum phenomenon. This occurs when the disc degenerates and gas, primarily nitrogen, enters the disc space. The gas accumulates and forms a vacuum, which can be seen on imaging studies such as X-rays or MRI scans. The vacuum phenomenon is often associated with disc degeneration and can be a sign of disc herniation or other spinal conditions.

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49.

Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?
- Pancrease
- Kidneys
- Uterus
- Liver
Correct Answer

A. Liver

Explanation

contains stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, ovaries, transverse colon, and most of small bowel

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Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Jul 21, 2016

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Ultrasound Imaging, which involves exposing part of the body to high-frequency sound waves to produce pictures of the inside of the body, is also known as what?

Quiz Preview

Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?

During the CT exam of a knee. The PT is mostly to be in the __________ position

Which letter corresponds to the achilles tendon?

Which letter corresponds to the right adrenal gland

Positioning PT with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during the CT scan of the lumbar spine assists in 1 Decreasing the kyphotic curvature of lumbar spine2 making the PT more comfortable during the exam3 decreasing the lordotic curvature of the L-SP

Ultrasound exams are captured in real-time, using ionizing radiation to show the structure and movement of the patient's internal organs.

A common nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland is typically referred to as

Which of the pelvic bones cobine(s) to form the acetabulum?

The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:

Non-contrast CT of the urinary tract is a valuable tool in the investigation of;

Of the following ranges, which would be most suited for a scout image of the abdomen?

During CT of the head, the gantry should be angled

Which of the following techniques assists in visualizing the vagina during the CT of the pelvis?

The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is

Which on the following would not be considered an absolute contradiction to IV contrast during a CT exam of the kidneys

Prior to a CT colongraphy, the patient may undrgo a process of bowel cleansing termed:

Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?

The stanford type A desecting aneurysm affects which portion of the aorta?

CT image of the abdomen should be acquired with the PT

Which of the follwoing sets of section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT oe neck?

Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lung?

Bowel obstruction due to loss of normal contractile motion in an area of intestine is termed:

Which of the following is a common complication during CT guided biopsy of the lung

The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the :

Which of the following types of CT scanners is the best suited for the evaluation of the coronary artery disseas

The average density of a mass within the kidney measures 75 HU. The mass is most likely

To reduce peristalsis and distend the colon, __________ may be administered before a CT scan of the abd or pelvis

An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication btw the bowel and the

Surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum for treatment of pancreatic carcinoma

Which of the following types of contrast material may be used during CT evaluation of the pelvis1. IV contrast2. low density barium sulfate solution3. oil based contrast

Which of the following may be included as part of a routin preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?

The tird ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:

Which letter corresponds to the inferior vena cava?

During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data:

The epithelial lining of the urinary tract called the:

The Lisfranc joint is the articulation between the:

This image was aquired with localizers placed

The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called

The volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination are quantified with use of a value called the:

A focused, thin section axial CT acquisition through just the regionof the vocal cords should extend:

The prone position may be used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to :

Delayed post-contrast acquistion of the lower extremities following a CTA of the pulmonary arteries is termed:

Pixels vs Resolution

Which of the following terms describes the appearance of a acute subdural hematoma on a CT image

The average density of a mass within the kidney measure -75 Hounsfield units (HU). the mass is most likely a:

Arterial phase CT imaging of the liver is used to optimally demonstrate which of the following?

The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral dis is called

Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?