CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Exam 220-1201 Practice Test 1

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| Questions: 20 | Updated: Sep 10, 2026
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1. A technician is selecting replacement RAM for a laptop that shipped with DDR4 SODIMM modules. Which of the following would be a valid replacement option?

Explanation

When replacing RAM in a laptop, it is crucial to select a module that matches the original specifications. DDR4 SODIMM modules are specifically designed for laptops, while DDR5 SODIMM modules are incompatible due to different electrical and physical characteristics. Additionally, DDR4 DIMM modules are not suitable as they are intended for desktops. While ECC modules can provide error correction, they must be supported by the laptop's chipset. Therefore, the best option is a DDR4 SODIMM module that aligns with the laptop's speed and capacity requirements, ensuring compatibility and optimal performance.

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About This Quiz
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Exam 220-1201 Practice Test 1 - Quiz

This assessment focuses on key concepts related to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Exam 220-1201. It evaluates your understanding of hardware, networking, and troubleshooting skills essential for IT professionals. By taking this practice test, you'll reinforce your knowledge and prepare effectively for the certification, ensuring you're ready to tackle... see morereal-world technical challenges. see less

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2. After a RAID 5 array reports a drive fault light, what is the correct FIRST step a technician should take?

Explanation

Before taking any action, it's crucial to accurately identify the faulted drive to avoid potential data loss or further issues. Using the RAID controller's management utility allows the technician to confirm the specific drive that has failed. This step ensures that the correct drive is replaced and helps in understanding the array's current status, which is essential for effective troubleshooting and recovery. Rushing to replace a drive without this confirmation may lead to unnecessary complications or misdiagnosis of the problem.

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3. A desktop randomly shuts down after 20 to 30 minutes of heavy use, and also shuts down once immediately at a cold startup before the OS loads. Which explanation best fits both symptoms together?

Explanation

A failing power supply can lead to unstable voltage output, causing the desktop to shut down both during heavy use and at cold startup. Unlike overheating, which typically manifests under load, a power supply issue can result in immediate shutdowns before the operating system loads, indicating that the problem lies with the hardware rather than software or other components. This instability can prevent the system from receiving adequate power, leading to the observed symptoms.

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4. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a core characteristic of cloud computing?

Explanation

Permanent fixed capacity contradicts the fundamental principle of cloud computing, which emphasizes flexibility and scalability. Cloud services are designed to allow users to adjust resources dynamically based on demand, ensuring efficient utilization and cost-effectiveness. Unlike traditional computing environments with fixed capacities, cloud computing thrives on the ability to scale resources up or down seamlessly, making it adaptable to varying workloads. Thus, the concept of permanent fixed capacity does not align with the core characteristics that define cloud computing.

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5. A company wants to rent virtual machines from a provider, then install and manage its own operating system, applications, and patches on top of them. Which cloud service model fits this need?

Explanation

IaaS, or Infrastructure as a Service, is the cloud service model that allows companies to rent virtual machines and manage their own operating systems, applications, and patches. This model provides the necessary infrastructure, including computing power and storage, while giving users full control over the software environment. Unlike SaaS (Software as a Service) or PaaS (Platform as a Service), IaaS enables organizations to customize their systems according to specific needs without being restricted by pre-configured software solutions. This flexibility makes IaaS the ideal choice for companies seeking to manage their own IT resources in the cloud.

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6. Which virtualization use case best describes running a suspicious email attachment in an isolated VM to observe its behavior safely?

Explanation

Using a sandbox involves creating an isolated environment to safely execute and analyze potentially harmful software, such as a suspicious email attachment. This approach allows users to observe the behavior of the software without risking damage to the host system or network. Sandboxing is particularly useful for security testing, as it enables the identification of malware or other threats in a controlled setting, ensuring that any malicious actions are contained and do not affect other systems.

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7. A small office wants any employee to be able to print from their laptop without installing a printer driver or connecting to the office network, using an internet-based printing service. Which connectivity option should be configured?

Explanation

A cloud print service allows employees to print documents from their laptops without the need for specific printer drivers or direct network connections. By using an internet-based service, employees can send print jobs over the internet to a compatible printer, enabling seamless printing from any device connected to the internet. This solution enhances convenience and flexibility, making it ideal for a small office environment where multiple users need easy access to printing capabilities without complex setup requirements.

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8. A technician is building a new desktop and needs to identify the connector that provides primary power to the motherboard. Which connector should be used?

Explanation

The 20+4 pin connector is the standard power connector for motherboards, providing the necessary primary power to operate the system. It consists of 20 pins with an additional 4-pin section that can be detached for compatibility with older motherboards. This connector supplies essential voltages, including +3.3V, +5V, and +12V, ensuring that all motherboard components receive adequate power for proper functionality. Other connectors like SATA, Molex, and 6-pin PCIe are used for specific components, such as drives and graphics cards, but do not serve as the primary power source for the motherboard.

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9. A technician is troubleshooting a new build that will not POST after CPU installation. The CPU is confirmed to be on the motherboard's supported CPU list, is fully seated, and the cooler is properly mounted. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be the cause?

Explanation

If the CPU is confirmed to be on the motherboard's supported list and is fully seated, it indicates that the socket type is compatible. Issues like an outdated BIOS version, inadequate power supply, or improperly seated RAM are more common causes of a failure to POST. Since the socket type is already validated, it is the least likely cause of the problem, making it less probable than the other options presented.

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10. A small business server needs a RAID configuration using at least four drives that provides both fault tolerance and improved read performance. Which RAID level best meets this requirement with striping and mirroring combined?

Explanation

RAID 10 combines the benefits of both RAID 0 and RAID 1 by using striping and mirroring. It requires a minimum of four drives, providing fault tolerance through mirroring while enhancing read performance with striping. In RAID 10, data is split across multiple disks, allowing simultaneous access and improving read speeds, while mirrored pairs ensure that if one drive fails, data remains safe on its mirror. This configuration is ideal for small business servers that prioritize both reliability and performance.

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11. A user's laptop feels warm and the touchpad no longer sits flush with the case. The technician opens the laptop and finds the battery has expanded. What should the technician do first?

Explanation

When a laptop battery expands, it poses a significant safety risk, including the potential for leakage or explosion. The technician's first priority should be to power off the device to prevent further electrical issues and to avoid any accidental puncturing or bending of the swollen battery, which could lead to hazardous situations. Ensuring safety is crucial before attempting any further diagnostics or repairs.

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12. Which fiber optic connector uses a twist-and-lock bayonet-style mechanism?

Explanation

ST (Straight Tip) connectors utilize a twist-and-lock bayonet-style mechanism, which allows for a secure connection by twisting the connector into place. This design ensures a reliable optical connection and is commonly used in various networking applications. The bayonet mechanism also facilitates easy connection and disconnection, making ST connectors popular in environments where frequent changes are necessary. In contrast, other connectors like LC and SC use different locking mechanisms, such as a latch or a push-pull design.

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13. Which port number is used by HTTPS for secure, encrypted web traffic?

Explanation

HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, uses port 443 to establish secure connections over the internet. This port is specifically designated for encrypted web traffic, ensuring that data exchanged between a user's browser and a web server is protected from eavesdropping and tampering. In contrast, HTTP traffic typically uses port 80, which does not provide encryption. Thus, port 443 is essential for maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information transmitted online.

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14. A home user wants guests on the Wi-Fi network to be unable to see or access other devices on the same network. Which router feature should be configured to achieve this?

Explanation

Configuring AP (client) isolation for the guest network ensures that devices connected to the guest Wi-Fi cannot communicate with each other. This feature effectively segments the network, enhancing security by preventing guests from accessing shared resources or seeing other devices. It allows guests to use the internet while keeping their activities isolated, protecting the privacy of both guests and the home network.

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15. A growing office needs to segment traffic between accounting and sales using VLANs on the same physical switch. Which device is required?

Explanation

A managed switch is required to segment traffic using VLANs because it allows for the configuration and management of virtual LANs, enabling different departments like accounting and sales to operate on separate networks while using the same physical infrastructure. This segmentation enhances security and performance by ensuring that broadcast traffic from one VLAN does not interfere with another. In contrast, an unmanaged switch does not offer these capabilities, making it unsuitable for environments needing traffic management and isolation.

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16. A company's outgoing emails are frequently marked as spam by recipient mail servers, even though the mail server itself is functioning normally. Which DNS record should the administrator add to authorize which mail servers may send email for the domain?

Explanation

To ensure that outgoing emails are not marked as spam, the administrator should add an SPF (Sender Policy Framework) record as a TXT record in the DNS settings. This record specifies which mail servers are authorized to send emails on behalf of the domain. By doing so, recipient mail servers can verify the legitimacy of the sending server, reducing the likelihood of emails being flagged as spam. Properly configured SPF records enhance email deliverability and protect against spoofing.

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17. A network administrator wants all switches, routers, and servers to forward event logs to a single central server for review. Which service role should this server provide?

Explanation

A Syslog server is designed to collect and store log messages from various network devices, including switches, routers, and servers. By centralizing event logs, the network administrator can efficiently monitor, analyze, and troubleshoot network issues. This service role ensures that all logs are organized in one location, making it easier to maintain security and compliance, as well as to perform audits and incident response. Other options like DHCP, proxy, and NTP servers serve different purposes and do not specifically address the need for centralized log management.

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18. An office deploying new Wi-Fi 6E access points wants to take advantage of wider channels with the least interference from legacy devices and neighboring networks. Which frequency band should the technician configure?

Explanation

Configuring the access points to the 6GHz band allows the office to utilize wider channels, which enhances data throughput and reduces latency. This frequency is exclusive to Wi-Fi 6E, meaning it is free from interference caused by older Wi-Fi standards and legacy devices that operate on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands. By choosing 6GHz, the technician can maximize the performance of the new access points, ensuring a more efficient and reliable wireless network.

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19. A technician is explaining the difference between using a phone as a hotspot versus tethering a laptop to it. Which statement correctly describes tethering?

Explanation

Tethering allows a smartphone to share its mobile data connection with a single device, such as a laptop, typically using USB or Bluetooth. This method creates a direct link between the two devices, providing internet access without the need for a Wi-Fi network. Unlike a hotspot, which can support multiple connections simultaneously, tethering is more focused and limits access to one device at a time. This can be particularly useful for providing internet access when a Wi-Fi network is unavailable or when a more secure connection is desired.

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20. A remote employee wants to connect their laptop to a monitor, keyboard, and mouse at their desk each morning without plugging in each cable individually. Which accessory should be recommended?

Explanation

A port replicator or docking station allows a remote employee to connect multiple peripherals, such as a monitor, keyboard, and mouse, through a single connection to their laptop. This simplifies the setup process, enabling quick and efficient access to all devices without the need to plug in each cable individually every morning. It enhances productivity by providing a seamless transition between mobile and stationary work environments.

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A technician is selecting replacement RAM for a laptop that shipped...
After a RAID 5 array reports a drive fault light, what is the correct...
A desktop randomly shuts down after 20 to 30 minutes of heavy use, and...
Which of the following is NOT typically considered a core...
A company wants to rent virtual machines from a provider, then install...
Which virtualization use case best describes running a suspicious...
A small office wants any employee to be able to print from their...
A technician is building a new desktop and needs to identify the...
A technician is troubleshooting a new build that will not POST after...
A small business server needs a RAID configuration using at least four...
A user's laptop feels warm and the touchpad no longer sits flush with...
Which fiber optic connector uses a twist-and-lock bayonet-style...
Which port number is used by HTTPS for secure, encrypted web traffic?
A home user wants guests on the Wi-Fi network to be unable to see or...
A growing office needs to segment traffic between accounting and sales...
A company's outgoing emails are frequently marked as spam by recipient...
A network administrator wants all switches, routers, and servers to...
An office deploying new Wi-Fi 6E access points wants to take advantage...
A technician is explaining the difference between using a phone as a...
A remote employee wants to connect their laptop to a monitor,...
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