BCIA Biofeedback Certification: Treatment Planning and Clinical Applications

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| Questions: 19 | Updated: Aug 4, 2025
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1. The Peniston and Kulkosky protocol for treating addiction incorporates _____ alpha-theta neurofeedback sessions of _____ minutes duration across 28 days.

Explanation

The Peniston and Kulkosky protocol specifically involves 30 alpha-theta neurofeedback sessions lasting 30 minutes each over a period of 28 days. This combination of frequency, duration, and timeframe has been shown to be effective in the treatment of addiction.

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About This Quiz
Bcia Biofeedback Certification: Treatment Planning and Clinical Applications - Quiz

Prepare for BCIA certification with focused review on treatment planning. This preparation material sharpens skills in clinical application of biofeedback, enhancing professional competence in healthcare settings.

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2. Which conclusion best summarizes clinical outcome studies concerning treatment of generalized seizures?

Explanation

While antiepileptic medications are commonly used to treat various types of seizures, SMR neurofeedback specifically stands out as the treatment of choice for grand mal epilepsy based on clinical outcome studies. Surgery is typically considered as a last resort for generalized seizures, and behavioral therapy may be utilized as a supplementary treatment but not as the primary one according to current research findings.

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3. Alcoholics show low levels of frontal alpha before consuming alcohol. These levels increase after a challenge dose of alcohol.

Explanation

Alcoholics typically exhibit low levels of frontal alpha activity before consuming alcohol which then increases after a challenge dose. This pattern is associated with increased impulsivity and cognitive deficits in alcoholics.

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4. EEG biofeedback would be inappropriate for treating which condition?

Explanation

While EEG biofeedback has shown to be effective in treating conditions like ADHD, depression, and anxiety disorders, there is no evidence to support its efficacy in treating Tourette's syndrome.

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5. Sterman's SMR training protocol for treating grand mal epilepsy involves placing two active electrodes over which cortex?

Explanation

Sterman's SMR training protocol focuses on the left sensorimotor cortex as the optimal placement for treating grand mal epilepsy, making the other options incorrect.

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6. Sterman's protocol for treating grand mal epilepsy trains patients to suppress EEG activity in which band?

Explanation

Sterman's protocol targets the 4-7 Hz bandpass for suppressing EEG activity in patients with grand mal epilepsy. This range is important for helping reduce epileptic seizures.

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7. A 4-year-old child suddenly freezes and stares blankly for 15 seconds. This best describes a ______ seizure.

Explanation

Various types of seizures manifest differently in individuals based on the symptoms displayed. Understanding the specific characteristics associated with different types of seizures helps in accurate identification and appropriate treatment.

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8. The Menninger protocol for reducing intractable pain teaches patients to increase EEG activity in the _____ band.

Explanation

The Menninger protocol specifically targets increasing EEG activity in the theta band to reduce intractable pain.

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9. The Menninger alpha-theta protocol incorporates an ______ training paradigm where ON means increasing and OFF means suppressing a frequency band.

Explanation

The Menninger alpha-theta protocol emphasizes alternating between increasing and suppressing a frequency band, hence the correct answer is ON-OFF-ON.

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10. Training sessions using the Menninger alpha-theta protocol typically last how many minutes?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 minutes because that is the standard duration for training sessions using the Menninger alpha-theta protocol.

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11. Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) reported successful treatment of patients who suffer from chronic anxiety using a _______ protocol.

Explanation

The correct protocol reported by Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) for treating chronic anxiety patients involved theta-inhibition and beta-enhancement, not alpha-inhibition/delta-enhancement, gamma-inhibition/theta-enhancement, or delta-inhibition/alpha-enhancement.

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12. Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) reported that the predominance of _______ activity in the _______ might impair flexible response to new stimuli.

Explanation

The correct answer refers to slow-wave activity in the frontal and prefrontal cortex impairing flexible response, while the incorrect answers point to different activities in various brain regions.

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13. Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) suggested that patients diagnosed with chronic anxiety and exhibit high amplitude slow-wave activity should be trained to _______ amplitude.

Explanation

The correct approach suggested by Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) is to decrease alpha and theta amplitude in patients diagnosed with chronic anxiety.

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14. According to Sattlberger and Thomas (2000), patients diagnosed with chronic anxiety and exhibit low amplitude alpha activity should be trained to _______ amplitude.

Explanation

Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) recommended that patients with chronic anxiety and low alpha activity should undergo training to increase alpha amplitude in order to alleviate symptoms.

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15. Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) select candidates for treatment of anxiety with slow-wave suppression EEG biofeedback based on whether _______

Explanation

Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) base their selection on specific EEG patterns rather than general characteristics such as age or history of anxiety disorder. The correct criteria for selection are related to the EEG readings in the frontal and prefrontal region.

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16. Brownback (2001) proposes that for high performance functioning __________.

Explanation

In Brownback's study, it is suggested that slow-wave bands should have higher amplitudes than fast-wave bands for high performance functioning.

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17. Brownback (2001) recommends reducing activity in the 2.5-6.5 Hz band to _________?

Explanation

Reducing activity in the 2.5-6.5 Hz band, as recommended by Brownback (2001), helps to increase alertness by reducing feelings of sleepiness and fogginess.

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18. Brownback (2001) recommends increasing activity in the 11.5-13 Hz band to?

Explanation

Increasing activity in the 11.5-13 Hz band, according to Brownback (2001), is recommended to enhance mild-focused awareness, not to decrease stress levels, improve memory retention, or enhance physical strength.

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19. All of Brownback's (2001) peak performance protocols incorporate _______?

Explanation

Brownback's peak performance protocols focus on training with eyes open to utilize visual feedback, which is crucial for achieving optimal performance.

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The Peniston and Kulkosky protocol for treating addiction incorporates...
Which conclusion best summarizes clinical outcome studies concerning...
Alcoholics show low levels of frontal alpha before consuming alcohol....
EEG biofeedback would be inappropriate for treating which condition?
Sterman's SMR training protocol for treating grand mal epilepsy...
Sterman's protocol for treating grand mal epilepsy trains patients to...
A 4-year-old child suddenly freezes and stares blankly for 15 seconds....
The Menninger protocol for reducing intractable pain teaches patients...
The Menninger alpha-theta protocol incorporates an ______ training...
Training sessions using the Menninger alpha-theta protocol typically...
Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) reported successful treatment of...
Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) reported that the predominance of...
Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) suggested that patients diagnosed with...
According to Sattlberger and Thomas (2000), patients diagnosed with...
Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) select candidates for treatment of...
Brownback (2001) proposes that for high performance functioning...
Brownback (2001) recommends reducing activity in the 2.5-6.5 Hz band...
Brownback (2001) recommends increasing activity in the 11.5-13 Hz band...
All of Brownback's (2001) peak performance protocols incorporate...
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