Incident Response & Digital Forensics Exam Prep

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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Quizzes Created: 3100 | Total Attempts: 6,949,905
| Questions: 25 | Updated: Aug 21, 2026
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1. The ____ is a chronological written record showing the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence.

Explanation

A chain of custody is essential in legal contexts as it documents the handling of evidence from the moment it is collected until it is presented in court. This record ensures the integrity of the evidence, preventing tampering or contamination. It includes details about who collected the evidence, where it was stored, and any transfers between individuals or locations. Maintaining an unbroken chain of custody is crucial for establishing the credibility of the evidence and supporting its admissibility during legal proceedings.

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About This Quiz
Incident Response & Digital Forensics Exam Prep - Quiz

This assessment focuses on key concepts in incident response and digital forensics, including the NIST Incident Response Lifecycle and the SANS PICERL model. It evaluates understanding of critical practices such as data preservation, evidence handling, and analysis techniques. This knowledge is essential for professionals aiming to enhance their skills in... see moremanaging and responding to cybersecurity incidents effectively. see less

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2. Which of the following best describes the purpose of forensic hashing during evidence acquisition?

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3. A broken chain of custody can make digital evidence inadmissible in court.

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4. During the Eradication phase of incident response, which of the following actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

During the Eradication phase of incident response, it is crucial to eliminate all traces of the incident to prevent recurrence. Removing malware and backdoors ensures that the threat is completely eradicated from the system. Identifying and closing the root-cause vulnerability addresses the underlying issue that allowed the incident to occur, strengthening future defenses. Additionally, removing unauthorized accounts prevents further unauthorized access, securing the system. These actions collectively ensure a thorough cleanup and help fortify the system against future incidents.

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5. Match each key term to its correct definition.

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6. Which of the following are correct steps in the Digital Forensics Process? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

The Digital Forensics Process consists of several key steps that ensure evidence is collected and analyzed properly. Identification involves recognizing potential sources of digital evidence. Preservation ensures that the evidence is protected from alteration or destruction. Examination refers to the detailed analysis of the evidence to extract relevant information. Finally, Presentation/Reporting involves documenting findings and presenting them in a clear manner, often for legal purposes. Monetization is not a step in this process, as it does not pertain to the integrity or analysis of digital evidence.

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7. Which type of forensics involves capturing and analyzing volatile memory to find running processes, injected code, and encryption keys?

Explanation

Memory (RAM) forensics focuses on examining a computer's volatile memory, which contains data that is lost when the system is powered off. This type of forensics is crucial for identifying active processes, injected malware, and encryption keys that reside in RAM during operation. Unlike disk forensics, which analyzes data stored on hard drives, memory forensics captures the transient state of a system, providing insights into its current activities and potential security breaches. This makes it an essential tool for cybersecurity investigations and incident response.

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8. The MACB timestamps in digital forensics stand for Modified, Accessed, ____, and Born.

Explanation

In digital forensics, MACB timestamps refer to four key attributes that track file activity. "Modified" indicates when the file content was last altered, "Accessed" shows when it was last opened or read, "Changed" records when the file's metadata was modified, and "Born" signifies when the file was created. The "Changed" timestamp is crucial for understanding alterations made to the file's properties, which can provide insights into user actions and file management over time. This comprehensive tracking aids forensic investigators in reconstructing events related to file usage.

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9. Which framework maps observed attacker behavior to Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs)?

Explanation

MITRE ATT&CK is a comprehensive framework that categorizes and describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by cyber adversaries. It provides a structured way to understand and analyze attacker behavior based on real-world observations. By mapping various attack methods to specific tactics and techniques, organizations can enhance their threat detection, incident response, and overall cybersecurity posture. This framework is widely used by security professionals to improve defense strategies and to facilitate threat intelligence sharing.

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10. In digital forensics, working directly on the original evidence is acceptable if no write blocker is available.

Explanation

In digital forensics, it is crucial to preserve the integrity of the original evidence. Working directly on the original data can lead to unintentional alterations, which may compromise the evidence's authenticity and admissibility in court. Write blockers are essential tools that prevent any changes to the original media while allowing forensic analysis. Therefore, without a write blocker, working on the original evidence is not acceptable, as it violates the fundamental principles of evidence handling in digital forensics.

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11. Which of the following are valid triage and prioritization factors during incident analysis? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

Valid triage and prioritization factors during incident analysis focus on understanding the severity and implications of an incident. Functional impact on business operations assesses how the incident disrupts essential services. Information impact, particularly regarding the loss of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) or Intellectual Property (IP), highlights potential legal and reputational consequences. Recoverability effort evaluates the resources and time needed to restore operations, while scope considers the extent of the incident, including the number of affected systems or users, which helps prioritize response efforts effectively.

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12. Match each NIST Incident Response phase to its primary activity.

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13. Which file system is primarily used by Windows and includes features like the Master File Table (MFT), journaling, and Alternate Data Streams?

Explanation

NTFS, or New Technology File System, is the primary file system used by Windows operating systems. It supports advanced features such as the Master File Table (MFT), which enables efficient data management, and journaling, which helps maintain data integrity by keeping a log of changes. Additionally, NTFS allows for Alternate Data Streams, enabling multiple data streams to be associated with a single file, enhancing flexibility and functionality compared to older file systems like FAT32. These features make NTFS well-suited for modern computing needs.

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14. According to NIST SP 800-61, how many phases does the Incident Response Lifecycle consist of?

Explanation

The Incident Response Lifecycle, as outlined by NIST SP 800-61, consists of four distinct phases: Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment, Eradication and Recovery, and Post-Incident Activity. Each phase plays a crucial role in effectively managing and responding to security incidents. Preparation involves establishing policies and training, Detection and Analysis focuses on identifying and understanding incidents, Containment, Eradication and Recovery addresses the immediate response and restoration of services, and Post-Incident Activity emphasizes learning from the incident to improve future responses. This structured approach ensures a comprehensive response to cybersecurity threats.

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15. Which of the following correctly lists the SANS PICERL steps in order?

Explanation

The SANS PICERL framework is a structured approach for incident response. It begins with Preparation, which involves establishing protocols and resources. Identification follows, focusing on recognizing and confirming incidents. Containment aims to limit the impact of the incident. Eradication is the process of removing the threat, while Recovery involves restoring systems to normal operations. Finally, Lessons Learned emphasizes analyzing the incident to improve future responses. This ordered sequence ensures a comprehensive and effective response to security incidents.

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16. An Indicator of Compromise (IoC) is a sign that an incident may occur in the future.

Explanation

An Indicator of Compromise (IoC) refers to artifacts observed on a network or in operating system files that indicate a potential breach or malicious activity that has already occurred. IoCs are used to detect and respond to security incidents rather than predict future incidents. Therefore, they serve as evidence of past compromises rather than indicators of future threats. Thus, the statement that IoCs indicate an incident may occur in the future is incorrect.

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17. Which of the following is NOT a valid forensic image format?

Explanation

NTFS (.ntfs) is a file system format used by Windows operating systems to manage data on hard drives, rather than a forensic image format. In contrast, E01, RAW/DD, and AFF are specifically designed to create and store forensic images, preserving the integrity of data for analysis during investigations. These formats enable the collection of digital evidence while maintaining a chain of custody, which is essential in forensic work. Thus, NTFS does not fit the criteria of a forensic image format.

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18. Match each forensic tool or format to its correct description.

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19. Which Windows artifact provides evidence of program execution history?

Explanation

Prefetch files are created by Windows to speed up the loading of applications by storing information about program execution. Each time a program runs, the system generates a corresponding prefetch file, which contains details such as the program's name, how often it has been run, and the paths to its executable and associated files. This data serves as evidence of program execution history, making prefetch files a valuable artifact for forensic analysis and understanding user activity on a system.

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20. A write blocker is used during forensic acquisition to prevent any modification to the source media.

Explanation

A write blocker is a crucial tool in digital forensics that ensures the integrity of the original data during the acquisition process. By preventing any write operations to the source media, it safeguards against accidental modifications or deletions that could compromise the evidence. This is essential in legal contexts, where maintaining an unaltered chain of custody is vital for the admissibility of digital evidence. Therefore, using a write blocker is standard practice to ensure that the forensic analysis is conducted on an exact copy of the data without risking alterations to the original source.

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21. According to the Order of Volatility (RFC 3227), which data source should be collected FIRST?

Explanation

CPU registers, cache, and RAM are the most volatile data sources, meaning they can change rapidly and may be lost if the system is powered down or altered. Collecting this data first ensures that critical information about the system's current state, including running processes and active connections, is preserved before it is overwritten or lost. In contrast, data on disk and archival media are less volatile and can be collected later without the same urgency. Prioritizing volatile data is essential for effective incident response and forensic analysis.

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22. Which hash algorithm is considered the current best practice for evidentiary integrity?

Explanation

SHA-256 is widely regarded as the best practice for evidentiary integrity due to its robust security features. Unlike MD5 and SHA-1, which have known vulnerabilities and are susceptible to collision attacks, SHA-256 offers a higher level of security with a longer bit length, making it significantly more resistant to brute-force attacks. Its use in various security protocols, including blockchain technology, further solidifies its reputation as a reliable hashing algorithm for ensuring data integrity and authenticity in evidentiary contexts.

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23. Locard's Exchange Principle states that every contact leaves a ____.

Explanation

Locard's Exchange Principle posits that whenever two objects come into contact, there is an exchange of materials between them. This means that a perpetrator at a crime scene will inevitably leave behind evidence, or a "trace," of their presence, such as hair, fibers, or fingerprints. Conversely, they may also take away traces from the scene. This principle is fundamental in forensic science, emphasizing the importance of collecting and analyzing these traces to establish connections between suspects and crime scenes.

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24. In the NIST Incident Response Lifecycle, Containment, Eradication, and Recovery are treated as ____.

Explanation

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery are treated as one phase in the NIST Incident Response Lifecycle because they represent interconnected steps that focus on managing an incident effectively. Containment aims to limit the damage, eradication involves removing the threat, and recovery ensures systems are restored to normal operations. These actions are often performed in tandem and require a coordinated approach to minimize impact and restore security, making them a unified phase rather than separate, isolated actions. This holistic view emphasizes the importance of addressing incidents comprehensively.

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25. Which of the following best describes the SANS PICERL model's second step — Identification?

Explanation

In the SANS PICERL model, the second step, Identification, focuses on recognizing and understanding the incident. This involves detecting any signs of a security breach, confirming its occurrence, and assessing the extent of the impact on systems and data. By accurately identifying the incident, organizations can take appropriate actions to mitigate damage and prevent future occurrences, making this step crucial for effective incident response.

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The ____ is a chronological written record showing the seizure,...
Which of the following best describes the purpose of forensic hashing...
A broken chain of custody can make digital evidence inadmissible in...
During the Eradication phase of incident response, which of the...
Match each key term to its correct definition.
Which of the following are correct steps in the Digital Forensics...
Which type of forensics involves capturing and analyzing volatile...
The MACB timestamps in digital forensics stand for Modified, Accessed,...
Which framework maps observed attacker behavior to Tactics,...
In digital forensics, working directly on the original evidence is...
Which of the following are valid triage and prioritization factors...
Match each NIST Incident Response phase to its primary activity.
Which file system is primarily used by Windows and includes features...
According to NIST SP 800-61, how many phases does the Incident...
Which of the following correctly lists the SANS PICERL steps in order?
An Indicator of Compromise (IoC) is a sign that an incident may occur...
Which of the following is NOT a valid forensic image format?
Match each forensic tool or format to its correct description.
Which Windows artifact provides evidence of program execution history?
A write blocker is used during forensic acquisition to prevent any...
According to the Order of Volatility (RFC 3227), which data source...
Which hash algorithm is considered the current best practice for...
Locard's Exchange Principle states that every contact leaves a ____.
In the NIST Incident Response Lifecycle, Containment, Eradication, and...
Which of the following best describes the SANS PICERL model's second...
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