CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Exam Practice Test

1. A company wants a disaster recovery site that is the most cost-effective option, understanding that it will take the longest time to become operational since it has no pre-installed equipment or data, requiring everything to be set up from scratch during an actual disaster. Which DR site type does this describe?

A hot site, fully equipped and ready to take over almost immediately

A cold site, providing only basic infrastructure like power and space, requiring equipment setup during an actual disaster

A warm site, partially equipped and ready

An active-active configuration

A cold site is the most cost-effective DR option but takes the longest to become operational, since it typically provides only basic infrastructure requiring equipment setup during an actual disaster.

Explanation

A cold site is the most cost-effective DR option but takes the longest to become operational, since it typically provides only basic infrastructure requiring equipment setup during an actual disaster.

2. Match each device command to its correct output.

show mac-address-table

show route

show power

show vlan

"show mac-address-table" maps MACs to ports, "show route" displays the routing table, "show power" shows PoE budget usage, and "show vlan" displays VLAN configuration.

Explanation

"show mac-address-table" maps MACs to ports, "show route" displays the routing table, "show power" shows PoE budget usage, and "show vlan" displays VLAN configuration.

Submit

3. A Linux server administrator wants to capture and inspect network packets directly from the command line, without a graphical interface, to diagnose a connectivity issue on the server itself. Which tool should be used?

Tcpdump

Arp

Ipconfig

Show vlan

tcpdump is a command-line packet capture tool commonly used on Linux systems. arp shows local address mappings, ipconfig displays IP configuration, and "show vlan" is a network device command.

Explanation

tcpdump is a command-line packet capture tool commonly used on Linux systems. arp shows local address mappings, ipconfig displays IP configuration, and "show vlan" is a network device command.

4. A user walking through a building with multiple access points sharing the same SSID experiences dropped connections and delays when moving from the coverage area of one access point to another, rather than a smooth, seamless handoff. What is the most likely cause?

Insufficient wireless coverage in general

A roaming misconfiguration, such as inconsistent settings between access points affecting handoff behavior

A wired cabling issue

A DNS resolution failure

Dropped connections specifically when moving between access points points to a roaming misconfiguration, such as inconsistent settings disrupting smooth client handoff.

Explanation

Dropped connections specifically when moving between access points points to a roaming misconfiguration, such as inconsistent settings disrupting smooth client handoff.

5. New devices joining a large office network are failing to receive an IP address, showing an APIPA address instead, while existing devices already connected continue to work fine. The DHCP server itself is confirmed to be running normally. What is the most likely cause?

A duplicate IP address conflict affecting only new devices

Address pool exhaustion, since the DHCP scope has run out of available addresses to assign to new devices

An incorrect default gateway on the DHCP server

A failed NTP server

New devices failing to get an address while existing devices keep theirs, combined with a functioning DHCP server, points to address pool exhaustion.

Explanation

New devices failing to get an address while existing devices keep theirs, combined with a functioning DHCP server, points to address pool exhaustion.

6. A switch port that was previously working now shows a status of "err-disabled" in the switch's interface output, and traffic through that port has stopped entirely. What does this port status typically indicate?

The port was manually and intentionally shut down by an administrator

The port is functioning normally and this status is expected

The port is waiting for a DHCP address

An err-disabled status indicates the switch automatically disabled the port in response to a detected violation, distinct from a port an administrator manually shut down (which shows as administratively down).

Explanation

An err-disabled status indicates the switch automatically disabled the port in response to a detected violation, distinct from a port an administrator manually shut down (which shows as administratively down).

7. A network cable run experiences signal interference specifically originating from adjacent wire pairs within the same cable bundle, rather than from external sources outside the cable. What is this specific type of interference called?

Attenuation

Crosstalk

Improper termination

A transceiver mismatch

Crosstalk refers specifically to interference between adjacent wire pairs within the same cable, distinct from attenuation (signal weakening over distance) or improper termination.

Explanation

Crosstalk refers specifically to interference between adjacent wire pairs within the same cable, distinct from attenuation (signal weakening over distance) or improper termination.

8. After resolving a network outage, a technician writes up what caused the issue, the steps taken to fix it, and a recommendation to prevent it from happening again, then shares this with the team. Which step of the troubleshooting methodology does this represent?

Establishing a theory of probable cause

Documenting findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned

Testing the theory to determine the cause

Identifying the problem

Documenting findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned is the final step of the troubleshooting methodology.

Explanation

Documenting findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned is the final step of the troubleshooting methodology.

9. An organization using encryption across many systems needs a formal process for generating, distributing, storing, rotating, and eventually retiring cryptographic keys securely throughout their lifecycle. What security practice does this describe?

Content filtering

Key management

URL filtering

An access control list (ACL)

Key management encompasses the entire lifecycle of cryptographic keys, including generation, distribution, secure storage, rotation, and retirement.

Explanation

Key management encompasses the entire lifecycle of cryptographic keys, including generation, distribution, secure storage, rotation, and retirement.

10. Which two of the following are components involved in an 802.1X port-based network access control deployment?

The supplicant (the client device requesting access)

The authentication server (such as RADIUS), which verifies credentials

A screened subnet

A honeypot

A content delivery network

802.1X involves a supplicant requesting access and an authentication server such as RADIUS verifying credentials, along with an authenticator enforcing access. A screened subnet, honeypot, and CDN are unrelated concepts.

Explanation

802.1X involves a supplicant requesting access and an authentication server such as RADIUS verifying credentials, along with an authenticator enforcing access. A screened subnet, honeypot, and CDN are unrelated concepts.

Submit

11. Several devices on a network suddenly begin receiving IP addresses from an unexpected subnet, along with an incorrect default gateway pointing to an unfamiliar device, despite the legitimate DHCP server being unchanged. What is the most likely cause?

A legitimate DHCP server configuration change that was properly documented

A rogue DHCP server, possibly deployed maliciously, responding to client requests before the legitimate server does

A properly functioning DHCP relay

An expected result of enabling DHCP snooping

A rogue DHCP server can respond to client requests before the legitimate server does, handing out incorrect addressing information. DHCP snooping is actually a defense against this, not a cause.

Explanation

A rogue DHCP server can respond to client requests before the legitimate server does, handing out incorrect addressing information. DHCP snooping is actually a defense against this, not a cause.

12. A retail company processes and stores customer credit card information and must comply with a specific industry security standard governing how that data is protected. Which standard applies?

GDPR, since it applies specifically to payment card data

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards), which specifically governs the protection of payment card data

TACACS+, since it is a compliance framework

RADIUS, since it is a compliance framework

PCI DSS specifically governs how organizations must protect payment card data. GDPR addresses personal data protection more broadly under EU regulation, and TACACS+/RADIUS are authentication protocols.

Explanation

PCI DSS specifically governs how organizations must protect payment card data. GDPR addresses personal data protection more broadly under EU regulation, and TACACS+/RADIUS are authentication protocols.

13. A technician needs to configure a brand-new switch that has no network connectivity or IP address configured yet. Which connection method should be used to access the device for initial configuration?

SSH, since it works without any network configuration

A direct console connection, typically via a serial or USB-to-serial cable

A GUI accessed over the network

An API call over the network

A direct console connection allows access for initial configuration even before any network connectivity has been set up, unlike SSH, a GUI, or an API which all require existing network connectivity.

Explanation

A direct console connection allows access for initial configuration even before any network connectivity has been set up, unlike SSH, a GUI, or an API which all require existing network connectivity.

14. Match each DNS concept to its correct description.

Primary

Secondary

Authoritative

Recursive

A primary server holds the editable zone copy, a secondary receives a read-only copy via zone transfer, an authoritative server has direct authority over a zone, and a recursive query has the server handle all follow-up lookups.

Explanation

A primary server holds the editable zone copy, a secondary receives a read-only copy via zone transfer, an authoritative server has direct authority over a zone, and a recursive query has the server handle all follow-up lookups.

Submit

15. A client sends a single DNS query to its configured DNS server and expects that server to handle all the necessary follow-up queries to other DNS servers on the client's behalf, ultimately returning a complete answer. What type of query is this?

An iterative query, since the client performs the follow-up lookups itself

A recursive query, since the DNS server handles all necessary follow-up queries on the client's behalf

A zone transfer

A reverse lookup only

A recursive query places the burden on the DNS server to handle all necessary follow-up queries on the client's behalf, returning a complete answer.

Explanation

A recursive query places the burden on the DNS server to handle all necessary follow-up queries on the client's behalf, returning a complete answer.

16. A server hosting both a web application and an email service on the same IP address needs a way to direct incoming traffic to the correct application. Which OSI layer and addressing element accomplishes this?

Layer 2, using MAC addresses

Layer 4, using port numbers to direct traffic to the correct application

Layer 1, using physical signaling

Layer 7, using only application names

Layer 4 uses port numbers to direct incoming traffic on a shared IP address to the correct application, such as separating web and email traffic.

Explanation

Layer 4 uses port numbers to direct incoming traffic on a shared IP address to the correct application, such as separating web and email traffic.

17. A monitoring system is configured to automatically notify administrators when network traffic patterns deviate significantly from historical norms, potentially indicating a problem or security incident. What monitoring concept enables this?

Static thresholds only, with no historical comparison

Baseline metrics with anomaly alerting, comparing current activity against established historical norms

A single SNMP trap with no ongoing comparison

Manual log review only

Baseline metrics establish a historical norm, and anomaly alerting notifies administrators when current activity deviates significantly from that baseline.

Explanation

Baseline metrics establish a historical norm, and anomaly alerting notifies administrators when current activity deviates significantly from that baseline.

18. A company signs a contract with its internet service provider guaranteeing a minimum of 99.9% uptime and specifying penalties if that threshold is not met. What type of document is this?

An acceptable use policy (AUP)

A service-level agreement (SLA)

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA)

A memorandum of understanding (MOU)

An SLA defines specific, measurable service commitments, such as guaranteed uptime, along with penalties for failing to meet them.

Explanation

An SLA defines specific, measurable service commitments, such as guaranteed uptime, along with penalties for failing to meet them.

19. Fill in the blank: rack-mountable equipment height is measured in rack ____.

Rack-mountable equipment height is measured in rack units (U), a standardized unit describing both equipment height and available vertical rack space.

Explanation

Rack-mountable equipment height is measured in rack units (U), a standardized unit describing both equipment height and available vertical rack space.

Submit

20. Two laptops need to connect directly to each other wirelessly to transfer files, without going through any access point or existing infrastructure. Which wireless network type describes this direct connection?

Infrastructure mode

Ad hoc mode, connecting devices directly without an access point

Mesh mode

Point-to-point mode using licensed spectrum only

Ad hoc mode allows devices to connect directly to each other without going through an access point or any existing infrastructure.

Explanation

Ad hoc mode allows devices to connect directly to each other without going through an access point or any existing infrastructure.

21. An office wants VoIP phones to be automatically placed on a separate VLAN from regular data traffic, without requiring a separate physical switch port for the phone and the computer connected behind it. Which feature should be configured?

A voice VLAN, allowing the switch port to logically separate phone and data traffic

Native VLAN only

Jumbo frames

Spanning tree

A voice VLAN allows a single switch port to logically separate VoIP phone traffic from regular data traffic passing through a computer connected behind the phone.

Explanation

A voice VLAN allows a single switch port to logically separate VoIP phone traffic from regular data traffic passing through a computer connected behind the phone.

22. A switch port is manually configured for 100 Mbps full duplex, but the connected device is configured for 100 Mbps half duplex. Which two symptoms would this duplex mismatch most likely cause?

Increased collisions on the half-duplex side

Increased CRC/frame check sequence errors

The link will completely refuse to establish at the physical layer

Automatic correction by both devices within seconds

No effect on performance at all

A duplex mismatch typically causes increased collisions and CRC errors, since one side expects to send and receive simultaneously while the other does not. Manual settings on both sides prevent auto-negotiation from correcting it.

Explanation

A duplex mismatch typically causes increased collisions and CRC errors, since one side expects to send and receive simultaneously while the other does not. Manual settings on both sides prevent auto-negotiation from correcting it.

Submit

23. A single physical router interface needs to route traffic for multiple VLANs, with each VLAN's traffic logically separated on that one physical link. What should be configured on the router?

Multiple physical interfaces, one per VLAN, since a single interface cannot handle multiple VLANs

Subinterfaces, each associated with a specific VLAN, on the single physical interface

A single interface with no VLAN awareness at all

A DHCP relay only, with no interface configuration needed

Subinterfaces allow a single physical router interface to be logically divided, each associated with a specific VLAN, commonly used in a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Explanation

Subinterfaces allow a single physical router interface to be logically divided, each associated with a specific VLAN, commonly used in a router-on-a-stick configuration.

24. A router has learned two different routes to the same destination network, both via OSPF. Which factor determines which of the two OSPF routes is preferred?

Administrative distance, since it always differs between routes from the same protocol

Metric (such as OSPF cost), since administrative distance is identical between two routes learned via the same protocol

The order in which the routes were learned, regardless of any other factor

The route with the longer prefix length is always ignored

When two routes come from the same protocol, their administrative distance is identical, so the router uses the protocol's metric to determine the preferred route.

Explanation

When two routes come from the same protocol, their administrative distance is identical, so the router uses the protocol's metric to determine the preferred route.

25. A network team manages device configurations as code stored in a central version-controlled repository, allowing them to track every change, identify who made it, and roll back to a previous known-good state if needed. What infrastructure as code (IaC) concept does this describe?

Dynamic inventories

Source control, using a central repository and version control to track configuration changes

Zero-touch provisioning

Configuration drift, since drift is desirable in this scenario

Source control, using a central repository with version control, allows teams to track every configuration change and roll back if needed, a core IaC practice.

Explanation

Source control, using a central repository with version control, allows teams to track every configuration change and roll back if needed, a core IaC practice.

26. A technician wants to test whether a computer's own TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly, without sending any traffic onto the actual physical network. Which address should be used for this test?

192.168.1.1

127.0.0.1 (loopback/localhost)

169.254.1.1

10.0.0.1

The 127.0.0.0/8 range, commonly represented by 127.0.0.1, is the loopback address used to test a device's own TCP/IP stack without sending traffic onto the physical network.

Explanation

The 127.0.0.0/8 range, commonly represented by 127.0.0.1, is the loopback address used to test a device's own TCP/IP stack without sending traffic onto the physical network.

27. A network engineer is analyzing traffic patterns in a data center and notices significant traffic flowing between servers within the same data center, as opposed to traffic flowing between the data center and external clients. What is this internal server-to-server traffic pattern called?

North-south traffic

East-west traffic

Point-to-point traffic only

Collapsed core traffic

East-west traffic refers to data flowing between servers within the same data center, as opposed to north-south traffic, which flows between the data center and external clients.

Explanation

East-west traffic refers to data flowing between servers within the same data center, as opposed to north-south traffic, which flows between the data center and external clients.

28. A technician is running network cabling through the space above a drop ceiling that is also used for HVAC air return, a space subject to strict fire code requirements. Which cable rating is required?

Non-plenum cable, since it is more cost-effective

Plenum-rated cable, which produces less smoke and toxic fumes when burned

Direct attach copper (DAC) cable

Coaxial cable

Plenum-rated cable uses a jacket material producing less smoke and toxic fumes when burned, required by fire code for air handling spaces.

Explanation

Plenum-rated cable uses a jacket material producing less smoke and toxic fumes when burned, required by fire code for air handling spaces.

29. A web server administrator needs to open the correct firewall port to allow encrypted web traffic while keeping the equivalent unencrypted port closed. Which port should remain open?

80

8080

443

8443

Port 443 is the standard port for HTTPS. Port 80 is unencrypted HTTP, and while 8080/8443 are sometimes alternate ports, they aren't the standard default referenced here.

Explanation

Port 443 is the standard port for HTTPS. Port 80 is unencrypted HTTP, and while 8080/8443 are sometimes alternate ports, they aren't the standard default referenced here.

30. A company's virtual private cloud (VPC) needs a component that allows private cloud resources to initiate outbound internet connections for updates, without exposing those resources to unsolicited inbound internet traffic. Which cloud gateway component fits this need?

An internet gateway, which allows direct bidirectional internet access

A NAT gateway, which allows outbound-only internet access for private resources

A VPN gateway

A load balancer

A NAT gateway allows resources in a private subnet to initiate outbound connections while blocking unsolicited inbound connections. An internet gateway provides more direct bidirectional access, a VPN gateway connects private networks, and a load balancer distributes traffic.

Explanation

A NAT gateway allows resources in a private subnet to initiate outbound connections while blocking unsolicited inbound connections. An internet gateway provides more direct bidirectional access, a VPN gateway connects private networks, and a load balancer distributes traffic.

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Exam Practice Test 4

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Match each device command to its correct output.

3. A Linux server administrator wants to capture and inspect network packets directly from the command line, without a graphical interface, to diagnose a connectivity issue on the server itself. Which tool should be used?

4. A user walking through a building with multiple access points sharing the same SSID experiences dropped connections and delays when moving from the coverage area of one access point to another, rather than a smooth, seamless handoff. What is the most likely cause?

5. New devices joining a large office network are failing to receive an IP address, showing an APIPA address instead, while existing devices already connected continue to work fine. The DHCP server itself is confirmed to be running normally. What is the most likely cause?

6. A switch port that was previously working now shows a status of "err-disabled" in the switch's interface output, and traffic through that port has stopped entirely. What does this port status typically indicate?

7. A network cable run experiences signal interference specifically originating from adjacent wire pairs within the same cable bundle, rather than from external sources outside the cable. What is this specific type of interference called?

8. After resolving a network outage, a technician writes up what caused the issue, the steps taken to fix it, and a recommendation to prevent it from happening again, then shares this with the team. Which step of the troubleshooting methodology does this represent?

9. An organization using encryption across many systems needs a formal process for generating, distributing, storing, rotating, and eventually retiring cryptographic keys securely throughout their lifecycle. What security practice does this describe?

10. Which two of the following are components involved in an 802.1X port-based network access control deployment?

11. Several devices on a network suddenly begin receiving IP addresses from an unexpected subnet, along with an incorrect default gateway pointing to an unfamiliar device, despite the legitimate DHCP server being unchanged. What is the most likely cause?

12. A retail company processes and stores customer credit card information and must comply with a specific industry security standard governing how that data is protected. Which standard applies?

13. A technician needs to configure a brand-new switch that has no network connectivity or IP address configured yet. Which connection method should be used to access the device for initial configuration?

14. Match each DNS concept to its correct description.

15. A client sends a single DNS query to its configured DNS server and expects that server to handle all the necessary follow-up queries to other DNS servers on the client's behalf, ultimately returning a complete answer. What type of query is this?

16. A server hosting both a web application and an email service on the same IP address needs a way to direct incoming traffic to the correct application. Which OSI layer and addressing element accomplishes this?

17. A monitoring system is configured to automatically notify administrators when network traffic patterns deviate significantly from historical norms, potentially indicating a problem or security incident. What monitoring concept enables this?

18. A company signs a contract with its internet service provider guaranteeing a minimum of 99.9% uptime and specifying penalties if that threshold is not met. What type of document is this?

19. Fill in the blank: rack-mountable equipment height is measured in rack ____.

20. Two laptops need to connect directly to each other wirelessly to transfer files, without going through any access point or existing infrastructure. Which wireless network type describes this direct connection?

21. An office wants VoIP phones to be automatically placed on a separate VLAN from regular data traffic, without requiring a separate physical switch port for the phone and the computer connected behind it. Which feature should be configured?

22. A switch port is manually configured for 100 Mbps full duplex, but the connected device is configured for 100 Mbps half duplex. Which two symptoms would this duplex mismatch most likely cause?

23. A single physical router interface needs to route traffic for multiple VLANs, with each VLAN's traffic logically separated on that one physical link. What should be configured on the router?

24. A router has learned two different routes to the same destination network, both via OSPF. Which factor determines which of the two OSPF routes is preferred?

25. A network team manages device configurations as code stored in a central version-controlled repository, allowing them to track every change, identify who made it, and roll back to a previous known-good state if needed. What infrastructure as code (IaC) concept does this describe?

26. A technician wants to test whether a computer's own TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly, without sending any traffic onto the actual physical network. Which address should be used for this test?

27. A network engineer is analyzing traffic patterns in a data center and notices significant traffic flowing between servers within the same data center, as opposed to traffic flowing between the data center and external clients. What is this internal server-to-server traffic pattern called?

28. A technician is running network cabling through the space above a drop ceiling that is also used for HVAC air return, a space subject to strict fire code requirements. Which cable rating is required?

29. A web server administrator needs to open the correct firewall port to allow encrypted web traffic while keeping the equivalent unencrypted port closed. Which port should remain open?

30. A company's virtual private cloud (VPC) needs a component that allows private cloud resources to initiate outbound internet connections for updates, without exposing those resources to unsolicited inbound internet traffic. Which cloud gateway component fits this need?