Command Post 7 Level Quiz

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Jeremiahdawson
J
Jeremiahdawson
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 284
| Attempts: 285
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/90 Questions

    What is Northern Command's (NORTHCOM) mission?

    • Provide full-spectrum global strike
    • Homeland defense and civil support
    • Conduct joint and combined operations
    • Conduct operations in support of terrorism
Please wait...
About This Quiz

The 'Command post 7 level Quiz' assesses knowledge on military structures and command responsibilities. It covers roles of defense agencies, service secretaries, and the CJCS, focusing on command authority and operational control, crucial for military personnel involved in joint operations.

Command Post 7 Level Quiz - Quiz

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Which publication will be structured to save life, protect resources, and rapidly disseminate time sensitive information?

    • Operational reports

    • Operating instructions (OI)

    • Quick reaction checklists (QRC)

    • Emergency action checklists (EAC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Quick reaction checklists (QRC)
    Explanation
    Quick reaction checklists (QRC) are designed to provide a structured and efficient approach to responding to time-sensitive situations. They are specifically created to save lives and protect resources by providing step-by-step instructions and guidance for emergency actions. QRCs are meant to be easily accessible and quickly disseminated, allowing for rapid response and decision-making in critical situations. Therefore, QRCs are the most suitable publication for the given criteria.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    What type of publication is necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force?

    • Operating instructions

    • Nondirective

    • Departmental

    • Directive

    Correct Answer
    A. Directive
    Explanation
    Directive publications are necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force. Directive publications provide clear and specific instructions and guidance to ensure compliance with regulations and promote uniformity within the organization. They help establish and enforce policies, procedures, and standards that are essential for the effective and efficient operation of the Air Force.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is referred to as

    • Basic

    • Revised

    • Obsolete

    • Rescinded

    Correct Answer
    A. Revised
    Explanation
    When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new publication is referred to as "revised." This term indicates that changes have been made to the original publication, whether it be updates, corrections, or improvements. The revised publication is intended to replace the previous version and provide the most up-to-date and accurate information to the readers.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Which AF Form is used to document recurring training?

    • 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training

    • 4373, Consolidated Record of Controller Training

    • 4374, Command Post/Center Controller Certification Record

    • 4375, Command Post/Center Controller De/Recertificaiton Record

    Correct Answer
    A. 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training. This form is used to document recurring training for controllers. It is specifically designed to track and record the training activities that controllers undergo on a regular basis to maintain their skills and knowledge. By using this form, the training progress and completion of controllers can be documented and monitored effectively.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Defense agencies that are assigned wartime support missions are designated as

    • Lead agencies

    • Field operating agencies

    • Combat support agencies

    • Multinational force agencies

    Correct Answer
    A. Combat support agencies
    Explanation
    Defense agencies that are assigned wartime support missions are designated as combat support agencies. These agencies are responsible for providing various types of support to military forces during times of war or conflict. This support can include logistics, intelligence, communications, and other critical services that are necessary for the success of military operations. Combat support agencies work closely with the combatant commands and other military organizations to ensure that the necessary support is provided in a timely and effective manner.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    All training performance evaluations will be graded either

    • SAT or UNSAT

    • Go or no go

    • Pass or fail

    • Compliant or non-compliant

    Correct Answer
    A. SAT or UNSAT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "SAT or UNSAT" because these terms are commonly used in training performance evaluations to indicate whether an individual has met the required standards (SAT) or not (UNSAT). This grading system simplifies the evaluation process by providing a binary classification of performance, making it easier to determine whether someone has successfully completed the training or not.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Communications security (COMSEC) users must have their own adequate storage facitlites and take responsibility for storing and accounting for material not later than one duty day before the COMSEC aids'

    • Conceded date

    • Effective date

    • Destruction date

    • Approval date

    Correct Answer
    A. Effective date
    Explanation
    COMSEC users are required to have their own storage facilities and are responsible for storing and accounting for material before the effective date of the COMSEC aids. This means that they need to ensure that the necessary storage arrangements are in place and that the material is properly stored and accounted for before it becomes effective and in use. This is important for maintaining the security and integrity of the communication systems and preventing unauthorized access or compromise of the COMSEC aids.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    When new communications securty (COMSEC) responsible officer (CRO) and alternates are authorized to transport COMSEC material from the COMSEC account to their duty locations? What approval authority allowes this action?

    • Command Post superintendent

    • Proper security clearance

    • Command post cheif

    • Appointment letter

    Correct Answer
    A. Appointment letter
    Explanation
    The appointment letter allows the new Communications Security (COMSEC) Responsible Officer (CRO) and alternates to transport COMSEC material from the COMSEC account to their duty locations. This letter serves as the authorization for them to perform this task.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    A perosn selected for the Personnel Relaibility Program (PRP) must meet which of the following criteria?

    • US citizen or US national

    • SSgt or above

    • TSgt or above

    • MSgt or above

    Correct Answer
    A. US citizen or US national
    Explanation
    The correct answer is US citizen or US national. The Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) is a program that ensures individuals with access to nuclear weapons or certain sensitive duties are reliable and trustworthy. Being a US citizen or US national is a requirement for participating in the program, as it ensures loyalty and allegiance to the United States. The other criteria mentioned (SSgt or above, TSgt or above, MSgt or above) are not relevant to the PRP criteria.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    What is one of the most important responsibilities as a supervisor?

    • Writing a great enlisted progress reports

    • Giving your subordinates feedback

    • Recognizing your people

    • Leading from the front

    Correct Answer
    A. Giving your subordinates feedback
    Explanation
    Giving your subordinates feedback is one of the most important responsibilities of a supervisor because it allows for continuous improvement and growth within the team. Feedback helps employees understand their strengths and areas for improvement, which ultimately leads to better performance and productivity. It also fosters open communication and trust between the supervisor and subordinates, creating a positive work environment. By providing regular feedback, supervisors can guide and support their team members in achieving their goals and professional development.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    Certificaiton training examinations will consist of at least how many questions?

    • 20

    • 25

    • 30

    • 35

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    Certification training examinations will consist of at least 30 questions. This means that the minimum number of questions that will be included in the examination is 30. It is possible for the examination to have more than 30 questions, but it will never have fewer than 30.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    In which two months are semi-annual performance evaluations training scenarios administered?

    • March and September

    • February and October

    • March and October

    • January and May

    Correct Answer
    A. March and September
    Explanation
    Semi-annual performance evaluations training scenarios are administered in March and September. These months are likely chosen because they are evenly spaced throughout the year, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of employee performance. March and September also mark the end of two different quarters, making them suitable times for evaluating progress and setting new goals. Additionally, these months may align with the company's fiscal year or coincide with other important milestones, making them convenient times to conduct evaluations.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    When determining an installation's seccurity requirements, the level of security depends on the

    • Amount of nuclear wepons on the installation

    • Type of nuclear weapons on the installation

    • Sensitivity of the resources involved

    • Location of the military installation

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitivity of the resources involved
    Explanation
    The level of security for an installation depends on the sensitivity of the resources involved. This means that the more sensitive or valuable the resources are, the higher the level of security required. The sensitivity of the resources could refer to their importance, confidentiality, or potential impact if compromised. Therefore, the level of security is determined based on the level of sensitivity of the resources present at the installation.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    What is a cornerstone of the Air Force information security program?

    • Effective security training

    • Qualified security managers

    • Wing commander involvement

    • Financial support

    Correct Answer
    A. Effective security training
    Explanation
    Effective security training is a cornerstone of the Air Force information security program because it ensures that personnel are equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to protect sensitive information and systems. By providing comprehensive and up-to-date training, the Air Force can mitigate the risk of security breaches and unauthorized access. Training helps individuals understand the importance of information security, familiarizes them with best practices and procedures, and empowers them to identify and respond to potential threats. This ultimately strengthens the overall security posture of the Air Force and helps safeguard critical assets.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    What designation is applied to unclassified information that is exempt from automatic relesae to the public under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)?

    • Sensitive

    • LIMITED DISTRIBUTION

    • For Official Use Only (FOUO)

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU)

    Correct Answer
    A. For Official Use Only (FOUO)
    Explanation
    For Official Use Only (FOUO) is the correct answer because it refers to unclassified information that is exempt from automatic release to the public under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA). FOUO designation is used to protect sensitive information that, while not classified, should still be handled with caution and restricted to authorized personnel for official purposes. It ensures that certain information is safeguarded and not freely accessible to the public.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    Which program applies to all acitve duty people who are presently assigned or selected for assignment or duties involving the control, handling, or access to nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons systems, or critcal components?

    • Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)

    • Two Person Integrity Program

    • Nuclear Security Program

    • No-lone Zone Program

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)
    Explanation
    The Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) applies to all active duty people who are presently assigned or selected for assignment or duties involving the control, handling, or access to nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons systems, or critical components. This program ensures that individuals in such positions meet the necessary criteria and are reliable and trustworthy to carry out their responsibilities safely and securely. The PRP is designed to maintain the highest level of security and prevent any unauthorized access or mishandling of nuclear weapons or components.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Which two positions are only used in the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)

    • Critical or alternate

    • Critical or controlled

    • Primary and alternate

    • Senior and junior

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical or controlled
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Critical or controlled." In the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP), only individuals in critical or controlled positions are included. This means that these positions require a high level of reliability and trustworthiness due to the nature of the work involved. Other positions such as primary and alternate or senior and junior are not specifically designated for the PRP and may not have the same level of scrutiny and security requirements.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Authorized holders of the Air Force Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) data can release the data to only military components, or assigned or apportioned units, with a

    • Military identification card and appropriate clearance

    • Appropriate clearance and commander's approval

    • Military identifiaction card and need-to-know

    • Need-to-know and appropriate clearance

    Correct Answer
    A. Need-to-know and appropriate clearance
    Explanation
    The authorized holders of the Air Force Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) data can release the data only to military components, assigned or apportioned units, with a need-to-know and appropriate clearance. This means that individuals must have a legitimate requirement to access the data (need-to-know) and must also possess the necessary security clearance. This ensures that the data is only shared with individuals who have a legitimate reason to access it and who have been vetted for their trustworthiness and reliability (appropriate clearance).

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    The three standards related to work performance are

    • Results, speed, and amount

    • Quality, speed, and timeliness

    • Quality, timeliness, and quantity

    • Quality, timeliness, and amount

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality, timeliness, and quantity
    Explanation
    The three standards related to work performance are quality, timeliness, and quantity. Quality refers to the level of excellence or superiority in the work produced. Timeliness emphasizes the importance of completing tasks within the specified time frame. Quantity focuses on the amount or volume of work that needs to be accomplished. These three standards together ensure that work is done efficiently, meets the required standards, and is delivered on time.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    What is the first step in the command post (CP) training and evaluaiton process?

    • Create a schedule of events

    • Conduct the training meeting

    • Administer an emergency actions test

    • Develop training and evaluation scenarios

    Correct Answer
    A. Create a schedule of events
    Explanation
    The first step in the command post (CP) training and evaluation process is to create a schedule of events. This is important as it helps in organizing and planning the training sessions and evaluations. By creating a schedule of events, the trainers can allocate specific time slots for different activities, such as conducting training meetings, administering emergency actions tests, and developing training and evaluation scenarios. This step ensures that all necessary components of the CP training and evaluation process are included and properly organized.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    Which plan or system has the Air Force's department-specific implementation of National Incident Magagement System (NIMS)?

    • Air National Response Plan

    • Air Force Management System

    • Air Force Incident Management System

    • Air Force National Incident Management System

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Incident Management System
    Explanation
    The Air Force Incident Management System is the plan or system that has the Air Force's department-specific implementation of the National Incident Management System (NIMS). This system is specifically designed for the Air Force and is used to manage and respond to incidents within the Air Force's jurisdiction. It incorporates the principles and practices of the NIMS to ensure effective and coordinated response efforts.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    When new communications security (COMSEC) material arrived for the command post account the base COMSEC manager notifies the command post

    • Superintendent

    • COMSEC user

    • COMSEC manager

    • COMSEC responsible officer (CRO)

    Correct Answer
    A. COMSEC responsible officer (CRO)
    Explanation
    The COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) is the correct answer because they are responsible for the overall management and control of COMSEC material. When new COMSEC material arrives, it is their duty to notify the command post and ensure that the material is properly handled and accounted for. The CRO plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of communications within the command post.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Within the National Incident Management System (NIMS), which key organizational system defines the operating characteristics and structure of incident management?

    • Public information systems

    • Incident Command System (ICS)

    • Multiagency coordination system

    • Air Force Incident Management System

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident Command System (ICS)
    Explanation
    The Incident Command System (ICS) is a key organizational system within the National Incident Management System (NIMS) that defines the operating characteristics and structure of incident management. It provides a standardized approach for command, control, and coordination of emergency response efforts. ICS establishes clear roles and responsibilities for personnel involved in managing incidents, ensuring effective communication, coordination, and unity of command. By implementing ICS, organizations can effectively respond to incidents and work together in a coordinated manner to achieve their objectives.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    In the budget process what term is given to a flight or work center of an organization?

    • Responsibility center

    • Comptroller center

    • Resource center

    • Cost center

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost center
    Explanation
    A cost center refers to a flight or work center of an organization in the budget process. This term is used to designate a specific department or division within an organization that is responsible for incurring costs but does not directly generate revenue. Cost centers are typically used for internal reporting and tracking purposes to monitor and control expenses. They help in analyzing the efficiency and effectiveness of different departments or divisions within an organization.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    What inspection program provides commanders with an independent assessment of how well their forces are accomplishing their missions?

    • Operational rediness inspections

    • Unit compliance inspection

    • Inspector general inspection

    • Self-inspection program

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-inspection program
    Explanation
    A self-inspection program provides commanders with an independent assessment of how well their forces are accomplishing their missions. This program allows units to evaluate their own performance and identify any areas that may need improvement. It helps commanders to ensure that their forces are operating at the highest level of readiness and effectiveness. By conducting regular self-inspections, commanders can address any issues or deficiencies before they are identified by external inspections or audits. This proactive approach allows commanders to maintain control and make necessary adjustments to ensure mission success.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Within how many duty days must personnel failing to achieve a passing score on their training examinations be retested?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    Personnel failing to achieve a passing score on their training examinations must be retested within 5 duty days. This means that they have a maximum of 5 workdays to retake the exam and try to achieve a passing score. It is important to retest them promptly to ensure that they have the opportunity to improve their knowledge and skills in a timely manner.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    Emergency action "closed-book" training examinations will consist of at least how many questions?

    • 20

    • 25

    • 30

    • 35

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    Emergency action "closed-book" training examinations will consist of at least 30 questions. This means that the minimum number of questions in these examinations is 30.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    Security mangers receive training through the Information Securty Program Managers (ISPM) within how many days of their assignment?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 90
    Explanation
    Security managers receive training through the Information Security Program Managers (ISPM) within 90 days of their assignment. This timeframe allows for a sufficient amount of time for new security managers to familiarize themselves with the organization's security policies, procedures, and protocols. By receiving training within this timeframe, security managers can effectively fulfill their roles and responsibilities in maintaining the security of the organization's information and assets.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    The traditional roles and missions of each branch of service are often referred to as

    • Responsiblities

    • Operations

    • Functions

    • Support

    Correct Answer
    A. Functions
    Explanation
    The traditional roles and missions of each branch of service are often referred to as "functions" because they represent the specific tasks and responsibilities that each branch is assigned to perform. These functions can include combat operations, logistical support, intelligence gathering, and other specialized tasks that are essential for the overall effectiveness and success of the military. By categorizing these roles as functions, it allows for a clear understanding of the distinct contributions and capabilities of each branch within the larger framework of the military organization.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Which position designates a person who performs maintenance on nuclear wapons, has working knowledge of the weapon, and is authorized access to nuclear weapons, to include the launch or relased system for the performance or internal maintenance?

    • Junior

    • Senior

    • Critical

    • Controlled

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Critical." This position is responsible for performing maintenance on nuclear weapons and requires a working knowledge of the weapon. They are also authorized access to nuclear weapons, including the launch or release system for maintenance or performance purposes.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    Once the command post (CP) training manager receives the master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS) from the major command (MAJCOM), the training manager will add

    • A master training plan specific to their location

    • An annual training plan outlining recurring training

    • Locally defined tasks that are specific to their location

    • Plans of instruction outlining Air Force requirments

    Correct Answer
    A. Locally defined tasks that are specific to their location
    Explanation
    After receiving the master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS) from the major command (MAJCOM), the command post (CP) training manager will add locally defined tasks that are specific to their location. This means that the training manager will incorporate tasks that are unique to their particular CP location and not included in the standard MTL/JQS received from the MAJCOM. This ensures that the training plan is tailored to address the specific needs and requirements of their CP location.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    How often are all certified controllers required to completed scenario training?

    • Yearly

    • Quarterly

    • Monthly

    • Weekly

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    Certified controllers are required to complete scenario training on a monthly basis. This means that they have to undergo training and practice scenarios every month to maintain their certification. This regular training helps controllers stay updated with the latest procedures and techniques, ensuring they are prepared to handle different scenarios and maintain safety standards in their work.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    Which AF Form is used to document, monitor, and maintain a comprehensive record of an individual's training?

    • 623, On-the-Job Training Record

    • 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS

    • 4374, Command Post/Center Controller Certification Record

    • 4375, Command Post/Center Controller De/Recertificaiton Record

    Correct Answer
    A. 623, On-the-Job Training Record
    Explanation
    The AF Form 623 is used to document, monitor, and maintain a comprehensive record of an individual's training. This form specifically focuses on on-the-job training, which is a type of training that takes place in the work environment and is designed to provide practical skills and knowledge. By using this form, supervisors and trainees can track progress, identify areas for improvement, and ensure that the individual is meeting the required training standards.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    Each individual certified unde rthe Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) has the responsibility to inform their commander of all

    • Supplements being taken

    • Medical and dental treatment

    • Individual not doing their job

    • Alcohol consumed during the week

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical and dental treatment
    Explanation
    Individuals certified under the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) are required to inform their commander about their medical and dental treatment. This is important because any changes in an individual's health status can affect their ability to perform their duties effectively and safely. By keeping their commander informed, they ensure that any necessary accommodations or adjustments can be made to support their well-being and maintain the overall readiness of the PRP.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    How many complete, identical sets of emergency action checklists will be maintained?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    There will be three complete, identical sets of emergency action checklists that will be maintained.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    What command authority is over assigned forces vested in the commanders of combatant commands by US law and is not transferable?

    • Combatant command

    • Unified combatant command

    • Specified combatant command

    • Operational combatant command

    Correct Answer
    A. Combatant command
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Combatant command." In the United States, the command authority over assigned forces is vested in the commanders of combatant commands by US law. This authority is not transferable, meaning that it cannot be delegated to another entity or individual. Combatant commands are responsible for the operational planning and execution of military missions within their assigned geographic or functional areas of responsibility. They have the authority to command and control forces, allocate resources, and make decisions to accomplish their assigned missions.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    Which two leaders does the National Military Command System (NMCS) provide the means for information to be sent and received to support timely decisions?

    • President and Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)

    • Secretary of the AIr Force (SecDef) and (CJCS)

    • CJCS and combatant commander

    • President and SecDef

    Correct Answer
    A. President and SecDef
    Explanation
    The National Military Command System (NMCS) provides the means for information to be sent and received to support timely decisions by the President and the Secretary of Defense (SecDef). As the highest-ranking civilian and military leaders respectively, the President and the SecDef play crucial roles in making decisions related to national security and military operations. Therefore, it is essential for the NMCS to facilitate communication between these two leaders to ensure effective decision-making.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    What is vital to any multinational force

    • An agreement

    • Two commanders

    • A liaison

    • A treaty

    Correct Answer
    A. A liaison
    Explanation
    A liaison is vital to any multinational force as it serves as a point of communication and coordination between different units and commanders from different countries. It helps to bridge the language and cultural barriers, ensuring effective collaboration and understanding among the forces. A liaison officer facilitates the exchange of information, coordinates joint operations, and enhances interoperability, ultimately contributing to the success of the multinational force's mission.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    Which system is comprised of command and management, preparedness, resource management, communication and information management, and ongoing management and maintenance components?

    • Multiagency system approach

    • Multiagency Coordination Systems

    • Incident Command System (ICS) concept

    • National Incident Management System (NIMS) system approach

    Correct Answer
    A. National Incident Management System (NIMS) system approach
    Explanation
    The National Incident Management System (NIMS) system approach is the correct answer because it encompasses all the mentioned components: command and management, preparedness, resource management, communication and information management, and ongoing management and maintenance. NIMS is a comprehensive framework that provides a systematic and coordinated approach to incident management across various agencies and jurisdictions. It ensures effective coordination and integration of resources, communication, and information sharing during incidents, making it an essential system for managing emergencies and disasters.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    General knowledge "open-book" training examinations will consist of at least how many questions?

    • 15

    • 20

    • 25

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30. This means that in general knowledge "open-book" training examinations, there will be a minimum of 30 questions. This implies that there may be more than 30 questions, but there will not be fewer than 30.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    Monthly training examinations results will be recorded on the AF Form

    • 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training

    • 4373, Consolidated Record of Controller Training

    • 4374, Command Post/Center Controller Certification Record

    • 4375, Command Post/Center Controller De/Recertification Record

    Correct Answer
    A. 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training. This is because the question asks for the form on which monthly training examinations results will be recorded. Among the options given, AF Form 4372 is the most appropriate choice as it specifically mentions "Record of Controller Recurring Training," indicating that it is the form used to document the results of recurring training for controllers.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    Who is ultimately responsible for any and all communicaitons security (COMSEC) in your unit?

    • Unit commander

    • Command post (CP) chief

    • CP superintendent

    • COMSEC responsible officer (CRO)

    Correct Answer
    A. COMSEC responsible officer (CRO)
    Explanation
    The COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) is ultimately responsible for any and all communications security (COMSEC) in the unit. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that all communication systems and procedures are secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception. The unit commander, command post chief, and CP superintendent may have some level of responsibility in this area, but the CRO is specifically designated as the individual who has the ultimate responsibility for COMSEC in the unit.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    Communications securiy (COMSEC) ultimate sucess or failure rests with the

    • COMSEC responsible officer (CRO)

    • Command post superintendent

    • Unit commander

    • Individual user

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual user
    Explanation
    The ultimate success or failure of communications security (COMSEC) lies with the individual user. This is because the individual user is responsible for implementing and following the proper protocols and procedures to ensure the security of communications. They are responsible for safeguarding encryption keys, using secure communication devices, and properly handling classified information. The actions and decisions of the individual user directly impact the overall security of the communication system.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    Which two command and control (C2) agencies are authorized to operate a separate dedicated center to manage assets beyond the limits of their home station?

    • Installation Control Center (ICC) and Air Force Information Operations Center (AFOIC)

    • Air Force Service Watch Cell (AFSWC) and Air Force Operations Group (AFOG)

    • Major command (MAJCOM) and numbered AIr Force (NAF)

    • AFSWC and MAJCOM

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM) and numbered AIr Force (NAF)
    Explanation
    Major command (MAJCOM) and numbered Air Force (NAF) are authorized to operate a separate dedicated center to manage assets beyond the limits of their home station. This means that these two command and control agencies have the authority and capability to manage and coordinate assets in locations outside of their main base of operations. They have the responsibility to oversee and direct operations across multiple locations and ensure effective command and control of assets under their jurisdiction.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    Which tool is used to request a change in manning levels?

    • UMPR

    • ACR

    • UMD

    • Manning report

    Correct Answer
    A. ACR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ACR. ACR stands for Authorization Change Request, which is a tool used to request a change in manning levels. This tool allows individuals or departments to formally submit a request for a change in the number of personnel required for a specific task or project. It helps in managing and adjusting the manpower resources according to the needs and demands of the organization.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    Component headquarters that require Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) scheduled forces are requred to synchronize the building of requrements with the

    • AEF center (AEFC)

    • AEF indicator (AEFI)

    • AEF battle rhythm

    • AEF commander

    Correct Answer
    A. AEF battle rhythm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AEF battle rhythm. Component headquarters that require Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) scheduled forces need to synchronize the building of requirements with the AEF battle rhythm. This means they must align their planning and scheduling processes with the established operational tempo and cycle of the AEF. The AEF battle rhythm dictates when and how forces are allocated and deployed, ensuring that the right capabilities are available at the right time to support operational requirements. By synchronizing with the AEF battle rhythm, component headquarters can effectively integrate their forces into the overall AEF deployment and employment plan.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    What tool is used by both the command post (CP) training manager as well as CP leadership to identify the areas required for either certification or appointment to a CP staff position?

    • Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS)

    • Master training plan (MTP)

    • Annual training plan (ATP)

    • Plans of instruction (POI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS). This tool is used by both the command post (CP) training manager and CP leadership to identify the areas required for either certification or appointment to a CP staff position. The MTL/JQS outlines the specific tasks and qualifications that individuals must possess in order to perform their duties effectively in a CP staff position. It serves as a guide for training and assessing individuals' skills and knowledge in the CP environment. The MTL/JQS is an essential tool in ensuring that CP personnel are properly trained and qualified for their roles.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    The frequency of required recurring training tasks will be annotated by placing an "X" in the respective "month" column of the

    • Master task list/job qualification standard (MTL/JQS)

    • Annual training plan (ATP)

    • Plans of instruction (POI)

    • Master training plan (MTP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual training plan (ATP)
    Explanation
    The annual training plan (ATP) is used to annotate the frequency of required recurring training tasks by placing an "X" in the respective "month" column. This plan outlines the training schedule for the entire year and ensures that all necessary training tasks are completed within the designated time frame. The ATP helps to organize and prioritize training activities, allowing for efficient and effective training management.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 25, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Jeremiahdawson
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement