A Unique Quiz On Ccemtp

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  • 1/143 Questions

    A Critical Care Transport Team is composed of:

    • EMT driver,
    • RN
    • Paramedic
    • All the above
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About This Quiz

CEMTP was designed in response to the growing need for qualified specialists in the area of critical care inter-facility transfer. It helps to prepare paramedics and nurses to serve with competence and confidence in meeting the needs of critical care patients undergoing inter-facility transports. Take this unique quiz on Ccemtp quiz and get to learn more.

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  • 2. 

     Inhalation injuries are characterized by which of the following:

    • Singed nasal hairs

    • Soot in or around the mouth

    • Dyspnea

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Inhalation injuries are characterized by singed nasal hairs, soot in or around the mouth, and dyspnea. Singed nasal hairs occur when the individual inhales hot gases or smoke, causing the hairs in the nose to be burned. Soot in or around the mouth is a common sign of inhalation injury, indicating that the person has been exposed to smoke or other toxic substances. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is another common symptom of inhalation injuries, as the airways may be obstructed or damaged. Therefore, all of the above options are correct in describing the characteristics of inhalation injuries.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is to be carried out initially if a patient experienced a transfusion reaction?

    • Notify medical control

    • Administer high flow o2

    • Stop the transfussion

    • Raise the patients head and monitor vitals

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the transfussion
    Explanation
    If a patient experiences a transfusion reaction, the first step that should be taken is to stop the transfusion. This is important to prevent any further complications or adverse reactions. Once the transfusion is stopped, other necessary actions can be taken such as notifying medical control, administering high flow oxygen, and raising the patient's head to monitor their vitals. However, stopping the transfusion is the initial and most crucial step in managing a transfusion reaction.

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  • 4. 

    A trauma pt. with a suspected basilar skull FX is a good candidate for an NG tube.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    A trauma patient with a suspected basilar skull fracture is not a good candidate for an NG tube. Inserting an NG tube in this patient can potentially worsen their condition by causing further injury to the skull base or exacerbating any existing brain injury. It is important to prioritize the patient's safety and well-being in such cases and consider alternative methods for nutrition and medication administration.

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  • 5. 

    Morphine is the drug of choice for pain management in the burn patient, which of the following is the most appropriate route of administration?

    • Im

    • Iv

    • Sq

    • Ett

    Correct Answer
    A. Iv
    Explanation
    Intravenous (IV) administration is the most appropriate route of administration for morphine in burn patients. IV administration allows for rapid and direct delivery of the drug into the bloodstream, ensuring quick onset of pain relief. This is particularly important in burn patients who may experience severe pain and require immediate relief. Other routes of administration, such as intramuscular (IM), subcutaneous (SQ), or transdermal (ETT), may not provide the same level of rapid and reliable drug absorption as IV administration.

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  • 6. 

    PCWP Stands for:

    • Pulmonary capilary wedge pressure

    • Primary control with preload

    • Primary capilary with preload

    • Pulmonary control with pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary capilary wedge pressure
    Explanation
    PCWP stands for pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. This is a measurement used in medical settings to assess the pressure within the pulmonary capillaries, which are tiny blood vessels in the lungs. It is obtained by inserting a catheter into the pulmonary artery and advancing it until it wedges into a small branch of the pulmonary artery. This measurement is important in evaluating the function of the heart and diagnosing conditions such as congestive heart failure.

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  • 7. 

    Haliperidol is indicated for:

    • Respiratory failure

    • Acute psychotic episodes

    • Cardiac arrest

    • Low blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute psychotic episodes
    Explanation
    Haliperidol is a medication that belongs to the class of antipsychotic drugs. It is commonly used to treat acute psychotic episodes, which are characterized by symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haliperidol helps to reduce these symptoms by blocking certain neurotransmitters in the brain. It is not indicated for the treatment of respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, or low blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is acute psychotic episodes.

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  • 8. 

     decrease in hematocrit and hemaglobin is likely to be seen with:

    • Albumin

    • Asthma

    • Anemia

    • Head Injury

    Correct Answer
    A. Anemia
    Explanation
    A decrease in hematocrit and hemoglobin levels is likely to be seen with anemia. Anemia is a condition characterized by a deficiency in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. This leads to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity and can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, it is expected that a decrease in hematocrit and hemoglobin levels would be associated with anemia.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is/are CORRECT with regard to the results of an increase in intracranial pressure?

    • Seizures

    • Brain herniation

    • Stroke

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    An increase in intracranial pressure can lead to seizures, brain herniation, and stroke. Seizures occur when there is abnormal electrical activity in the brain, which can be triggered by increased pressure. Brain herniation refers to the displacement of brain tissue due to excessive pressure, which can cause severe damage. Stroke can occur if the increased pressure disrupts blood flow to the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients. Therefore, all of the given options are correct in relation to the results of an increase in intracranial pressure.

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  • 10. 

    Mean arterial pressure (MAP), minus intracranial pressure (ICP), equals:

    • Heart Rate (HR)

    • Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)

    • Blood Pressure (BP)

    • Stroke Volume (SV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
    Explanation
    Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is the average pressure in the arteries during one cardiac cycle, and intracranial pressure (ICP) is the pressure inside the skull. Subtracting ICP from MAP gives the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which represents the pressure gradient across the brain. CPP is an important parameter as it reflects the pressure that drives blood flow to the brain, ensuring adequate oxygen and nutrient supply. Therefore, the correct answer is cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP).

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  • 11. 

    A 31 year old female is experiencing anaphlaxis.  What is the CORRECT medication given to promote vasoconstriction, bronchodialation, and inhibit further release of biochemical mediators?

    • Decadron

    • Epinephrine

    • Solumedrol

    • Benadryl

    Correct Answer
    A. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is the correct medication given in cases of anaphylaxis. It promotes vasoconstriction, which helps to increase blood pressure and reduce swelling. It also acts as a bronchodilator, opening up the airways and improving breathing. Additionally, epinephrine inhibits the further release of biochemical mediators, such as histamine, which are responsible for the allergic reaction. Therefore, epinephrine is the most suitable medication in this situation.

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  • 12. 

    The first use of helicopters for air medical transport occurred as a result of:

    • The development of organ donor programs

    • The Korean conflict of 1950

    • The Prussian Siege of Paris

    • Enhanced responsibilities of State Law enforcement personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. The Korean conflict of 1950
    Explanation
    During the Korean conflict of 1950, helicopters were first used for air medical transport. The rugged terrain and difficult conditions of the conflict made it challenging to transport wounded soldiers quickly and efficiently. Helicopters provided a solution to this problem by being able to land in remote areas and transport injured individuals to medical facilities. This marked a significant advancement in the field of air medical transport and paved the way for the use of helicopters in emergency medical services.

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  • 13. 

    The first Use of helicopters for air medical transport occurred as a result of:

    • The development of organ donor programs

    • The Korean War

    • The Prussian Seige of Paris

    • Enhanced responsibilities of State Law Enforcement personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. The Korean War
    Explanation
    During the Korean War, helicopters were used for the first time for air medical transport. The rugged terrain and difficult conditions of the war necessitated a faster and more efficient way to transport injured soldiers from the battlefield to medical facilities. Helicopters proved to be the perfect solution as they could land in small, remote areas and quickly transport wounded soldiers to receive medical care. This marked a significant milestone in the history of air medical transport, paving the way for the use of helicopters in emergency medical services worldwide.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following areas are often cited for litigation involving malpractice?

    • Failure to adequately monitor the patient's condition

    • Failure to document findings

    • Failure to pass on information to a higher trained medical professional

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    All of the areas mentioned, including failure to adequately monitor the patient's condition, failure to document findings, and failure to pass on information to a higher trained medical professional, are often cited for litigation involving malpractice. This means that all of these factors can potentially lead to legal action being taken against a healthcare professional for negligence or improper care.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following abnormal lab values are indicative of DIC  (Disseminated intravascular coagulation)?

    • Serum glucose level

    • Clotting test

    • Liver function test

    • Renal function test

    Correct Answer
    A. Clotting test
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Clotting test." Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by the abnormal activation of blood clotting throughout the body, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors. A clotting test, such as prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), can detect abnormalities in the clotting process and help diagnose DIC. Serum glucose level, liver function test, and renal function test are not specific indicators of DIC.

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  • 16. 

    An alternative method for measuring total BSA burned:

    • Rules of 4

    • Rule of palms

    • Thumb

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Rule of palms
    Explanation
    The rule of palms is an alternative method for estimating the total body surface area (BSA) burned. It involves using the patient's own hand, which is roughly equal to 1% of their total BSA. By assessing the percentage of the burned area in relation to the size of the patient's palm, an estimation of the total BSA burned can be made. This method is simple and quick to use in emergency situations when a more precise measurement is not immediately available.

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  • 17. 

    An ________ catheter must be in place to monitor proper timing of the balloon pump.

    • Venous

    • IV

    • Arterial

    • IO

    Correct Answer
    A. Arterial
    Explanation
    An arterial catheter must be in place to monitor proper timing of the balloon pump because it allows for direct access to the arterial system. This type of catheter can accurately measure blood pressure and provide continuous monitoring of arterial waveform, which is crucial for ensuring the balloon pump is synchronized with the patient's cardiac cycle. Venous, IV, and IO catheters do not provide the necessary access or monitoring capabilities for this specific purpose.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following statements is CORRECT with regard to the proper infection control measures while caring for a TB patient

    • The use of gloves only

    • The use of googles and gloves

    • Use of a micron filter face mask

    • Washing your hands

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a micron filter face mask
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the use of a micron filter face mask. This is because TB (Tuberculosis) is an airborne disease that spreads through respiratory droplets. Using a micron filter face mask can help prevent the inhalation of these droplets and reduce the risk of infection. Gloves, goggles, and handwashing are also important infection control measures, but they alone are not sufficient for protecting against airborne diseases like TB. Therefore, the use of a micron filter face mask is the most appropriate measure in this scenario.

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  • 19. 

    A chest tube should be placed when a pulmonary embolus is suspected.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    A chest tube is not the appropriate intervention for a suspected pulmonary embolus. A pulmonary embolus is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by a blood clot that has traveled from another part of the body. The treatment for a pulmonary embolus typically involves anticoagulant medications to dissolve the clot and prevent further clot formation. In some cases, more invasive interventions such as thrombolytic therapy or surgical embolectomy may be necessary. However, the placement of a chest tube is not indicated for the treatment of a pulmonary embolus.

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  • 20. 

    In assessing a pt. with asthma, the PaO2 will assist in obtaining information of what nature:

    • Total Lung Capacity

    • The efficiency of gas exchange

    • Tidal Volume

    • Peep

    Correct Answer
    A. The efficiency of gas exchange
    Explanation
    The PaO2, or partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood, is a measure of the oxygen levels in the blood. In assessing a patient with asthma, the PaO2 can provide information about the efficiency of gas exchange in the lungs. Asthma can cause airway inflammation and narrowing, which can lead to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. Therefore, monitoring the PaO2 can help determine how well oxygen is being exchanged in the lungs and if any interventions are needed to improve gas exchange.

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  • 21. 

    Fluid resuscitation of a burn patient is based on which of the following

    • Parkland formula

    • Total body surface area burned

    • Severity and location of the burns

    • Administration of 20 cc/kg

    Correct Answer
    A. Parkland formula
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Parkland formula. This formula is used to calculate the amount of fluid resuscitation needed for a burn patient. It takes into account the total body surface area burned and provides a guideline for the amount of fluid that should be administered within the first 24 hours after the burn. The severity and location of the burns are important factors to consider in the overall management of the patient, but they do not specifically determine the fluid resuscitation strategy. The administration of 20 cc/kg is not a recognized guideline for fluid resuscitation in burn patients.

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  • 22. 

    127.               When caring for a critical burn patient, which of the following is of greatest concern within the first 24 hours?

    • Septic shock

    • Hypertension

    • Hypovolemic shock

    • Hyperglycemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypovolemic shock
    Explanation
    In the first 24 hours after a critical burn, the greatest concern is hypovolemic shock. This is because a burn injury can cause extensive damage to blood vessels, leading to fluid loss and decreased blood volume. Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is not enough blood circulating in the body to supply oxygen and nutrients to vital organs. It can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical intervention to restore blood volume and stabilize the patient's condition.

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  • 23. 

    A ________________ test is used to identify an organism, while a _____________ test is used to determine the best antibiotic to use against the organism?

    • Sensitivity : Guaiac

    • Prothrombin : culture

    • Thromboplastin : staining

    • Culture : Sensitivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Culture : Sensitivity
    Explanation
    A culture test is used to identify an organism by growing it in a controlled environment, such as a petri dish, and observing its characteristics. On the other hand, a sensitivity test is used to determine the best antibiotic to use against the organism by exposing it to different antibiotics and observing its response.

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  • 24. 

    The most serious drawback of using positive pressure/demand valves?

    • Hypoxia

    • Hpoventilation

    • Lack of power

    • High airway pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. High airway pressure
    Explanation
    Positive pressure/demand valves are used to deliver oxygen or air to a patient's airway. The most serious drawback of using these valves is the potential for high airway pressure. When the pressure in the airway becomes too high, it can cause damage to the lungs and other respiratory structures. This can lead to complications such as barotrauma, pneumothorax, or even respiratory arrest. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully monitor and control the airway pressure when using positive pressure/demand valves to ensure patient safety.

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  • 25. 

    A common problem of specimen collection associated with the breakdown or RBCs and subsequent release of hemoglobin is known as:

    • Degradation

    • Hemolysis

    • Clotting

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemolysis
    Explanation
    Hemolysis is a common problem of specimen collection where there is a breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs) and release of hemoglobin. This can occur due to various reasons such as rough handling of the specimen, incorrect needle size, or improper mixing of the blood sample with anticoagulants. Hemolysis can affect the accuracy of laboratory test results as it may lead to false elevation of certain analytes, such as potassium or lactate dehydrogenase. Therefore, it is important to prevent hemolysis during specimen collection to ensure reliable test results.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is CORRECT with regaurds to shock?

    • A degenerative condition leading to death

    • A physiologic state of tachycardia and diaphoresis

    • General systemic response to inadequate tissue perfusion

    • Irreversible hypotention

    Correct Answer
    A. General systemic response to inadequate tissue perfusion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "general systemic response to inadequate tissue perfusion." Shock refers to a condition where there is a widespread and severe lack of blood flow and oxygen delivery to the body's tissues. This leads to a systemic response in the body, including symptoms such as rapid heart rate (tachycardia) and excessive sweating (diaphoresis). It is not necessarily a degenerative condition leading to death, nor does it always result in irreversible hypotension. The key characteristic of shock is the inadequate tissue perfusion, which is addressed in the correct answer choice.

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  • 27. 

    Which procedure allows rapid entrance into airway by making a horizontal incision?

    • Percutaneous transtracheal jet insufflation

    • Needle Cricothyrotomy

    • Surgical Cricothyrotomy

    • Retrograde surgical intubation

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical Cricothyrotomy
    Explanation
    Surgical cricothyrotomy is a procedure that allows rapid entrance into the airway by making a horizontal incision in the cricothyroid membrane. This technique is used in emergency situations when traditional methods of airway management are not possible or unsuccessful. It involves making an incision in the skin and underlying tissues, followed by the insertion of a tracheostomy tube or endotracheal tube directly into the trachea. This procedure provides a direct and secure airway access, making it the correct answer in this case.

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  • 28. 

    The shape and appearance of a waveform is referred to as the ___________.

    • Audiology

    • Morphology

    • 12 lead

    • Traceology

    Correct Answer
    A. Morphology
    Explanation
    The shape and appearance of a waveform refers to its morphology. This term is commonly used in fields such as audiology and electrocardiography to describe the visual characteristics of a waveform.

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  • 29. 

    Which patient presentation would MOST concern you?  

    • An 8 month old infant with a respiratory rate of 60, nasal flaring, warm dry skin, and capillary refill time under 1 second

    • A 5 year old with a respiratory rate of 12, severe intercostals retractions, abdominal breathing, mottled upper and lower extremities, and cool dry skin

    • A 13 month old with a heart rate of 135, skin rash, hot moist skin, and a blood pressure of 80/52

    • A 2 year old with a respiratory rate of 44, nasal flaring, mild sternal retractions, and blood pressure of 86/50

    Correct Answer
    A. A 5 year old with a respiratory rate of 12, severe intercostals retractions, abdominal breathing, mottled upper and lower extremities, and cool dry skin
    Explanation
    The 5-year-old with a respiratory rate of 12, severe intercostals retractions, abdominal breathing, mottled upper and lower extremities, and cool dry skin is the most concerning presentation. These symptoms suggest severe respiratory distress and poor oxygenation. The retractions and abdominal breathing indicate increased work of breathing, while the mottled extremities and cool dry skin suggest poor perfusion. This combination of symptoms indicates a potential respiratory failure and the need for immediate medical intervention.

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  • 30. 

    A common problem of specimen collectionassociated with the breakdown of red blood cells and subswquent release of hemoglobin is know as

    • Hemoglobinura

    • Hematocrit

    • Hemolysis

    • Hemodialysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemolysis
    Explanation
    Hemolysis is the correct answer because it refers to the breakdown of red blood cells and the subsequent release of hemoglobin. This can occur during specimen collection, leading to the presence of hemoglobin in the sample. Hemolysis can be caused by various factors such as improper handling of the sample, excessive shaking or agitation, or the use of inappropriate collection devices. The presence of hemolysis can affect the accuracy of laboratory test results and may require the sample to be recollected.

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  • 31. 

    A stabbing incision is made at the ___________________to perform a surgical cricothyrotomy:

    • Thyroid Membrane

    • Thyroid Cartilage

    • Cricothyroid membrane

    • Cricoid Cartilage

    Correct Answer
    A. Cricothyroid membrane
    Explanation
    A stabbing incision is made at the cricothyroid membrane to perform a surgical cricothyrotomy. This is because the cricothyroid membrane is a thin and easily accessible structure located between the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage in the neck. It is the ideal site for creating an emergency airway in situations where traditional methods of intubation are not possible or unsuccessful.

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  • 32. 

    What is the best way to confirm proper chest tube positioning?

    • By watching tube pass through

    • Chest xray

    • Air return

    • Blood return

    Correct Answer
    A. Chest xray
    Explanation
    The best way to confirm proper chest tube positioning is through a chest x-ray. This imaging technique allows healthcare professionals to visualize the placement of the tube within the chest cavity and ensure that it is in the correct position. This is important as an incorrectly positioned chest tube may not effectively drain fluid or air from the chest, leading to complications. By using a chest x-ray, healthcare providers can accurately assess the placement of the tube and make any necessary adjustments if needed.

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  • 33. 

    The mechanism of action for Benzodiazepines:

    • Decreases urine output

    • Slows o2 production

    • Inhibits pre and post synaptic dopamine

    • Cellular h1 release

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibits pre and post synaptic dopamine
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines inhibit the release of dopamine in both the pre and post synaptic neurons. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in regulating mood, motivation, and reward. By inhibiting its release, benzodiazepines can have a calming and sedative effect, which is why they are commonly used as anti-anxiety and sleep medications.

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  • 34. 

    The normal PaCo2 for a healthy adult, breathing room air is?

    • 60- 80 mmHg

    • 30-40 mmHg

    • 35 - 45 mmHg

    • 7.35 - 7.45

    • None are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. 35 - 45 mmHg
    Explanation
    The normal PaCo2 for a healthy adult, breathing room air is 35 - 45 mmHg. PaCo2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood. This range indicates the normal levels of carbon dioxide in the blood for a healthy individual. Values below or above this range may indicate respiratory alkalosis or acidosis, respectively.

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  • 35. 

    The voulume of a gas inhaled or exhaled during a single resipratory cycle is called the?

    • Inspiration capacity IC

    • Total lung capcity TLC

    • Vital Capcity VC

    • Tidal volume Vt

    • Residual value

    Correct Answer
    A. Tidal volume Vt
    Explanation
    Tidal volume (Vt) refers to the volume of gas that is inhaled or exhaled during a single respiratory cycle. It represents the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each breath. This volume is important for maintaining proper oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the body. It is different from other lung capacities such as inspiration capacity (IC), total lung capacity (TLC), vital capacity (VC), and residual volume, which represent different combinations of lung volumes.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is the correct procedure for a cricothyrotomy incision? 

    • A transverse incision is made through the superficial cricothyroid membrane

    • A transverse incision is made 1cm superior to the suprasternal notch

    • A traverse incision is made between the forth and fith ribs

    • The subcutaneous tissues are infiltrated with lidocain prior to starting the incision

    Correct Answer
    A. A transverse incision is made through the superficial cricothyroid membrane
    Explanation
    A cricothyrotomy is a procedure used to establish an emergency airway in situations where traditional methods are not feasible. The correct procedure for a cricothyrotomy incision is to make a transverse incision through the superficial cricothyroid membrane. This membrane is located between the cricoid cartilage and the thyroid cartilage in the neck. By making a transverse incision through this membrane, a pathway is created for inserting a tube or other device to allow for breathing. Making the incision in this specific location ensures that it is in close proximity to the trachea, allowing for effective ventilation.

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  • 37. 

    Zero referencing balances the transducer to _______________.

    • 0 gravity

    • Atmospheric pressure

    • Room temperature

    • Patients weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Atmospheric pressure
    Explanation
    Zero referencing balances the transducer to atmospheric pressure. This means that the transducer is calibrated to measure pressure relative to the surrounding atmospheric pressure. By zero referencing, the transducer is able to accurately measure pressure changes without being affected by the atmospheric pressure. This is important in applications where the pressure being measured is relative to atmospheric pressure, such as in weather monitoring or barometric pressure measurements.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the inclusion of risk factors for renal failure?

    • Diabetes

    • Diverticulitis

    • Stomach Ulcers

    • High cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Diabetes is correct regarding the inclusion of risk factors for renal failure because it is a well-known and established risk factor for the development and progression of renal failure. Diabetes can cause damage to the small blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to a condition called diabetic nephropathy, which can eventually result in renal failure. Therefore, individuals with diabetes are at a higher risk of developing renal failure compared to those without diabetes.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following statements is correct with regard to decreasing the danger of transfussion reaction?

    • Slowly infusing blood during the first 15 minutes

    • Monitoring the urine output

    • Adding normal saline to the transfusion

    • Give a fluid bolus of normal saline

    Correct Answer
    A. Slowly infusing blood during the first 15 minutes
    Explanation
    Slowly infusing blood during the first 15 minutes can decrease the danger of transfusion reaction because it allows the healthcare provider to closely monitor the patient for any signs of a reaction. By infusing the blood slowly, any adverse reactions can be detected early and appropriate measures can be taken to mitigate the danger. This approach also allows the patient's body to gradually adjust to the transfusion, reducing the risk of an adverse immune response.

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  • 40. 

    A pt. presenting with profuse hematemesis with frank red blood, and a history of significant alcohol abuse is most likely caused by:

    • Jaundice

    • Esophageal varices

    • Liver failure

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Esophageal varices
    Explanation
    Esophageal varices are enlarged veins in the lower part of the esophagus that occur due to liver disease, most commonly caused by alcohol abuse. When these varices rupture, they can cause profuse bleeding, resulting in hematemesis (vomiting of blood). This is a common and serious complication of liver disease and alcohol abuse. Jaundice and liver failure can also be associated with liver disease, but they are not the primary cause of the profuse hematemesis described in the question. Therefore, the most likely cause in this case is esophageal varices.

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  • 41. 

    Gram negative and gram positive bacteria have been implicated as the causation factors of ?

    • Sepsis

    • Disseminated intravacular coagulation

    • Multisystem organ failure

    • Pancreatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Sepsis
    Explanation
    Gram negative and gram positive bacteria have been implicated as the causation factors of sepsis. Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body's response to an infection causes widespread inflammation. Both gram negative and gram positive bacteria can cause infections that lead to sepsis. Gram negative bacteria, such as Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, release endotoxins that trigger an immune response and can lead to sepsis. Gram positive bacteria, such as Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pneumoniae, can also cause severe infections that result in sepsis. Therefore, sepsis can be caused by both gram negative and gram positive bacteria.

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  • 42. 

    Choose the blood gas sequesnce that indicates the need for mechanical venitlation?

    • Decreasing PO2, decreasing PCo2, normal PH

    • Increasing Po2, decreasing Pco2, increasing PH

    • Decreasing Po2, increasing Pco2, decreasing PH

    • Increasing po2, decreasing Pco2, decreasing PH

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreasing Po2, increasing Pco2, decreasing pH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "decreasing Po2, increasing Pco2, decreasing PH." This blood gas sequence indicates the need for mechanical ventilation because it shows a decrease in oxygen levels (Po2), an increase in carbon dioxide levels (Pco2), and a decrease in pH. These changes suggest that the patient is not effectively exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. Mechanical ventilation can help improve gas exchange and restore normal oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

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  • 43. 

    CPP=MAP-ICP

    • Pressure gradient driving blood flow and delivery of nutrients to the lungs

    • Pressure gradient driving blood flow and delivery of nutrients to the heart

    • Pressure gradient driving blood flow and delivery of nutrients to the brain

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure gradient driving blood flow and delivery of nutrients to the brain
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pressure gradient driving blood flow and delivery of nutrients to the brain." CPP stands for Cerebral Perfusion Pressure, which is the pressure difference between the mean arterial pressure (MAP) and the intracranial pressure (ICP). This pressure gradient is crucial for maintaining adequate blood flow and delivering nutrients to the brain, ensuring its proper function.

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  • 44. 

    The diagnostic phenomenon occurring when some signals arising from nerves in one part of the body are mistaken by the central nervous for signals from another area is/are known as:

    • Rebound tenderness

    • Referred pain

    • Murphy's sign

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Referred pain
    Explanation
    Referred pain is the correct answer because it refers to the phenomenon where signals from nerves in one part of the body are mistaken by the central nervous system as signals from another area. This can lead to pain being felt in a different location than the actual source of the problem. Rebound tenderness and Murphy's sign are not related to this diagnostic phenomenon.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is an adverse reaction to TPA?

    • Intercranial bleed

    • Fever

    • Hypertention

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Intercranial bleed
    Explanation
    An adverse reaction to TPA is an intercranial bleed. TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) is a medication used to dissolve blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. In some cases, TPA can cause bleeding in the brain, which is known as an intercranial bleed. This can lead to serious complications and requires immediate medical attention. Fever and hypertension are not specifically associated with TPA as adverse reactions.

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  • 46. 

    Neurogenic shock will result in

    • Peripheral vasoconstriction

    • Increased heart rate

    • Increased blood pressure

    • Peripheral vasodilation

    Correct Answer
    A. Peripheral vasodilation
    Explanation
    Neurogenic shock is a condition that occurs due to damage to the spinal cord, leading to a disruption in the normal functioning of the sympathetic nervous system. This disruption causes a loss of sympathetic tone, resulting in peripheral vasodilation. Peripheral vasodilation refers to the widening of blood vessels in the periphery of the body, leading to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and a drop in blood pressure. Increased heart rate and increased blood pressure are not typically seen in neurogenic shock, as the loss of sympathetic tone leads to a decrease in cardiac output.

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  • 47. 

    In which of the following would the blood oxygen saturation be high, yet the patient still dies from hypoxia

    • Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

    • Hypovolemia

    • Hypothermia

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
    Explanation
    In carbon monoxide poisoning, the blood oxygen saturation can be high because carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin more easily than oxygen, leading to a false sense of high oxygen levels. However, despite the high saturation, the patient still dies from hypoxia because the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is compromised by the presence of carbon monoxide. This prevents sufficient oxygen from reaching the body's tissues, resulting in cellular damage and ultimately death.

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  • 48. 

    A dyspneic patient complains of sharp chest pain in the upper right chest. It becomes worse on deep inspiration.  Which condition would you suspect?

    • Acute Bronchiospasm

    • Pleuritic irratation

    • Acute myocardial infarction

    • Bronchial Obstruction

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleuritic irratation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Pleuritic irritation. Pleuritic irritation refers to inflammation or irritation of the pleura, the lining of the lungs. This can cause sharp chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration. Acute bronchiospasm refers to sudden constriction of the bronchial tubes in the lungs, which may cause shortness of breath but typically does not cause sharp chest pain. Acute myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack, can cause chest pain but it is not typically localized to the upper right chest. Bronchial obstruction refers to blockage of the airways, which can cause symptoms such as cough and wheezing but not specifically sharp chest pain.

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  • 49. 

    Pregnancy produces changes to the cardiovascular system, such as:

    • Increased blood volume & cardiac output; decrease in peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure

    • Decreased heart rate and cardiac output

    • Passive filling of the placental unit to circulate blood to the fetus

    • Higher cardiac outputs and decreased preload

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased blood volume & cardiac output; decrease in peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the body undergoes various changes to support the developing fetus. One of these changes is an increase in blood volume and cardiac output. This is necessary to meet the increased demand for oxygen and nutrients by the growing fetus. Additionally, there is a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure. This allows for better blood flow to the placenta and fetus. These changes ensure that the fetus receives adequate blood supply for its development.

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  • Sep 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 23, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Perkida

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