Disease, Diagnosis, Treatment & Insurance Quiz

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  • 1/72 Questions

    Tachycardia is exhibited by:

    • A rapid heartbeat
    • Labored breathig
    • Frequent urination
    • Rapid eye movement
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About This Quiz

Ever wondered how much you know about Diabetes 2? What is the function of the Thyroid gland? Check out our online quiz and learn trivia along the way.

Disease, Diagnosis, Treatment & Insurance Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Prolonged airplane travel increases the risk of:

    • Asthma

    • Pulmonary embolism

    • Dementia

    • Food poisoning

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary embolism
    Explanation
    Prolonged airplane travel increases the risk of pulmonary embolism. This is because sitting for long periods of time can lead to blood clots forming in the legs, which can then travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. The cramped seating and limited movement on airplanes can contribute to this risk, especially on flights that are several hours long. It is important to stay hydrated, move around and stretch during flights to help prevent the development of blood clots.

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  • 3. 

    All of the following are functions of the circulatory system EXCEPT:

    • Transport oxygen

    • Transport waste materials of cellular metabolism

    • Propel blood through the body

    • Raise and lower HDL cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Raise and lower HDL cholesterol
    Explanation
    The circulatory system is responsible for transporting oxygen and waste materials of cellular metabolism, as well as propelling blood through the body. However, it does not have a direct function in raising and lowering HDL cholesterol levels. HDL cholesterol is primarily regulated by the liver and is involved in the removal of excess cholesterol from the bloodstream.

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  • 4. 

    Ketoacidosis is a complication associated with:

    • Coronary artery disease

    • Hepatitis

    • Diabetes

    • Peptic ulcer

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Ketoacidosis is a complication commonly associated with diabetes. It occurs when the body does not have enough insulin to convert glucose into energy, so it starts breaking down fat for fuel instead. This process produces ketones, which can build up in the blood and lead to ketoacidosis. People with type 1 diabetes are more prone to this condition, but it can also occur in individuals with type 2 diabetes, especially during periods of illness or high stress. Proper management of diabetes, including regular insulin use and monitoring blood sugar levels, can help prevent ketoacidosis.

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  • 5. 

    Factors that increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Smoking 

    • Gestational diabetes

    • Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)

    • Obesity

    Correct Answer
    A. Smoking 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is smoking. Smoking is not a factor that increases the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. However, gestational diabetes, impaired glucose tolerance (IGT), and obesity are all known risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

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  • 6. 

    The condition caused by gastric secretions backing up into the esophagus is:

    • Diverticulitis

    • Gastric ulcer

    • Gastroesophageal reflux

    • Peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastroesophageal reflux
    Explanation
    Gastroesophageal reflux is the condition caused by gastric secretions backing up into the esophagus. This occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter, which normally prevents stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus, becomes weak or relaxes. As a result, stomach acid and other contents can irritate the lining of the esophagus, leading to symptoms such as heartburn, regurgitation, and chest pain.

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  • 7. 

    The cardiac ejection fraction measures the:

    • Pumping ability of the heart

    • Degree of atherosclerosis

    • Carotid intimal-medial thickness

    • Level of radioisotope in the heart

    Correct Answer
    A. Pumping ability of the heart
    Explanation
    The cardiac ejection fraction measures the pumping ability of the heart. It is a measurement that represents the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. A normal ejection fraction is typically between 50% and 70%. This measurement is important in assessing the overall function and efficiency of the heart, as a reduced ejection fraction can indicate heart failure or other cardiac conditions.

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  • 8. 

    All of the following are layers of the heart wall EXCEPT:

    • Endocardium

    • Pericardium 

    • Endometrium

    • Myocardium

    Correct Answer
    A. Endometrium
    Explanation
    The correct answer is endometrium. The endometrium is not a layer of the heart wall. The heart wall is composed of three layers: the epicardium (outer layer), the myocardium (middle layer), and the endocardium (inner layer). The endometrium, on the other hand, is the inner lining of the uterus and is not related to the structure of the heart.

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  • 9. 

    Deprivation of blood supply to the myocardium causes:

    • Systole

    • Bruit

    • Distole

    • Ischemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Ischemia
    Explanation
    Deprivation of blood supply to the myocardium causes ischemia. Ischemia refers to the inadequate supply of blood and oxygen to the tissues, including the myocardium (heart muscle). When the blood supply is compromised, the myocardium does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to cell damage and potentially causing symptoms like chest pain or angina. Ischemia can be caused by various factors, such as atherosclerosis, blood clots, or coronary artery disease. It is an important condition to recognize and treat promptly to prevent further complications, such as myocardial infarction or heart attack.

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  • 10. 

    Elevations of both gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) and alkaline phosphatase (AP) are associated with:

    • Pancreatitis

    • Osteomyelitis

    • Biliary obstruction

    • Osteoporosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Biliary obstruction
    Explanation
    Elevations of both gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) and alkaline phosphatase (AP) are associated with biliary obstruction. GGT is an enzyme found in high concentrations in the liver and bile ducts, and its levels increase when there is a blockage in the bile ducts. Similarly, alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme found in the liver, bones, and other tissues, and its levels rise when there is an obstruction in the bile ducts. Therefore, the elevation of both GGT and AP suggests biliary obstruction as the likely cause.

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  • 11. 

    In the U.S., the primary cause of death for individuals between the ages 5 to 24 is:

    • Suicide

    • Seizures

    • Diabetes

    • Motor vehicle accidents

    Correct Answer
    A. Motor vehicle accidents
    Explanation
    Motor vehicle accidents are the primary cause of death for individuals between the ages of 5 to 24 in the U.S. This is due to various factors such as inexperienced drivers, distracted driving, speeding, and lack of seatbelt usage. The high number of motor vehicles on the road and the potential for collisions contribute to the higher mortality rate in this age group.

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  • 12. 

    The test that measures thyroid function is:

    • Thoracentesis

    • Fine needle aspirate (FNA)

    • Fluorescein angiography

    • Radioactive iodine uptake

    Correct Answer
    A. Radioactive iodine uptake
    Explanation
    The correct answer is radioactive iodine uptake because it is a specific test used to measure the function of the thyroid gland. This test involves administering a small amount of radioactive iodine to the patient and then measuring the amount of iodine that is taken up by the thyroid gland. This helps to assess the thyroid's ability to produce and release hormones. Thoracentesis, fine needle aspirate (FNA), and fluorescein angiography are not tests used to measure thyroid function.

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  • 13. 

    A transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) is commonly used to evaluate the: 

    • Bladder

    • Kidneys

    • Uterus

    • Prostate

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostate
    Explanation
    A transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) is commonly used to evaluate the prostate. This procedure involves inserting a small ultrasound probe into the rectum to obtain detailed images of the prostate gland. TRUS is frequently used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as prostate cancer, benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and prostatitis. It allows healthcare professionals to assess the size, shape, and structure of the prostate, as well as detect any abnormalities or tumors. TRUS is considered a safe and effective imaging technique for evaluating the prostate gland.

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  • 14. 

    When assessing avocation and occupation for life insurance, the primary concern is:

    • Residency

    • Morbidity

    • Overinsurance

    • Accidental death

    Correct Answer
    A. Accidental death
    Explanation
    When assessing avocation and occupation for life insurance, the primary concern is accidental death. This means that the insurance company is primarily concerned with the risk of the insured person dying due to an accident. Accidental death is considered a higher risk compared to other factors such as residency, morbidity (the state of being diseased), or overinsurance. Insurance companies take into account the nature of the insured person's occupation and hobbies to determine the likelihood of accidental death, as it can impact the payout they may have to make.

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  • 15. 

    Tumor markers include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

    • Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

    • Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

    • Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
    Explanation
    Tumor markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor the progress of cancer. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), alpha fetoprotein (AFP), and prostate specific antigen (PSA) are all examples of tumor markers that are commonly used in cancer screening and monitoring. However, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is not a tumor marker. BUN is a measure of the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea. It is used to assess kidney function and hydration status, but it is not specific to cancer.

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  • 16. 

    Effects of alcohol on the central nervous system can include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Drowsiness

    • Slowed reaction time

    • Increased concentration

    • Decreased night vision

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased concentration
    Explanation
    Alcohol is a depressant that affects the central nervous system, leading to various impairments. It can cause drowsiness and slowed reaction time, which are commonly associated with alcohol consumption. Additionally, alcohol can also decrease night vision due to its effects on the optic nerve. However, it does not increase concentration. In fact, alcohol can impair concentration and cognitive function, making it difficult to focus and pay attention.

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  • 17. 

    All of the following are examples of commonly abused prescription medications EXCEPT:

    • Stiulants

    • Benzodiazepines

    • Opioid compounds

    • ACE inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. ACE inhibitors
    Explanation
    ACE inhibitors are not commonly abused prescription medications. ACE inhibitors are a class of drugs primarily used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. They work by relaxing blood vessels, which helps to lower blood pressure. Stimulants, benzodiazepines, and opioid compounds, on the other hand, are frequently abused prescription medications. Stimulants are often misused for their stimulant effects, benzodiazepines for their sedative and anxiety-reducing effects, and opioid compounds for their pain-relieving and euphoric effects.

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  • 18. 

    An absolute increase in the number of cells in a tissue is:

    • Dysplasia

    • Hyperplasia

    • Hypertrophy

    • Metaplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperplasia
    Explanation
    Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells in a tissue, which can occur due to an increased rate of cell division. This can lead to an enlargement of the affected tissue or organ. Dysplasia, on the other hand, refers to abnormal changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be a precursor to cancer. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, resulting in an enlarged tissue or organ. Metaplasia refers to the transformation of one type of tissue into another type, often in response to chronic irritation or inflammation.

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  • 19. 

    A malignant tumor of connective tissue origin is:

    • Sarcoma

    • Myeloma

    • Adenoma

    • Lymphoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Sarcoma
    Explanation
    A malignant tumor of connective tissue origin is called a sarcoma. Sarcomas are cancers that develop in the cells of connective tissues, such as bones, muscles, cartilage, or blood vessels. They are typically aggressive and have the potential to spread to other parts of the body. Myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells, adenoma is a benign tumor, and lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system. Therefore, sarcoma is the correct answer for a malignant tumor of connective tissue origin.

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  • 20. 

    The treatment that is more effective with high growth rate/metastatic cancers is:

    • Watchful waiting

    • Surgery

    • Radiation

    • Chemotherapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemotherapy
    Explanation
    Chemotherapy is the more effective treatment for high growth rate/metastatic cancers compared to watchful waiting, surgery, and radiation. Chemotherapy involves the use of drugs to kill cancer cells or stop them from growing and spreading. This treatment is particularly beneficial for cancers that have a high growth rate or have already spread to other parts of the body. Chemotherapy can target cancer cells throughout the body, making it a suitable option for metastatic cancers. It is often used in combination with other treatments like surgery or radiation to increase the chances of successful treatment.

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  • 21. 

    To receive payment under most Long Term Care riders, an insured must be:

    • Terminally ill

    • Confined to a nursing home for at least six months

    • Completely disabled

    • Unable to perform two or more Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unable to perform two or more Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)
    Explanation
    To receive payment under most Long Term Care riders, the insured must be unable to perform two or more Activities of Daily Living (ADLs). This means that the insured is unable to independently perform basic tasks such as bathing, dressing, eating, toileting, transferring, or continence. This requirement ensures that the insured requires assistance with their daily activities and is in need of long-term care services. Being terminally ill, confined to a nursing home for at least six months, or completely disabled are not necessarily the criteria for receiving payment under most Long Term Care riders.

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  • 22. 

    The maximum pressure achieved during contraction of the heart is the:

    • Systolic blood pressure

    • Pulse pressure

    • Diastolic blood pressure

    • Atrial pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Systolic blood pressure
    Explanation
    The maximum pressure achieved during contraction of the heart is known as the systolic blood pressure. This is the highest pressure recorded in the arteries when the heart is contracting and pushing blood out into the circulatory system. It is an important measurement in assessing cardiovascular health and is typically represented by the top number in a blood pressure reading.

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  • 23. 

    The life insurance product characterized by flexibility in both premium paying and death benefit is:

    • Modified whole life

    • Increasing term life

    • Yearly renewable term

    • Universal life

    Correct Answer
    A. Universal life
    Explanation
    Universal life insurance is a type of life insurance product that offers flexibility in both premium paying and death benefit. Unlike other types of life insurance, universal life allows policyholders to adjust their premium payments and death benefits as their financial situation changes. This flexibility makes universal life insurance a popular choice for individuals who want the ability to customize their coverage to meet their specific needs.

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  • 24. 

    A sleep study records all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Forced vital capacity (FVC)

    • Oxygen saturation

    • Respiratory effort

    • Body position

    Correct Answer
    A. Forced vital capacity (FVC)
    Explanation
    A sleep study is a medical test that monitors various aspects of a person's sleep patterns and respiratory functions. It typically measures oxygen saturation levels, respiratory effort, and body position to assess the quality of sleep and diagnose sleep disorders. However, forced vital capacity (FVC) is not directly related to sleep and is a measure of lung function used to assess respiratory health. Therefore, it is not recorded during a sleep study.

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  • 25. 

    Complications of diabetes can include which of the following?

    • A. coronary artery disease

    • B. retinopathy

    • C. hepatitis

    • 1. A and B only are correct

    • 2. A and C only are correct

    • 3. B and C only are correct

    • 4. A, B, and C are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. 1. A and B only are correct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1. A and B only are correct. Complications of diabetes can include coronary artery disease and retinopathy. Hepatitis is not typically considered a complication of diabetes.

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  • 26. 

    The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) works to promote uniformity in state regulation through the development of:

    • Audit guidelines

    • Model laws

    • White papers

    • Surplus requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Model laws
    Explanation
    The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) promotes uniformity in state regulation through the development of model laws. Model laws are templates or standardized regulations that states can adopt or modify to regulate the insurance industry. These model laws serve as a guide for states to create consistent regulations and practices, ensuring a level playing field for insurance companies and consumers across different states. By developing model laws, the NAIC aims to harmonize insurance regulations and enhance consumer protection in the insurance industry.

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  • 27. 

    The benefit that allows additional insurance coverage to be purchased at certain times during the life of the contract is the:

    • Guaranteed insurability option

    • Change of plan provision

    • Extended maturity option

    • Entire contract provision

    Correct Answer
    A. Guaranteed insurability option
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the guaranteed insurability option. This benefit allows the policyholder to purchase additional insurance coverage at specific times during the life of the contract, without having to provide evidence of insurability. It provides flexibility and ensures that the policyholder can increase their coverage as their needs change, without the risk of being denied coverage due to changes in health or other factors. The other options, such as change of plan provision, extended maturity option, and entire contract provision, do not specifically address the ability to purchase additional insurance coverage.

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  • 28. 

    The class of drug that is often used as the first treatment for hypertension is?

    • Anticoagulants

    • Nitrates

    • Thiazide diuretics

    • Statins

    Correct Answer
    A. Thiazide diuretics
    Explanation
    Thiazide diuretics are often used as the first treatment for hypertension because they help reduce blood pressure by promoting the excretion of salt and water from the body. They work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production and decreased fluid volume in the blood vessels. This helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the strain on the heart. Thiazide diuretics are considered effective and well-tolerated medications for the treatment of hypertension.

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  • 29. 

    In the U.S., preference for obtaining an immigrant visa is given to all of the following EXCEPT: 

    • Relative of a U.S. citizen 

    • Worker with a special occupation

    • Individual engaged to a U.S. citizen

    • University student

    Correct Answer
    A. University student
    Explanation
    In the U.S., preference for obtaining an immigrant visa is given to relatives of U.S. citizens, workers with special occupations, and individuals engaged to U.S. citizens. However, university students are not given preference for obtaining an immigrant visa.

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  • 30. 

    Treatment for coronary artery disease (CAD) can include which of the following?

    • A. nitrates

    • B. calcium channel blockers

    • C. melantonin

    • 1. A only is correct.

    • 2. A and B only are correct

    • 3. B and C only are correct.

    • 4. A, B, and C are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2. A and B only are correct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2. A and B only are correct.

    Nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both commonly used in the treatment of coronary artery disease (CAD). Nitrates help to relax and widen the blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Calcium channel blockers also relax the blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart and improving blood flow. Melatonin, on the other hand, is not typically used in the treatment of CAD. Therefore, options C and D are incorrect.

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  • 31. 

    The principal cause of hang gliding accidents is:

    • Pilot error

    • Weather

    • Physical demands

    • Equipment malfunction

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilot error
    Explanation
    The principal cause of hang gliding accidents is pilot error. This means that the main reason for accidents in this activity is mistakes or poor decision-making by the pilot. This could include errors in judgment, lack of skill or experience, failure to follow safety procedures, or negligence. Weather conditions, physical demands, and equipment malfunction can also contribute to accidents, but pilot error is identified as the primary cause.

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  • 32. 

    All of the following are potential complications of gastrointestinal surgery for obesity EXCEPT:

    • Dumping syndrome

    • Anemia

    • Nutritional deficiencies

    • Diabetes

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Gastrointestinal surgery for obesity can lead to various complications, including dumping syndrome, anemia, and nutritional deficiencies. However, diabetes is not a potential complication of this type of surgery. In fact, weight loss surgery is often recommended for individuals with diabetes as it can help improve glycemic control and reduce the need for medication. Therefore, diabetes is the exception among the listed potential complications.

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  • 33. 

    Procedures used to identify coronary artery disease include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Electron beam computed tomography (EBCT)

    • Myocardial perfusion scan

    • Positron emission tomography (PET)

    • Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Positron emission tomography (PET)
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the procedure that is not used to identify coronary artery disease. The correct answer is "positron emission tomography (PET)". PET is a diagnostic imaging technique that is mainly used to detect cancer, assess brain function, and evaluate heart conditions such as myocardial viability. However, in the context of identifying coronary artery disease, other procedures like electron beam computed tomography (EBCT), myocardial perfusion scan, and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) are commonly used.

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  • 34. 

    In the U.S., the limit that differentiates larger, taxable estates from smaller non-taxable estates is:

    • The exclusion amount

    • Income tax

    • Tax Hike Prevention Act of 2010

    • Capital gain

    Correct Answer
    A. The exclusion amount
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the exclusion amount. In the U.S., the exclusion amount refers to the threshold value of an estate below which it is considered non-taxable. Any estate value above this exclusion amount is subject to estate tax. This means that larger estates, which exceed the exclusion amount, are taxable, while smaller estates, below the exclusion amount, are not subject to estate tax. The exclusion amount is set by the government and is adjusted periodically to account for inflation and other factors.

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  • 35. 

    In the U.S., which of the following is required for all pilot certifications:

    • Practical test

    • Aeronautical experience

    • Knowledge test

    • Ability to understand the English language

    Correct Answer
    A. Ability to understand the English language
    Explanation
    The ability to understand the English language is required for all pilot certifications in the U.S. This is because English is the international language of aviation and is used for communication between pilots, air traffic controllers, and other aviation personnel. Pilots need to be able to understand and communicate in English to ensure safe and efficient operations in the airspace system.

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  • 36. 

    Features of term life insurance contracts typically include all of the following EXCEPT

    • Convertibiliy

    • Defined period of coverage

    • Cash value 

    • Renewability

    Correct Answer
    A. Cash value 
    Explanation
    Term life insurance contracts typically do not include a cash value component. Unlike permanent life insurance policies, term life insurance is designed to provide coverage for a specified period of time and does not accumulate cash value over time. This means that if the insured individual does not pass away during the term of the policy, there is no cash value or investment component that can be accessed or returned. The other features mentioned, such as convertibility, defined period of coverage, and renewability, are commonly found in term life insurance contracts.

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  • 37. 

    Abnormal growth hormone levels may cause all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Dwarfism

    • Myxedema

    • Acromegaly

    • Giantism

    Correct Answer
    A. Myxedema
    Explanation
    Abnormal growth hormone levels can cause dwarfism, acromegaly, and giantism, but not myxedema. Myxedema is a condition that occurs due to low levels of thyroid hormone, not growth hormone. It is characterized by swelling, thickening, and dryness of the skin, as well as other symptoms like fatigue and weight gain. Therefore, myxedema is the exception among the given options, as it is not caused by abnormal growth hormone levels.

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  • 38. 

    Without a properly signed application, a life insurance contract can be considered to be which of the following?

    • A. invalid

    • B. inadmissible as evidence

    • C. material representation

    • 1. A only is correct

    • 2. A and B only are correct

    • 3. B and C only are correct

    • 4. A, B, and C are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. 2. A and B only are correct
    Explanation
    Without a properly signed application, a life insurance contract can be considered invalid because a signature is necessary to validate the contract. Additionally, it can be considered inadmissible as evidence because the lack of a signature may raise doubts about the authenticity and enforceability of the contract. Therefore, options A and B are correct. Option C, material representation, is not applicable in this context as it does not directly relate to the absence of a signature on the application.

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  • 39. 

    The measure of a test's ability to exclude the possibility of a particular disease is:

    • Sensitivity

    • Reliability

    • Resonability

    • Specificity

    Correct Answer
    A. Specificity
    Explanation
    The measure of a test's ability to exclude the possibility of a particular disease is specificity. Specificity refers to the test's ability to correctly identify individuals without the disease, ruling out false positives. It measures the test's accuracy in correctly identifying those who are truly disease-free. A high specificity indicates a low rate of false positives and a reliable exclusion of the disease.

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  • 40. 

    Factors associated with a favorable prognosis for coronary artery disease (CAD) include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Good exercise capacity

    • Reduced ejection fraction 

    • Mild disease

    • Older age onset

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduced ejection fraction 
    Explanation
    A reduced ejection fraction is not associated with a favorable prognosis for coronary artery disease (CAD). Ejection fraction refers to the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. A reduced ejection fraction indicates that the heart is not pumping blood effectively, which can lead to complications and a poorer prognosis for CAD. In contrast, good exercise capacity, mild disease, and older age onset are all factors that can contribute to a more favorable prognosis for CAD.

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  • 41. 

    All of the following statements regarding the insurance laboratory testing protocol to detect cotinine are correct EXCEPT: 

    • It is very accurate.

    • It can be tested from salivia.

    • It cannot differentiate between nicotine gum and cigarette use.

    • It is typically positive from exposure to secondhand smoke.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is typically positive from exposure to secondhand smoke.
    Explanation
    The insurance laboratory testing protocol to detect cotinine is typically not positive from exposure to secondhand smoke.

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  • 42. 

    All of the following statements regarding the instrument flight rating are correct EXCEPT

    • It is held by approximately half of the pilot population

    • It indicates mastery of instruments for aircraft navigation.

    • It is a required rating for commercial pilots.

    • It limits pilots to flying in daylight hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. It limits pilots to flying in daylight hours.
    Explanation
    The instrument flight rating is a certification that indicates a pilot's mastery of instruments for aircraft navigation. It is a required rating for commercial pilots, and it is held by approximately half of the pilot population. However, it does not limit pilots to flying in daylight hours. This rating allows pilots to fly in low visibility conditions, such as at night or in adverse weather, relying solely on the aircraft's instruments for navigation.

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  • 43. 

    Common health disorders that can be exacerbated by underwater diving include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Allergies

    • Heart disease

    • Asthma

    • Kidney disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidney disease
    Explanation
    Underwater diving can put stress on the body, particularly the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. Asthma, allergies, and heart disease can all be worsened by the physical demands and changes in pressure associated with diving. However, kidney disease is not directly affected by diving. While individuals with kidney disease may need to take precautions and consult with their healthcare provider before diving, it is not considered a disorder that is exacerbated by diving.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following laboratory tests are typically elevated in uncontrolled diabetes?

    • A. fructosamine

    • B. billirubin

    • C. hemoglobin A1c

    • 1. A only is correct

    • 2. A and B only are correct.

    • 3. A and C only are correct.

    • 4. B and C only are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3. A and C only are correct.
    Explanation
    Fructosamine and hemoglobin A1c are typically elevated in uncontrolled diabetes. Fructosamine is a measure of average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 weeks, while hemoglobin A1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. Elevated levels of these laboratory tests indicate poor blood sugar control in diabetes. Bilirubin, on the other hand, is not directly related to diabetes and is typically elevated in conditions affecting the liver or red blood cells. Therefore, the correct answer is 3. A and C only are correct.

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  • 45. 

    Causes of obesity include which of the following?

    • A. food selection

    • B. genetics

    • C. medical impairments

    • 1. A and B only are correct

    • 2. A and C only are correct

    • 3. B and C only are correct

    • 4. A, B, and C are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. 4. A, B, and C are correct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4. A, B, and C are correct. This means that all of the options A, B, and C are causes of obesity. Food selection plays a significant role in obesity as consuming high-calorie and unhealthy foods can lead to weight gain. Genetics also contribute to obesity as certain genes can predispose individuals to have a higher risk of becoming obese. Additionally, medical impairments such as hormonal imbalances or certain medications can also contribute to weight gain and obesity.

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  • 46. 

    Functions of the liver include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Formation of bilirubin

    • Synthesis of albumin

    • Absorption of nutrients

    • Detoxification of alcohol

    Correct Answer
    A. Absorption of nutrients
    Explanation
    The liver performs various functions, including the formation of bilirubin, synthesis of albumin, and detoxification of alcohol. However, the liver does not directly participate in the absorption of nutrients. Absorption of nutrients primarily occurs in the small intestine, where they are broken down and transported into the bloodstream. The liver plays a role in processing and storing nutrients after absorption, but it is not directly involved in the absorption process itself.

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  • 47. 

    When underwriting an individual for key person life insurance, all of the following are considerations EXCEPT the:

    • Business history of the company

    • Number of key employees in the company

    • Age of the proposed insured

    • Cost of estate taxes at the proposed insured's death

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost of estate taxes at the proposed insured's death
    Explanation
    The cost of estate taxes at the proposed insured's death is not a consideration when underwriting an individual for key person life insurance. Underwriting for key person life insurance typically involves assessing the business history of the company, the number of key employees, and the age of the proposed insured. However, the cost of estate taxes is not directly relevant to the underwriting process for this type of insurance.

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  • 48. 

    All of the following statements regarding the USA Patriot Act are correct EXCEPT:

    • It requires establishment of anti-money laundering programs.

    • It prohibits transactions with Specially Designated nationals (SDNs).

    • It requires filing of Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs).

    • It maintains the Don Not Call registry.

    Correct Answer
    A. It maintains the Don Not Call registry.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "It maintains the Do Not Call registry." This statement is incorrect because the USA Patriot Act does not have any provisions related to the Do Not Call registry. The Act primarily focuses on national security and counterterrorism measures, such as anti-money laundering programs, prohibiting transactions with SDNs, and filing SARs to detect and prevent financial crimes.

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  • 49. 

    The estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is based on all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Serum creatinine

    • Serum albumin

    • Age 

    • Gender

    Correct Answer
    A. Serum albumin
    Explanation
    The estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is a measure of kidney function. It is determined using various factors, including serum creatinine, age, and gender. However, serum albumin is not used in the calculation of eGFR. Serum albumin is a protein found in the blood and is used to assess nutritional status and liver function, but it is not directly related to kidney function. Therefore, it is not included in the calculation of eGFR.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 15, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 26, 2021
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3

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