The VTNE Practice Test questions and answers
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If you are looking for the latest and free veterinary practice questions and answers, take out this "The VTNE Practice Test" and test your knowledge regarding it. VTNE (stands for Veterinary Technician National Exam) is a computer-based examination offered by many state and provincial agencies to evaluate the proficiency and competency of entry-level veterinary technicians. If you are preparing hard to pass this test, you must take the quiz below and assess yourself. All the very best for your exam!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The daily maintenance energy requirement (kcal) for a 4 kg cat is:
- A.
150
- B.
220
- C.
300
- D.
360
Correct Answer
B. 220Explanation
The daily maintenance energy requirement for a cat is the amount of energy it needs to maintain its current weight and activity level. This requirement is typically calculated based on the cat's body weight. In this case, the cat weighs 4 kg, and the correct answer is 220 kcal.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is used primarily to vent waste gasses?
- A.
Flush valve
- B.
Vaporizer
- C.
Scavenger
- D.
Flow meter
Correct Answer
C. ScavengerExplanation
A scavenger is primarily used to vent waste gases. It is a device that removes or collects waste gases, such as exhaust fumes or pollutants, from an area or system. It is commonly used in industries, laboratories, and medical settings to ensure the safe disposal of harmful gases. A flush valve is used to control the flow of water in a toilet or urinal, a vaporizer is used to convert a liquid into a vapor, and a flow meter is used to measure the flow rate of a fluid.Rate this question:
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- 3.
When the symbol above is seen on a drug description, it indicates the drug:
- A.
Contains radioactive materials and must be handled as a biohazard.
- B.
Is a potential abuse drug and may require special record keeping and storage.
- C.
Has been manufactured to standards approved for use in North America.
- D.
Is available only by prescription from a licensed veterinarian.
Correct Answer
D. Is available only by prescription from a licensed veterinarian.Explanation
The symbol above indicates that the drug can only be obtained with a prescription from a licensed veterinarian. This means that it is not available for purchase over the counter or without the approval of a professional.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Isopropyl alcohol is most effective as a germicidal agent when used in aqueous solution at a concentration of:
- A.
50%
- B.
70%
- C.
95%
- D.
100%
Correct Answer
B. 70%Explanation
Isopropyl alcohol, also known as rubbing alcohol, is most effective as a germicidal agent when used in a 70% aqueous solution. This concentration provides the optimal balance between water and alcohol, allowing for better penetration of the alcohol into the cell walls of microorganisms. A higher concentration, such as 95% or 100%, may evaporate too quickly and not have enough time to effectively kill the germs. On the other hand, a lower concentration, such as 50%, may not have enough alcohol to effectively kill the germs. Therefore, a 70% concentration is the most effective for germicidal purposes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In a dog, assessment of the gingival sulcus depth should be performed during the dental prophylaxis with:
- A.
The point of the curette
- B.
An ultrasonic scaler tip
- C.
A periodontal probe
- D.
Dental radiography
Correct Answer
C. A periodontal probeExplanation
During a dental prophylaxis in a dog, the assessment of the gingival sulcus depth is important. The gingival sulcus is the space between the tooth and the gum tissue. To accurately measure this depth, a periodontal probe is used. A periodontal probe is a small instrument with markings that can be inserted into the sulcus to measure its depth. This allows the veterinarian to assess the health of the gums and detect any signs of periodontal disease. The other options listed, such as the point of the curette or an ultrasonic scaler tip, are not specifically designed for measuring gingival sulcus depth. Dental radiography may be used to assess the overall health of the teeth and jaw, but it does not directly measure the depth of the gingival sulcus.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The canine cervix is located between the:
- A.
Ovaries and the horn of the uterus
- B.
Vagina and the body of the uterus
- C.
Vagina and the vulva
- D.
Ovaries and the uterine tubes (oviducts)
Correct Answer
B. Vagina and the body of the uterusExplanation
The correct answer is vagina and the body of the uterus. In canines, the cervix is the narrow passage that connects the vagina to the body of the uterus. It acts as a barrier between the reproductive tract and the outside environment, helping to protect the uterus from infection and foreign substances.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Arterial blood gas may provide erroneous results if it is:
- A.
Allowed to clot
- B.
Ran immediately
- C.
Stored on ice for 1 hour
- D.
Void of room air
Correct Answer
A. Allowed to clotExplanation
If arterial blood gas is allowed to clot, it can lead to erroneous results. This is because clotting can cause changes in the composition of the blood sample, affecting the levels of gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide. It is important to prevent clotting by properly handling and processing the blood sample to ensure accurate results.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The type of fracture that commonly affects young, growing animals and can result in limb deformities is called:
- A.
Comminuted
- B.
Transverse
- C.
Salter-Harris
- D.
T-Fracture
Correct Answer
C. Salter-HarrisExplanation
Salter-Harris fractures are a specific type of fracture that commonly affects young, growing animals. These fractures occur at the growth plate, which is the area of developing bone near the ends of long bones. When a Salter-Harris fracture occurs, it can disrupt the normal growth and development of the bone, leading to limb deformities. This type of fracture is unique to young animals because their bones are still growing and have a growth plate. Comminuted, transverse, and T-fractures are other types of fractures that can occur in animals, but they do not specifically affect young, growing animals or result in limb deformities.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Mandibular molars are commonly radiographed using which technique?
- A.
Lateral cranial
- B.
Bisecting angle
- C.
Caudorostral oblique
- D.
Parallel
Correct Answer
D. ParallelExplanation
The correct answer is Parallel. Mandibular molars are commonly radiographed using the parallel technique. This technique involves placing the film parallel to the long axis of the tooth and using a beam that is perpendicular to both the film and the tooth. This technique provides a more accurate representation of the tooth and surrounding structures.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following collection techniques will provide a urine sample that is free of contaminates for bacterial culture?
- A.
Free flow
- B.
Cystocentesis
- C.
Catheterization
- D.
Manual expression
Correct Answer
B. CystocentesisExplanation
Cystocentesis is the most reliable technique for obtaining a urine sample that is free of contaminants for bacterial culture. This technique involves using a needle and syringe to directly collect urine from the bladder, bypassing the urethra and reducing the risk of contamination from external sources. Free flow, catheterization, and manual expression all have a higher risk of introducing contaminants into the urine sample.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which active ingredient controls flea populations by breaking the life cycle at the egg stage?
- A.
Selamectin
- B.
Fipronil
- C.
Imidacloprid
- D.
Lufenuron
Correct Answer
D. LufenuronExplanation
Lufenuron is the correct answer because it is an active ingredient that controls flea populations by breaking the life cycle at the egg stage. It works by inhibiting the production of chitin, a key component of the flea's exoskeleton, preventing the eggs from hatching and developing into adult fleas. This interrupts the flea life cycle and helps to reduce the overall flea population.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The benefit of selective COX-2 inhibitors in the treatment of inflammation is they:
- A.
Have anti-inflammatory properties, but do not alter the gastric protection provided by COX-1.
- B.
Are antiemetic and antidiarrheal.
- C.
Cause platelet aggregation.
- D.
Do not cross the placenta.
Correct Answer
A. Have anti-inflammatory properties, but do not alter the gastric protection provided by COX-1.Explanation
Selective COX-2 inhibitors are beneficial in the treatment of inflammation because they have anti-inflammatory properties. Unlike non-selective COX inhibitors, they specifically target COX-2 enzymes, which are responsible for the production of inflammatory prostaglandins. By selectively inhibiting COX-2, these drugs can reduce inflammation without affecting the gastric protection provided by COX-1 enzymes. This is important because COX-1 enzymes play a role in maintaining the integrity of the stomach lining and promoting the production of protective mucus. By preserving the gastric protection provided by COX-1, selective COX-2 inhibitors can help minimize the risk of gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with non-selective COX inhibitors.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The most appropriate position to recover cattle from general anesthesia is:
- A.
Sternal recumbency
- B.
Dorsal recumbency
- C.
Right lateral recumbency
- D.
Left lateral recumbency
Correct Answer
A. Sternal recumbencyExplanation
The most appropriate position to recover cattle from general anesthesia is sternal recumbency. This position allows for a smoother recovery as it helps to maintain proper lung expansion and prevent respiratory complications. Additionally, sternal recumbency allows for better circulation and prevents pressure sores.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following drugs could add to the adverse effects of chocolate toxicity?
- A.
Acepromazine
- B.
Theophylline
- C.
Propranolol
- D.
Apomorphine
Correct Answer
B. TheophyllineExplanation
Theophylline is a drug that is commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is known to have a stimulant effect on the central nervous system and can increase heart rate and blood pressure. Chocolate contains theobromine, which also has stimulant effects on the central nervous system and can increase heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, theophylline and chocolate can have additive effects on the cardiovascular system, potentially leading to adverse effects such as increased heart rate and blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A rodenticide that can depress clotting factors for 3-4 weeks is:
- A.
Brodifacoum
- B.
Warfarin
- C.
Bromethalin
- D.
Cholecalciferol
Correct Answer
A. BrodifacoumExplanation
Brodifacoum is a rodenticide that can depress clotting factors for 3-4 weeks. This means that it interferes with the body's ability to form blood clots, which can lead to excessive bleeding. Warfarin is also a rodenticide that can depress clotting factors, but its effects typically last for a shorter duration. Bromethalin is a neurotoxin that affects the central nervous system, and cholecalciferol is a form of vitamin D that can cause hypercalcemia. Therefore, the correct answer is brodifacoum.Rate this question:
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Aug 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Aug 22, 2022Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
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