Quiz to test your fire safety and health management knowledge

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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Quiz To Test Your Fire Safety And Health Management Knowledge - Quiz

The quiz below is created to test your knowledge and understanding of fire safety and health management. Can you pass this with a maximum mark? Also, you'd be able to see how much or how little you know about the legal responsibilities of fire health care employees in the workplace to raise your fire safety awareness. Fire safety management protects against fire hazards and prevents damage to employees as well as businesses. Let's play this quiz, then! All the very best to you!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    PPE must be dry before use at a structural fire as trapped water in the fabric can cause steam burns in _____ conditions. 

    • A.

      High heat

    • B.

      Hazardous

    • C.

      High heat index

    • D.

      Fire

    Correct Answer
    A. High heat
    Explanation
    Trapped water in PPE fabric can cause steam burns in high heat conditions. When exposed to high heat, the water trapped in the fabric can quickly turn into steam, which can cause burns on the wearer's skin. Therefore, it is important for PPE to be dry before use in order to prevent this potential injury.

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  • 2. 

    ____ refers to the time a wearer has before a second degree or greater burn will be sustained.

    • A.

      Thermal protective performance (TPP)

    • B.

      Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

    • C.

      Thermal protective equipment longevity (TPEL)

    • D.

      Equipment Fire Life (EFL)

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal protective performance (TPP)
    Explanation
    Thermal protective performance (TPP) refers to the time a wearer has before a second degree or greater burn will be sustained. It measures the ability of a material or garment to protect against heat and flames. The higher the TPP value, the longer the wearer can be exposed to heat before sustaining a burn injury. It is an important factor in evaluating the effectiveness of personal protective equipment (PPE) in preventing thermal burns.

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  • 3. 

    Thermal protective performance (TTP) for structural firefighting is 35 seconds. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. Thermal protective performance (TTP) refers to the amount of time that a material can provide protection against heat and flame before the wearer's skin reaches a second-degree burn threshold. A TTP of 35 seconds indicates that the structural firefighting gear is capable of providing protection for at least 35 seconds, which is crucial for the safety of firefighters working in high-temperature environments.

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  • 4. 

    A proper _____ will help reduce heart attacks and strokes. 

    • A.

      Diet and exercise program

    • B.

      Mental health and exercise program

    • C.

      Stretching and exercise program

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Diet and exercise program
    Explanation
    A proper diet and exercise program can help reduce heart attacks and strokes by promoting overall cardiovascular health. A balanced diet that is low in saturated fats, cholesterol, and sodium can help prevent the buildup of plaque in the arteries, reducing the risk of heart disease. Regular exercise helps to improve blood circulation, lower blood pressure, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which contribute to a healthier heart. Therefore, a combination of a proper diet and exercise program is essential for reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

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  • 5. 

    Standard on comprehensive occupational medical program for fire departments specifies medical requirements for firefighters. 

    • A.

      NFPA 1582

    • B.

      NFPA 1988

    • C.

      NFPA 1982

    • D.

      NFPA 1882

    Correct Answer
    A. NFPA 1582
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NFPA 1582. NFPA 1582 is the standard on comprehensive occupational medical program for fire departments. This standard specifically outlines the medical requirements that firefighters need to meet in order to ensure their health and safety while performing their duties.

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  • 6. 

    _____ should be practiced at every incident. 

    • A.

      Personell accountability

    • B.

      Size up

    • C.

      Scene safety

    • D.

      Overall plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Personell accountability
    Explanation
    Personnel accountability should be practiced at every incident. This means that it is important to keep track of all individuals involved in the incident, ensuring their safety and knowing their whereabouts. This is crucial for effective coordination, communication, and ensuring that no one is left behind or missing. By practicing personnel accountability, emergency responders can better manage the incident and ensure the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 7. 

    The development of an overall plan for controlling an incident using broad objectives and general statements is known as _____.

    • A.

      Strategy

    • B.

      Operations

    • C.

      Incident command

    • D.

      Scene size up

    Correct Answer
    A. Strategy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is strategy. Strategy refers to the development of an overall plan for controlling an incident using broad objectives and general statements. It involves determining the best course of action to achieve the desired outcome and guiding the allocation of resources and coordination of efforts. Strategy provides a framework for decision-making and helps to ensure a systematic and effective response to the incident.

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  • 8. 

    The development and implementation of a plan that incorporates specific goals to bring a fire under control is known as _____. 

    • A.

      Tactics

    • B.

      Strategy

    • C.

      Priorities

    • D.

      Seniority

    Correct Answer
    A. Tactics
    Explanation
    The term "tactics" refers to the actions or methods used to achieve specific goals. In the context of bringing a fire under control, developing and implementing a plan with specific goals would involve determining the best course of action, such as deploying resources, using firefighting techniques, and coordinating efforts to extinguish the fire. Therefore, "tactics" is the correct answer as it aligns with the concept of developing and implementing a plan to achieve specific goals in controlling a fire.

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  • 9. 

    The development of an overall plan for controlling an incident using broad objectives and general statements is known as _____. 

    • A.

      Stragegy

    • B.

      Scene size up

    • C.

      Tactics

    • D.

      Priorities

    Correct Answer
    A. Stragegy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "strategy." Strategy refers to the development of an overall plan for controlling an incident using broad objectives and general statements. It involves determining the best course of action to achieve the desired outcome. Scene size up refers to the initial assessment of a situation, tactics are the specific actions taken to implement the strategy, and priorities are the order in which tasks or objectives are addressed.

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  • 10. 

    The ongoing observation and evaluation of factors that are used to develop strategic goals and tactical objectives. 

    • A.

      Size up

    • B.

      Incident commander

    • C.

      Transfer of command

    • D.

      Accountability officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Size up
    Explanation
    "Size up" refers to the ongoing observation and evaluation of factors that are used to develop strategic goals and tactical objectives. This process involves assessing the situation, gathering information, analyzing risks, and determining the resources needed to effectively respond to an incident. By continuously monitoring and evaluating the situation, responders can make informed decisions and adjust their strategies accordingly. Therefore, "size up" is the correct answer as it accurately represents the ongoing observation and evaluation process in emergency response.

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  • 11. 

    Incident Commander Responsibilities:

    • A.

      Determines the priorities

    • B.

      Develops the strategies

    • C.

      Employs the tactics that will determine the outcome of the incident

    • D.

      Determines what resources will be needed

    • E.

      Coordinate and monitor accounting for crews

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Determines the priorities
    B. Develops the strategies
    C. Employs the tactics that will determine the outcome of the incident
    Explanation
    The incident commander is responsible for determining the priorities, developing the strategies, and employing the tactics that will determine the outcome of the incident. They are also responsible for determining what resources will be needed and coordinating and monitoring the accounting for crews. These responsibilities are crucial in effectively managing and resolving the incident, as the incident commander must make informed decisions and allocate resources effectively to ensure a successful outcome.

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  • 12. 

    The three crucial fire ground operations that must go hand in hand to keep the operation as safe as possible are:

    • A.

      Fire attack

    • B.

      Search and rescue

    • C.

      Ventilation

    • D.

      Sectors

    • E.

      Reports

    • F.

      Rehab sectors

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fire attack
    B. Search and rescue
    C. Ventilation
    Explanation
    The three crucial fire ground operations that must go hand in hand to keep the operation as safe as possible are fire attack, search and rescue, and ventilation. Fire attack involves actively extinguishing the fire and preventing its spread. Search and rescue focuses on locating and rescuing individuals who may be trapped or in danger. Ventilation is important for removing smoke, heat, and toxic gases from the building, improving visibility and creating a safer environment for firefighters and potential victims. These three operations work together to effectively control the fire and ensure the safety of both firefighters and civilians.

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  • 13. 

    The _____ is expected on incidents that require a multi-company response or is increased in size and/or complexity.

    • A.

      Transfer of command

    • B.

      Lead incident commander 

    • C.

      Accountability officer

    • D.

      Safety officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Transfer of command
    Explanation
    In incidents that require a multi-company response or become larger and more complex, the transfer of command is expected. This means that the responsibility for managing the incident is handed over from one incident commander to another. This transfer ensures that the incident is effectively managed and coordinated, allowing for a more efficient response.

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  • 14. 

    ______ describe a standard system of dividing fire ground command command into smaller command units or areas. 

    • A.

      Sectors

    • B.

      Sections

    • C.

      Accountability sectors

    • D.

      Incident sectors

    Correct Answer
    A. Sectors
    Explanation
    Sectors describe a standard system of dividing fire ground command into smaller command units or areas. This helps to effectively manage and coordinate resources, personnel, and operations during a fire incident. By dividing the fire ground into sectors, each sector can be assigned specific tasks and responsibilities, ensuring a more organized and efficient response to the incident.

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  • 15. 

    The _____ primary task is maintaining fire fighter safety at emergency incidents by monitoring that incident for unsafe conditions, activities, or operations. 

    • A.

      Incident safety officer

    • B.

      Incident commander

    • C.

      Accountability officer

    • D.

      Safety commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident safety officer
    Explanation
    The incident safety officer is responsible for ensuring the safety of firefighters at emergency incidents by monitoring the incident for any unsafe conditions, activities, or operations. This role involves assessing risks, implementing safety measures, and providing guidance to the incident commander and other personnel to prevent accidents and injuries. The incident safety officer plays a critical role in maintaining a safe working environment for all responders involved in the incident.

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  • 16. 

    The _____ primary task at an incident is coordinating, monitoring, and accounting for all crews in and out of the fire/ hazard area with or for the incident commander. 

    • A.

      Accountability officer

    • B.

      Operations officer

    • C.

      Incident safety officer

    • D.

      Incident commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Accountability officer
    Explanation
    The accountability officer's primary task at an incident is to coordinate, monitor, and account for all crews in and out of the fire/hazard area with or for the incident commander. This role is responsible for ensuring that all personnel are properly accounted for and that their movements and actions are tracked and documented. The accountability officer plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and effectiveness of the response by keeping track of personnel and resources on the scene.

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  • 17. 

    The incident commander shall make provisions early in the incident for the rest and rehab of personnel operating at the scene by initiating the rehab sector. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The incident commander has the responsibility to ensure the well-being and safety of personnel operating at the scene of an incident. By initiating the rehab sector early on, the incident commander ensures that personnel have access to rest and rehabilitation facilities, allowing them to recover and regain their strength. This helps to prevent exhaustion and fatigue, which could compromise the effectiveness and safety of the personnel. Therefore, it is important for the incident commander to make provisions for rest and rehab early in the incident.

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  • 18. 

    The primary purpose of the rehabilitation sector is the _____ working at the scene.

    • A.

      Revitalization of personnel

    • B.

      Prevent burnout on shift

    • C.

      Rehab injuries and rehydrate firemen

    • D.

      Rest and rehydration

    Correct Answer
    A. Revitalization of personnel
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the rehabilitation sector is to revitalize personnel working at the scene. This means that the rehabilitation sector aims to provide support and assistance to personnel who may be fatigued, stressed, or physically exhausted due to their work. By revitalizing these individuals, the sector helps ensure their well-being, productivity, and ability to continue their duties effectively. This can include providing rest, hydration, and any necessary medical attention or support to help personnel recover and regain their strength.

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  • 19. 

    _____ is for initial alarm incident. 

    • A.

      Level l staging

    • B.

      Level ll staging

    • C.

      Rehabilitative staging

    • D.

      Response and staging

    Correct Answer
    A. Level l staging
    Explanation
    Level I staging is for the initial alarm incident. This means that it is the first level of response and staging in a situation where an alarm is raised. It involves assessing the situation, determining the severity of the incident, and initiating appropriate actions to address the alarm. This level of staging is crucial in managing emergency situations effectively and ensuring a prompt and organized response.

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  • 20. 

    _____ is for complex extra alarm incidents needing a close reserve of apparatus staged (parked) in a designated area. 

    • A.

      Level ll staging

    • B.

      Level l staging

    • C.

      Multi alarm box response

    • D.

      Tiered alarm box

    Correct Answer
    A. Level ll staging
    Explanation
    Level II staging is for complex extra alarm incidents needing a close reserve of apparatus staged (parked) in a designated area. This means that for incidents that require additional resources and coordination, Level II staging is implemented to have a reserve of apparatus ready and available in a specific area. This helps ensure a swift and efficient response to the incident.

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  • 21. 

    When determining which tactics to use, the incident commander must preform a quick _____ of the whole scene. 

    • A.

      Risk/ benefit analysis

    • B.

      Scene size up

    • C.

      Pro/ con analysis

    • D.

      Walk in report

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk/ benefit analysis
    Explanation
    The incident commander needs to quickly assess the entire scene in order to determine which tactics to use. This involves conducting a risk/benefit analysis, weighing the potential risks and benefits of each available option. By considering the potential risks involved and the potential benefits that can be gained from each tactic, the incident commander can make an informed decision on the best course of action. This helps ensure the safety of responders and maximizes the effectiveness of the response.

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  • 22. 

    _____ is the most common means of communication. 

    • A.

      Telephone

    • B.

      Messaging

    • C.

      Verbal communication

    • D.

      Radio

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone
    Explanation
    The telephone is the most common means of communication because it allows individuals to talk to each other over long distances using voice transmission. It is widely accessible and used by people around the world for personal and business purposes. The telephone has revolutionized communication by providing instant and direct connection between individuals, making it a preferred method of communication in today's fast-paced world.

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  • 23. 

    When answering a non-emergency phone call, you should use/ ask _____.

    • A.

      Your department's standard greeting

    • B.

      Answering report

    • C.

      Where the caller is located

    • D.

      What the complaint is

    Correct Answer
    A. Your department's standard greeting
    Explanation
    When answering a non-emergency phone call, it is important to use or ask for your department's standard greeting. This ensures professionalism and consistency in communication with callers. By using the standard greeting, you establish a clear and recognizable identity for your department, which helps to build trust and provide a consistent experience for callers. It also sets the tone for the conversation and helps to create a positive impression of your department.

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  • 24. 

    When receiving an emergency over the phone, _____. 

    • A.

      Speak clearly, slowly, and with good volume

    • B.

      Be sure to obtain an address first

    • C.

      Give a walk in report

    • D.

      Dispatch information as it is obtained

    Correct Answer
    A. Speak clearly, slowly, and with good volume
    Explanation
    When receiving an emergency over the phone, it is important to speak clearly, slowly, and with good volume. This is necessary to ensure that the person on the other end of the line can understand and follow the instructions or information being provided. Speaking clearly and slowly helps to avoid any miscommunication or confusion, while using a good volume ensures that the voice is audible and easily heard.

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  • 25. 

    Fire departments that have access to multiple radio channels, should assign fire ground operations to _____.

    • A.

      Separate dedicated channel

    • B.

      Switch to channel two

    • C.

      Incident command channel

    • D.

      Mabas division channel

    Correct Answer
    A. Separate dedicated channel
    Explanation
    Fire departments that have access to multiple radio channels should assign fire ground operations to a separate dedicated channel. This is because fire ground operations require clear and efficient communication between firefighters on the ground. By using a separate dedicated channel, they can ensure that this communication is not interrupted or interfered with by other radio traffic. This allows for better coordination and response during firefighting operations, ultimately enhancing the safety and effectiveness of the firefighters.

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  • 26. 

    Periodic profess reports should be given at least every _____ or anytime the conditions of the incident have significantly changed (for better or worse).

    • A.

      10 minutes

    • B.

      15 minutes

    • C.

      5 minutes 

    • D.

      Hourly 

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 minutes
    Explanation
    Periodic progress reports should be given at least every 10 minutes or anytime the conditions of the incident have significantly changed (for better or worse). This means that updates on the progress of the incident should be provided every 10 minutes to ensure that everyone involved is informed about any changes or developments. This helps in maintaining effective communication and allows for timely decision-making based on the current situation.

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  • 27. 

    Provides dispatcher with instant information

    • A.

      Enhanced 911/ e911

    • B.

      Generic 911

    • C.

      Trunked 911 systems

    • D.

      Teletype

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhanced 911/ e911
    Explanation
    Enhanced 911 (e911) provides the dispatcher with instant information. Unlike generic 911 or trunked 911 systems, e911 includes advanced features that allow for the automatic transmission of the caller's location information to the dispatcher. This enables emergency services to quickly locate and respond to the caller's exact location, even if they are unable to speak or provide their address. Teletype, on the other hand, is a communication device that allows for the transmission of typed messages and is not specifically related to providing instant information to dispatchers in emergency situations.

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  • 28. 

    Allows the hearing or speech impaired to communicate over telephone system.

    • A.

      Teletype

    • B.

      Text to talk

    • C.

      Enhanced 911

    • D.

      Keypad translation

    Correct Answer
    A. Teletype
    Explanation
    Teletype is the correct answer because it is a device that allows the hearing or speech impaired individuals to communicate over the telephone system. It uses a combination of typing and printing mechanisms to send and receive messages, enabling those with hearing or speech impairments to communicate effectively.

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  • 29. 

    Provides critical "heads up" information to all concerned parties (those at the scene, those responding to the scene, and those listening in)

    • A.

      Periodic progress report

    • B.

      Incident command report

    • C.

      Dispatch communication responsibilities

    • D.

      Comm center

    Correct Answer
    A. Periodic progress report
    Explanation
    A periodic progress report is a form of communication that provides important information to all parties involved in a situation. It allows those at the scene, those responding to the scene, and those listening in to stay updated on the progress of the incident. This report ensures that everyone is informed and aware of any developments or changes, allowing for effective coordination and decision-making.

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  • 30. 

    The phrase "_____" is used to gain priority access to the radio frequency announce/ identify an emergent need other than a mayday. 

    • A.

      Emergency/ urgent traffic

    • B.

      Mayday callout

    • C.

      Periodic progress report

    • D.

      Priority one traffic 

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergency/ urgent traffic
    Explanation
    The phrase "emergency/urgent traffic" is used to gain priority access to the radio frequency and announce or identify an emergent need other than a mayday. This phrase is used when there is a situation that requires immediate attention or action, but it is not necessarily a life-threatening emergency like a mayday callout. It allows the person using the phrase to convey the urgency of their message and ensure that it is given priority over other communications on the radio frequency.

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  • 31. 

    The only time a "_____" callout is used when fire fighters are in immediate danger. 

    • A.

      Mayday 

    • B.

      Priority one

    • C.

      Urgent traffic

    • D.

      Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Mayday 
    Explanation
    A "mayday" callout is used when firefighters are in immediate danger. This term is commonly used in emergency situations to indicate a distress signal. It is a universal radio communication code that signifies a life-threatening situation and the need for immediate assistance. Firefighters use the term "mayday" to alert their team members and other emergency personnel that they are in a critical situation and require immediate help.

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  • 32. 

    Each jurisdiction follows the commanding agencies radio protocol when responding to an incident, operating at an incident, and clearing an incident. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    They follow their own radio protocol

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  • 33. 

    Four categories of energy:

    • A.

      Chemical heat

    • B.

      Electrical heat

    • C.

      Mechanical heat

    • D.

      Nuclear heat

    • E.

      Conduction heat

    • F.

      Radiation heat

    • G.

      Convection heat

    • H.

      Natural heat

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Chemical heat
    B. Electrical heat
    C. Mechanical heat
    D. Nuclear heat
    Explanation
    The given answer lists four categories of energy: chemical heat, electrical heat, mechanical heat, and nuclear heat. These categories represent different forms of energy that can be classified based on their source or nature. Chemical heat refers to the energy released or absorbed during a chemical reaction, electrical heat is the energy associated with the flow of electric current, mechanical heat is the energy associated with the movement or motion of objects, and nuclear heat is the energy released during nuclear reactions. These categories cover a wide range of energy sources and provide a comprehensive understanding of different types of heat energy.

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  • 34. 

    Three methods of heat transfer

    • A.

      Conduction

    • B.

      Convection

    • C.

      Radiation

    • D.

      Thermal

    • E.

      Gama

    • F.

      Combustion

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Conduction
    B. Convection
    C. Radiation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is conduction, convection, and radiation. These three methods are all ways in which heat can be transferred from one object to another. Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact between objects or particles. Convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases. Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves. These methods are fundamental in understanding how heat is transferred in various systems and environments.

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  • 35. 

    Products of combustion, commonly found in structural fires, that create a life hazard. 

    • A.

      Heat

    • B.

      Smoke

    • C.

      Fire gases

    • D.

      Flame/ light

    • E.

      Debris

    • F.

      Toxic fumes

    • G.

      Flammable material

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Heat
    B. Smoke
    C. Fire gases
    D. Flame/ light
    Explanation
    The products of combustion, such as heat, smoke, fire gases, and flame/light, are commonly found in structural fires. These elements create a life hazard as they can cause burns, reduce visibility, and release toxic fumes. Additionally, the presence of debris and flammable materials further increases the danger in such situations.

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  • 36. 

    The minimum temperature to which a fuel, in air, must be heated to start self sustained combustion without a separate ignition source. 

    • A.

      Ignition temperature

    • B.

      Flash point

    • C.

      Density point

    • D.

      Flammable/ explosive range

    Correct Answer
    A. Ignition temperature
    Explanation
    The ignition temperature refers to the minimum temperature at which a fuel, in the presence of air, can spontaneously ignite and sustain combustion without the need for an external ignition source. It is the temperature at which the fuel-air mixture becomes hot enough to initiate a self-sustaining reaction.

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  • 37. 

    The minim temperature at which a liquid fire gives of sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the surface. 

    • A.

      Flash point

    • B.

      Ignition temperature

    • C.

      Explosive ranger

    • D.

      Vapor density

    Correct Answer
    A. Flash point
    Explanation
    The flash point refers to the minimum temperature at which a liquid fire produces enough vapors to create an ignitable mixture with the surrounding air. This means that at the flash point, the liquid fire is able to release vapors that can ignite when exposed to a spark or flame.

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  • 38. 

    The range between the lower explosive limit and the upper explosive limit.

    • A.

      Flammable/ explosive range

    • B.

      Combustion range

    • C.

      Ignition temperature range

    • D.

      Backdraft potential range

    Correct Answer
    A. Flammable/ explosive range
    Explanation
    The correct answer is flammable/explosive range. This refers to the range of concentrations of a flammable substance in the air that can result in an explosion or fire if ignited. It includes the lower explosive limit (LEL), which is the minimum concentration required for combustion, and the upper explosive limit (UEL), which is the maximum concentration above which combustion cannot occur. Understanding this range is important for ensuring safe handling and storage of flammable materials.

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  • 39. 

    Weight of vapor or gas compared to the weight of air (air is given the value of 1) is vapor density.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Vapor density is a measure of the weight of a vapor or gas compared to the weight of air. It is calculated by dividing the weight of the vapor or gas by the weight of an equal volume of air. Since air is given the value of 1, a vapor density greater than 1 means that the vapor or gas is heavier than air, and a vapor density less than 1 means that it is lighter than air. Therefore, the statement "Weight of vapor or gas compared to the weight of air (air is given the value of 1) is vapor density" is true.

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  • 40. 

    Chemical reaction between two or more chemicals that produces heat energy

    • A.

      Exothermic reactions

    • B.

      Endothermic reactions

    • C.

      Backdraft potential 

    • D.

      Flashpoint 

    Correct Answer
    A. Exothermic reactions
    Explanation
    Exothermic reactions refer to chemical reactions where heat energy is released. This means that the reactants have more energy than the products, resulting in a net release of energy in the form of heat. In these reactions, the temperature of the surroundings increases. This is in contrast to endothermic reactions, where heat energy is absorbed from the surroundings, causing a decrease in temperature. The terms "backdraft potential" and "flashpoint" are unrelated to the given statement and do not pertain to the concept of heat energy release in chemical reactions.

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  • 41. 

    Chemical reaction between two or more chemicals that absorb heat or require heat to be added. 

    • A.

      Endothermic reactions

    • B.

      Exothermic reactions

    • C.

      Ignition temperature

    • D.

      Thermal layering

    Correct Answer
    A. Endothermic reactions
    Explanation
    Endothermic reactions are chemical reactions that absorb heat or require heat to be added. In these reactions, the reactants have lower energy than the products, and energy is absorbed from the surroundings to make up the difference. This results in a decrease in temperature of the surroundings. Examples of endothermic reactions include the reaction between baking soda and vinegar, or the reaction between ammonium nitrate and water.

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  • 42. 

    Can be reduced by ventilating the building at the highest possible point to allow the gases to escape before entering an area. 

    • A.

      Backdraft potential

    • B.

      Flashpoint potential

    • C.

      Points of combustion

    • D.

      Exothermic reactions

    Correct Answer
    A. Backdraft potential
    Explanation
    The backdraft potential refers to the possibility of a sudden and violent explosion that can occur when oxygen is reintroduced to a fire that has been deprived of it for a period of time. Ventilating the building at the highest point allows the gases to escape before entering an area, reducing the chances of a backdraft.

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  • 43. 

    The tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperatures. 

    • A.

      Thermal layering

    • B.

      Explosive range

    • C.

      Vapor expansion

    • D.

      Exothermic reactions

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal layering
    Explanation
    Sometimes referred to as heat stratification, heat balance, and thermal balance

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  • 44. 

    An explosion caused by the rupture of a vessel containing a pressurized liquid that has been heated above its boiling point.

    • A.

      Boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion

    • B.

      Thermal layer explosion

    • C.

      Spontaneous combustion

    • D.

      Backdraft explosion

    Correct Answer
    A. Boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion
    Explanation
    A boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion refers to an explosion that occurs when a vessel containing a pressurized liquid is heated above its boiling point. As the liquid boils, it rapidly expands into vapor, causing a sudden increase in pressure within the vessel. If the pressure becomes too high, the vessel ruptures, resulting in a violent explosion. This type of explosion is specifically caused by the combination of a heated liquid and pressurized conditions, making it different from other types of explosions such as thermal layer explosions, spontaneous combustion, or backdraft explosions.

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  • 45. 

    Windows that open/ close via small hand crank

    • A.

      Jalousie 

    • B.

      Panel

    • C.

      Roll up style

    • D.

      Ledge

    Correct Answer
    A. Jalousie 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "jalousie." Jalousie windows are windows that open and close via a small hand crank. They consist of multiple glass panels that are hinged together and can be opened or closed by operating the crank. Jalousie windows are often seen in older buildings and provide good ventilation while still offering some level of privacy and security.

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  • 46. 

    Types of wood swinging doors

    • A.

      Panel

    • B.

      Slab

    • C.

      Ledge

    • D.

      Roll up

    • E.

      Truss

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Panel
    B. Slab
    C. Ledge
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the types of wood swinging doors which are panel, slab, and ledge. A panel door is made up of stiles, rails, and panels, providing a traditional and elegant look. A slab door is a solid piece of wood without any frames or panels, offering a sleek and modern appearance. A ledge door consists of vertical boards held together by horizontal ledges, giving a rustic and charming vibe. These three types of wood swinging doors offer different styles and aesthetics to suit various preferences and design choices.

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  • 47. 

    The roll up style of overhead door is considered a low security service door

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    It's considered a high security door

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  • 48. 

    The total quantity of all combustible material in a given area that can act as a fuel to feed a fire. 

    • A.

      Fire load

    • B.

      Greatest hazards

    • C.

      Wood truss

    • D.

      Bleve

    Correct Answer
    A. Fire load
    Explanation
    Fire load refers to the total quantity of all combustible material in a given area that can act as fuel to feed a fire. It is an important factor to consider in fire safety as it determines the potential intensity and spread of a fire. The higher the fire load, the greater the risk of a fire hazard. Therefore, understanding and managing the fire load is crucial in preventing and controlling fires.

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  • 49. 

    Lightweight wood truss consists of:

    • A.

      Top and bottom cords

    • B.

      Supported by wood cross pieces aka "webs"

    • C.

      Lightweight bar joists

    • D.

      Panle, slab, and ledge

    • E.

      Multiple cords

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Top and bottom cords
    B. Supported by wood cross pieces aka "webs"
    Explanation
    A lightweight wood truss consists of top and bottom cords that are supported by wood cross pieces, also known as "webs". The top and bottom cords provide the main structural support while the wood cross pieces help to distribute the load evenly across the truss. This configuration allows for a lightweight yet strong construction that is commonly used in roofing and floor systems.

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  • 50. 

    Lightweight wood truss construction may collapse from fire exposure in a very short amount of time 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    lightweight.... easy to go through (5-6 minut4es)

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 13, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 06, 2022
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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