Ocular Disease Midterm 1

Megalocornea is the correct term for the condition shown here, which refers to an abnormally large cornea. Microcornea, Keratoconus, and Iridoschisis are all different eye conditions that are not represented by the term megalocornea.

Keratoglobus is a non-inflammatory thinning of the cornea, leading to a protrusion in the cornea. It is often mistaken for Keratoconus, which is a different type of corneal thinning disorder. Megalocornea and Pellucid Marginal Degeneration are also conditions that affect the cornea but present with different characteristics.

Mesenchymal dysgenesis refers to a spectrum of congenital corneal abnormalities. Posterior keratoconnus and Peter's Anomaly are two specific types, each with distinct characteristics as described in the answer. The incorrect answers provide misleading information which does not correspond to the actual types of mesenchymal dysgenesis.

The image displays posterior keratoconus where the thinning of the cornea occurs in the innermost layer, causing visual disturbances.

Peter's anomaly is a form of anterior segment dysgenesis characterized by central corneal opacity and lenticular or corneolenticular adhesions.

Posterior keratoconus specifically refers to thinning and bulging of the back of the cornea, which can lead to vision problems. It is important to differentiate between different types of keratoconus to accurately diagnose and treat the condition.

The correct answer describes individual characteristics of each of the 3 different syndromes. Keratoconus, retinal detachment, and pigment dispersion syndrome are unrelated conditions and do not fit the definition of anterior chamber cleavage syndromes.

In posterior embryotoxon, the displacement is typically seen in the 3 - 9 o'clock position around the corneal periphery.

Gonioscopy is the most appropriate method for visualizing posterior embryotoxon due to its ability to provide a clear view of the iridocorneal angle.

Axenfeld's anomaly is characterized by a prominent iris sphincter and maybe corectopia. The incorrect answers do not accurately describe the iris abnormalities associated with Axenfeld's.

Anterior cleavage syndrome is associated with a low risk of developing glaucoma.

Anterior cleavage syndrome is associated with a 20 - 50% risk of developing glaucoma.

Anterior cleavage syndrome is associated with a 50 - 70% risk of developing glaucoma. This condition requires close monitoring and timely intervention to manage the risk of glaucoma development.

Retro-illumination is the preferred illumination method as it allows for the visualization of the corneal irregularities caused by epithelial basement membrane dystrophy by reflecting light off the inner surface of the cornea.

Epithelial membrane dystrophy presents with distinct visual characteristics that can be identified on examination. Understanding these patterns can aid in proper diagnosis and management of the condition.

The correct term used to describe the pattern of EBMD is 'maps' due to its appearance resembling geographical maps with lines and borders.

EBMD (Epithelial Basement Membrane Dystrophy) is a condition that affects the cornea. Spontaneous epithelial erosion is the most common complication, characterized by the peeling off of a large piece of epithelium, causing discomfort and visual disturbances.

Treatment for EBMD should be tailored based on the severity of symptoms, ranging from education for asymptomatic cases to more aggressive interventions for severe cases.

EBMD is a recurrent condition that can be managed but not completely cured. It is important for patients to understand the nature of the condition and the implications for long-term management.

Meesman's juvenile epithelial dystrophy is characterized by intraepithelial cysts or vesicles in the corneal epithelium.

Meesman's are best visualized using indirect retroillumination due to the specific characteristics of this corneal dystrophy. Direct transillumination, slit-lamp microscopy, and fluorescein angiography are not effective methods for visualizing Meesman's.

In cornea plana, the limbal landmark is obscured and the anterior chamber is shallow. The incorrect answers provided misstate the characteristics of these features in cornea plana.

Microcornea is a condition characterized by a smaller than normal cornea size. This can lead to the risk of developing glaucoma due to anterior chamber (AC) crowding. The high refractive error associated with microcornea is hyperopia, which means difficulty seeing objects up close more clearly than distant objects.

The correct age for a child to reach adult cornea size is around 3 - 4 years old. Microcornea is diagnosed when a baby's cornea measures less than 9mm, indicating abnormal smallness.

Megalocornea is an x-linked recessive trait, which means that males are more affected because they only have one X chromosome. Females would need to inherit two copies of the recessive gene to show the trait. Therefore, males are more commonly affected by megalocornea.

Megalocornea is often associated with congenital glaucoma which leads to high myopia and astigmatism.

The correct answer is Corneal plana, which is a rare congenital anomaly where the cornea is abnormally flat.

Microcornea is a condition characterized by abnormally small corneas, which can cause vision problems. Macrocornea, Nanocornea, and Megacone are not valid dysgenisis terms and are not associated with abnormal cornea size.