Windows 7 Enterprise Help Desk 4 Part.2

170 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Windows 7 Enterprise Help Desk 4 Part.2

Enterprise is a version of Windows 7 that is only available to businesses through volume licensing. It consists of all the features of Windows 7 Professional, as well as more features to enhance security and network.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When files and folders are created on an NTFS volume, a security descriptor known as and is created, what is this object?
    • A. 

      ACL

    • B. 

      ACE

    • C. 

      NTFS permission

    • D. 

      UAC

  • 2. 
    NTFS permissions allow you to control which __________ and ________ can gain access to files and folders on an NTFS volume.
  • 3. 
    Groups or users granted Full Control permission on a folder can delete any files in that folder regardless of the permissions protecting the file.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    What are two types of permissions used in NTFS?
    • A. 

      Explicit permission:

    • B. 

      Users permission:

    • C. 

      Inherited permission:

    • D. 

      Domain permission:

  • 5. 
    When you copy a folder or file, the new folder or file will automatically acquire the permissions of the drive or folder that the folder or file is being copied to.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    When you move a folder or file within the same volume, the folder or file will retain the same permissions that were originally assigned to it.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    When you move a folder or file from one volume to another volume, the folder or file will automatically acquire the permissions of the drive or folder that the folder or file is being copied to.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    The owner of the object controls how permissions are set on the object and to whom permissions are granted.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 9. 
    All administrators automatically have the Take Ownership permission of all NTFS objects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    In Windows 7, there are four types of file sharing: what are they?
    • A. 

      Homegroup

    • B. 

      Public

    • C. 

      Standard

    • D. 

      Advanced

    • E. 

      User

    • F. 

      Domain

  • 11. 
    System Protection is a feature that regularly creates and saves information about your computer’s system files and settings.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 12. 
    System Protection uses restore points, which are created just before significant system events, such as the installation of a program or device driver.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    What other feature is included with System Protection?
    • A. 

      System Restore

    • B. 

      System Backup

    • C. 

      System Config

    • D. 

      System Date Stamp

  • 14. 
    What does System Restore create when it is used on a regular basis?
    • A. 

      Restore Point

    • B. 

      Restore Mark

    • C. 

      Disk Restore

    • D. 

      Disk Marker

  • 15. 
    As mentioned earlier, security can be divided into three areas. Authentication is used to prove the identify of a user. Authorization gives access to the user that was authenticated. To complete the security picture, you need to enable ___________ so that you can have a record of the users who have logged in and what the user accessed or tried to access. 
  • 16. 
    Auditing is not enabled by default.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    Inherited permissions are permissions that are granted to a folder (parent object or container) that flow into that folder’s child objects (subfolders or files inside the parent folder).
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 18. 
    What type of printer when one of the basic network services is network printing, where multiple users can share the same printer?
    • A. 

      Shared Printer

    • B. 

      Shared Object

    • C. 

      Shared User

    • D. 

      Shared Resource

  • 19. 
    When a printer is requested, where does the print job sent to, for completion?
    • A. 

      Spooler

    • B. 

      Memory

    • C. 

      HDD

    • D. 

      CPU

  • 20. 
    What file format used by the Windows operating system, when a document has been set to the spooler for printing?.
    • A. 

      EMF - Enhanced Metafile

    • B. 

      IMF - Inbound Metafile

    • C. 

      FMF - Forward Metafile

    • D. 

      PMF - Print Metafile

  • 21. 
    If you have a high volume of print jobs, the printer can become congested, and users will have to wait for their documents to print.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    You can create a group of printers called a printer pool to act as a single virtual printer with a single print queue.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    What are the two objects needed to create a printer pool?
    • A. 

      Same model of printer

    • B. 

      2 different printing models

    • C. 

      Same printer drivers

    • D. 

      Different printer drivers

  • 24. 
    Windows 7 provides three levels of printer permissions: they are?
    • A. 

      Print

    • B. 

      Driver Manager

    • C. 

      Manage Printers

    • D. 

      Manage Documents

  • 25. 
    One advantage of using logical printers that point to a physical printer/printer device is that you can use multiple logical printers that point to a single physical printer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    A printer does not stop processing a job it is already working on, even when the spooler receives a higher priority job, directed to a higher priority printer on the same port. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    Since printers are considered objects, auditing of printers is similar to auditing file and folder access.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 28. 
    To look at spooler and printer activity, look at the logs shown in the Event Viewer that pertain to the printer and spooler activity.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    A software program is a sequence of instructions written to perform a specified task for a computer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    What are the two file extensions that can be used fpr running a program on a Windows desktop computer?
    • A. 

      Msi

    • B. 

      Ini

    • C. 

      Bat

    • D. 

      Exe

  • 31. 
    For Windows 7, you can use the Control Panel’s Programs and Features to uninstall programs or to change a program’s configuration by adding or removing certain options. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 32. 
    If the program you want to uninstall isn’t listed, it might not have been or registered with Windows.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    There are some Windows XP applications that will not run on Windows 7 or require some extra configuration to make the application work.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
     If a program written for an earlier version of Windows doesn’t run correctly, you can try changing which feature try and make it work?
    • A. 

      compatibility settings

    • B. 

      Software settings

    • C. 

      UAC

    • D. 

      Move file association forward

  • 35. 
    The Program Compatibility Troubleshooter is essentially a wizard that simplifies the process of selecting compatibility mode settings for an executable file. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 36. 
    Which feature gives the user an easy method to use and get an older application to work on a computer running Windows 7; by configuring various compatibility mechanisms that are part of Windows 7. 
    • A. 

      Program Compatibility Troubleshooter

    • B. 

      Program Software Introduction

    • C. 

      Program Software Troubleshooter

    • D. 

      Software Compatibility Tester

  • 37. 
    As with many Windows computers, you can use group policies to configure compatibility mode settings including suppressing application compatibility warnings. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    To assist in resolving compatibility issues, Microsoft has introduced a new feature in its OS, it is aimed at the corporate environment and is to be used to determine before software deployment whether the software is compatible with Windows 7, it can also be used by individuals.What is it called? 
    • A. 

      Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT).

    • B. 

      Application Software Toolkit (AST).

    • C. 

      Software Compatibility Toolkit (SCT).

    • D. 

      Application Compatibility Monitor (ACM).

  • 39. 
    What is a tool that enables you to configure, to collect, and to analyze your data, so that you can fix any issues prior to deploying a new operating system in your organization? 
    • A. 

      Application Compatibility Manager (ACM)

    • B. 

      Application Manager (AM)

    • C. 

      Compatibility Manager (CM)

    • D. 

      Application Software Manager (ASM)

  • 40. 
    What  is a software shim?
    • A. 

      A compatibility fix that consists of a small library that transparently intercepts certain application calls and changes the parameters are passed

    • B. 

      An update for software

    • C. 

      An upgrade for software

    • D. 

      A hardware device to leviatate the software

  • 41. 
    To use the Internet Explorer Compatibility Test Tool, you simply run the program, click enable, and use Internet Explorer to access the sites you want to test.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 42. 
    The Setup Analysis Tool (SAT) automates the running of application installations while monitoring the actions taken by each application’s installer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 43. 
    The Standard User Analyzer (SUA) tool enables you to test your applications and monitor API calls to detect potential compatibility issues due to the User Account Control (UAC) feature in both Windows Vista and Windows 7.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    If you have an application that you cannot get to run on Windows 7 using the Compatibility settings or ACT, what mode can you use to create a virtual machine? 
    • A. 

      Windows XP Mode

    • B. 

      Windows 7 Mode

    • C. 

      Windows VIsta mode

    • D. 

      Windows Recovery

  • 45. 
    What can you run for programs that were designed for Windows XP on computers running Windows 7 Professional, Enterprise, or Ultimate editions?
    • A. 

      Windows XP mode

    • B. 

      Windows Vista

    • C. 

      Windows 7 Starter

    • D. 

      Windows Recovery

  • 46. 
    To use Windows XP Mode, you need to download and install Windows XP Mode, which is a fully licensed version of Windows XP with Service Pack 3.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    To run Windows XP Mode, you need a computer that is capable of hardware virtualization (Intel-VT or AMD-V virtualization) and BIOS that supports hardware virtualization.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    Virtualization must also be enabled in the BIOS Setup program for running Windows XP mode.What is also recommended for you to run Widows XP mode for memory and hard disk space requirements per virtual Windows environment? 
    • A. 

      2 GB RAM

    • B. 

      1 GB RAM

    • C. 

      15 GB HDD space

    • D. 

      20 GB HDD space

  • 49. 
    Software restriction policies, which have been included in Windows since Windows XP and Windows Server 2003, are rules that specify which applications users can run.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    To create rules, you must open which software feature in Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Software Restriction Policies?
    • A. 

      GPO

    • B. 

      UAC

    • C. 

      GPM

    • D. 

      IKEv4

  • 51. 
    If you have multiple rules that apply to a single application, you may have a conflict. Therefore, the more specific rule takes precedence over the less specific. what is the top 3 levels of precedance in order? 
    • A. 

      HASH, Certificate and Path

    • B. 

      Certificate. Path, and Hash

    • C. 

      Path, Hash, and Certificate

    • D. 

      Hash, Zone, and Path

  • 52. 
    AppLocker helps reduce administrative overhead and the organization’s cost of managing computing resources by decreasing the number of help desk calls that result from users running unapproved applications.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    The primary disadvantage of AppLocker is that you can only apply the policies to computers running Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008 R2. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    By default, AppLocker blocks all executables, installer packages, and scripts, except for those specified in Allow rules.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 55. 
    Performance is the overall effectiveness of how data moves through the system.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 56. 
    If your computer lacks the RAM needed to run a program or perform an operation, Windows uses virtual memory to compensate.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 57. 
     When RAM runs low, virtual memory moves data from RAM to space called a paging file.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 58. 
    The more RAM you have, the less frequently virtual memory will have to be utilized.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 59. 
    The default paging file size is equal to how much ram you already have installed?
    • A. 

      1.5x

    • B. 

      2.0x

    • C. 

      2.5x

    • D. 

      3.0x

  • 60. 
    Task Manager gives you a quick glance at performance and provides information about programs and processes running on your computer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    What is one of the handiest programs you can use to view performance to see which programs are using the most resources on your computer?
    • A. 

      Task Manager

    • B. 

      Soft Manager

    • C. 

      MMC

    • D. 

      UAC

  • 62. 
    What Windows Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in, that provides tools for analyzing system and it is included in the Computer Management console?
    • A. 

      Performance Monitor

    • B. 

      Performance Manager

    • C. 

      Event Viewer

    • D. 

      UAC

  • 63. 
    Power management is the process of balancing battery life against performance.Windows 7 includes extensive power management capabilities, including support for the Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) and the ability to configure these power settings for mobile computers.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Which Power Saving Plan is the best for  most users on a Laptop or Mobile device?
    • A. 

      Balanced

    • B. 

      Power Saver

    • C. 

      Uninterupted

    • D. 

      Universal

  • 65. 
    Which power saving plan uses the most energy and can quickly drain a mobile battery?
    • A. 

      High Performance

    • B. 

      Low Perfromance

    • C. 

      Balanced

    • D. 

      Power Saver

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Operating System

    • B. 

      Active Applications

    • C. 

      Hidden Software

    • D. 

      Memory problems

  • 67. 
    If Internet Explorer recognizes a webpage that isn’t compatible, you’ll see the Compatibility View button on the address bar? 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 68. 
    To make Internet Explorer more flexible, Internet Explorer allows you to add add-ons such as extra toolbars, animated mouse pointers, stock tickers, and pop-up add blockers to your web browser.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      ActiveX

    • B. 

      SoftX

    • C. 

      FormX

    • D. 

      DisplayX

  • 70. 
    Instead of always going to a search engine web page, you can search information from the search box via a search provider.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 71. 
    Bing is the default search provider if you use the express setup for Internet Explorer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Accelerator

    • B. 

      Scanner

    • C. 

      Add-on

    • D. 

      Mouse Over

  • 73. 
    Before you can receive RSS feeds with IE, you must subscribe to them.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    When you use a browser to surf the Internet, a lot can be revealed about a person’s personality and personal information, what type of file, that is stored with IE8, and gathers this information?
    • A. 

      Cookie file

    • B. 

      Ini File

    • C. 

      Info file

    • D. 

      Account file

  • 75. 
    Which type of browsing can prevent websites from gathering personal information about you, location and other data?
    • A. 

      InPrivate Browsing

    • B. 

      Cookie Browsing

    • C. 

      Site Security

    • D. 

      Website virtual display

  • 76. 
    Along with InPrivate browsing, and you enable this option; what other feature helps prevent website content providers from collecting information about sites you visit?
    • A. 

      InPrivate Filtering

    • B. 

      InPrivate Phishing

    • C. 

      InPrivate Info

    • D. 

      InPrivate Collecting

  • 77. 
    To help protect your computer, Internet Explorer has the capability to suppress what type of annoyance that can occur frequently when visiting a website?
    • A. 

      Pop-up Blocker

    • B. 

      Pop-up killer

    • C. 

      Pop-up Filtering

    • D. 

      Pop-up display

  • 78. 
    Trusted Sites Zone:Contains trusted sites that you believe you can download or run files from without damaging your computer or data, or sites that you do not consider security risks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 79. 
    Restricted Sites Zone:Contains sites that you do not trust from which downloading or running files may damage your computer or data, or sites that you consider security risks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 80. 
    Local Intranet Zone:Computers that are part of the organization’s network (intranet) that do not require a proxy server, as defined by the system administrator.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 81. 
    Internet Zone:Anything that is not assigned to any other zone and anything that is not on your computer, or your organization’s network (intranet).
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Medium

    • B. 

      High

    • C. 

      Low

    • D. 

      Secure

  • 83. 
    Dynamic security is a set of tools and technology that protects your computer as you browse the Internet with Internet Explorer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 84. 
    To help protect against phishing, Internet Explorer 8 includes which feature in its software package?
    • A. 

      SmartScreen Filter

    • B. 

      Anti Pop-up

    • C. 

      Smartscreen monitor

    • D. 

      Anti Phishing filter

  • 85. 
    What is a cryptographic system that uses two keys to encrypt data uses a public key known to everyone and a private or secret key known only to the recipient of the message.
    • A. 

      Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

    • B. 

      SSH

    • C. 

      UAC

    • D. 

      PPTP/SSTP

  • 86. 
    When you connect to a site that is secured using SSL, what icon appears in the address bar, along with the name of the organization to which the CA issued the certificate.
    • A. 

      Gold Lock

    • B. 

      Platinum Lock

    • C. 

      Silver Lock

    • D. 

      Bronze Lock

  • 87. 
    What is a term for computers, that is used for the protection of information and property from theft, corruption, or natural disaster, while allowing the information and property to remain accessible and productive to its intended users.
    • A. 

      Security

    • B. 

      Audting

    • C. 

      Authorization

    • D. 

      Athentication

  • 88. 
    What is a term sometimes called malware, and is software designed to infiltrate or affect a computer system without the owner’s informed consent.It is usually associated with viruses, worms, Trojan horses, spyware, rootkits, and dishonest adware.
    • A. 

      Malicious Software

    • B. 

      Viral Software

    • C. 

      Phishing Software

    • D. 

      Destruction Software

  • 89. 
    What is is a software product from Microsoft that prevents, removes, and quarantines spyware in Microsoft Windows.It protects your computer against pop-ups, slow performance, and security threats caused by spyware and other unwanted software by detecting and removing known spyware from your computer.
    • A. 

      Windows Defender

    • B. 

      Windows anti-root kit

    • C. 

      Windows anti-virus

    • D. 

      Windows Scanner

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      UAC

    • B. 

      MMC

    • C. 

      Snap-in

    • D. 

      Monitor

  • 91. 
    A ____________ firewall is a firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections.
  • 92. 
    • A. 

      Installed by Default

    • B. 

      Installed with permissions

    • C. 

      Installed by the UAC

    • D. 

      Installed with User Profiles

  • 93. 
    The primary function of the Action Center is to provide what information immediatley?Select 2 options:
    • A. 

      Automatic Notification

    • B. 

      User Alerts

    • C. 

      Domain Requests

    • D. 

      DNS Server problems

  • 94. 
    A virus hoax is a message warning the recipient of a nonexistent computer virus threat, usually sent as a chain email that tells the recipient to forward it to everyone he or she knows.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 95. 
    After installing Windows, what should be the next step in the installation process?
    • A. 

      Windows Updates

    • B. 

      Windows Configuration

    • C. 

      Windows cleanup

    • D. 

      Windows package monitor

  • 96. 
    Service Packs:A tested, cumulative set of hotfixes, security updates, critical updates, and updates, as well as additional fixes for problems found internally since the release of the product.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 97. 
    Encryption is the process of converting data into a format that cannot be read by another user.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 98. 
    Encrypting File System (EFS) can encrypt files on an NTFS volume that cannot be used unless the user has access to the keys required to decrypt the information.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 99. 
    BitLocker Drive Encryption is the feature in Windows 7 that makes use of a computer’s TPM. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a microchip that is built into a computer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 100. 
    A data recovery agent (DRA) is a user account that an administrator has authorized to recover BitLocker drives for an entire organization with a digital certificate on a smart card.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 101. 
    BitLocker To Go is a new feature in Windows 7 that enables users to encrypt removable USB devices, such as flash drives and external hard disks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 102. 
     A computer virus is a program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the user’s consent or knowledge.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 103. 
    A worm is a self-replicating program that replicates itself to other computers over the network without any user intervention
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 104. 
    • A. 

      Full Control

    • B. 

      Read

    • C. 

      Write

    • D. 

      Modify

  • 105. 
    Which permission takes precedence?
    • A. 

      Explicit deny

    • B. 

      Inherited deny

    • C. 

      Explicit Allow

    • D. 

      Ingerited Allow

  • 106. 
    If full control is assigned to a parent object for a user, the full control permission will overwrite explicit permissions at a child object.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 107. 
    • A. 

      Permissions

    • B. 

      Right

    • C. 

      User

    • D. 

      Template

  • 108. 
    • A. 

      ACL

    • B. 

      ACE

    • C. 

      User Folder

    • D. 

      Group

  • 109. 
    • A. 

      Write

    • B. 

      Read

    • C. 

      Modify

    • D. 

      Full control

  • 110. 
    • A. 

      Full Control

    • B. 

      Read and Write

    • C. 

      Modify

    • D. 

      Admin

  • 111. 
    • A. 

      Explicit permissions

    • B. 

      Explicit ownership

    • C. 

      Inherited allow

    • D. 

      Inherited deny

  • 112. 
    • A. 

      Explicit Deny Full Control

    • B. 

      Inherited Allow Full Control

    • C. 

      Explicit Allow Full Control

    • D. 

      Inherited Deny Full Control

  • 113. 
    • A. 

      The file will acquire the permissions of the target folder.

    • B. 

      The file will acquire the permissions of the source folder.

    • C. 

      The file will have the permissions as before.

    • D. 

      The file will have the permissions as the source

  • 114. 
    What happens to those permissions of a file if you move to a folder within the same volume?
    • A. 

      The file will have the permissions as before.

    • B. 

      The file will have no permissions.

    • C. 

      The file will acquire the permissions of the target folder.

    • D. 

      The file will acquire the permission of the source folder.

  • 115. 
    What technology is used to encrypt an individual file or folder?
    • A. 

      EFS

    • B. 

      DFS

    • C. 

      UAC

    • D. 

      SSTP

  • 116. 
    What is the minimum share permission needed to modify files and its attributes?
    • A. 

      Change

    • B. 

      Read

    • C. 

      Write

    • D. 

      Modify

  • 117. 
    What shares are usually hidden and are used for administrative purposes?
    • A. 

      Administrative share

    • B. 

      Administrative source

    • C. 

      Administrative ACL

    • D. 

      Administrative control

  • 118. 
    What is the minimum permission needed to print to a printer and to manage your own print jobs?
    • A. 

      Print

    • B. 

      Manage

    • C. 

      Read and Write

    • D. 

      Group

  • 119. 
    How do you enable auditing on a Windows server?
    • A. 

      Group Policies

    • B. 

      Group Manager

    • C. 

      Domain Manager

    • D. 

      Domain Policies

  • 120. 
    What is the default path for the print spool folder? 
    • A. 

      C:Windows/System32/Spool/Printers

    • B. 

      C:Windows/System32

    • C. 

      C:Windows/Spool/Printers

    • D. 

      C:Windows/System3/Printers

  • 121. 
    What do you call permissions that is actually granted to a user, when a user logs on and accesses the particular file or folder? 
    • A. 

      Effective permissions

    • B. 

      Allow permissions

    • C. 

      Deny permissions

    • D. 

      Special permissions

  • 122. 
    To print to a printer, you need the _____ permission. 
  • 123. 
    What do you call permissions that flow from a parent object to a child object?
    • A. 

      Inherited permissions

    • B. 

      Deny permissions

    • C. 

      Full control

    • D. 

      Explicit allow

  • 124. 
    The encrypting technology included in NTFS is _____.
  • 125. 
    What is a single virtual printer with a single print queue that consist of two or more printers?
    • A. 

      Printer Pool

    • B. 

      Printer group

    • C. 

      Printer rights

    • D. 

      Printer user

  • 126. 
    You are an administrator on a computer.Unfortunately, there is a folder that you cannot access because you do not have permissions to the folder.What can you do?
    • A. 

      Take ownership of the folder.

    • B. 

      Delete the folder and recreate it.

    • C. 

      Turn off the deny attribute.

    • D. 

      Grant the allow everyone full permission.

  • 127. 
    When calculating the NTFS and share permissions, you would apply the more restrictive permissions between the NTFS and shared permission.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 128. 
     Which of the following ports does SMB use?
    • A. 

      445

    • B. 

      169

    • C. 

      80

    • D. 

      443

  • 129. 
    What do you call a device driver that converts the print jobs generated by applications into an appropriate string of commands for a specific print device?
    • A. 

      Print Driver

    • B. 

      Print Spool

    • C. 

      Print Job

    • D. 

      Print Outline

  • 130. 
    Which type of printer is connected directly to the network?
    • A. 

      Network Printer

    • B. 

      Share Printer

    • C. 

      Domain Printer

    • D. 

      User Printer

  • 131. 
    With Windows, the physical printer is known as a?
    • A. 

      Print Device

    • B. 

      Printer

    • C. 

      Domain Printer

    • D. 

      Group Printer

  • 132. 
    The logical printer that users can access in Windows is known as:
    • A. 

      Printer

    • B. 

      Photocopy

    • C. 

      Copy Device

    • D. 

      PDF printer

  • 133. 
    TCP/IP printers use port ___________   .
  • 134. 
    To manage other people's print jobs, you need  to assign the ________   ________ permission for a user!
  • 135. 
    To view who has printed on a printer, you would look in  which 2 places to see and find the user?
    • A. 

      System Log

    • B. 

      Event Viewer

    • C. 

      MMC

    • D. 

      Msconfig

  • 136. 
    What do you call it when multiple printers share the same print queue? 
    • A. 

      Printer Pool

    • B. 

      Printing job list

    • C. 

      Print LIst

    • D. 

      Pool List

  • 137. 
    What do you call the set of commands that a printer understands in order to print content?
    • A. 

      PCL

    • B. 

      OCL

    • C. 

      JPL

    • D. 

      JVC

  • 138. 
    AppLocker creates rules based the following except_______________________?
    • A. 

      Network Zone

    • B. 

      Path

    • C. 

      File Hash

    • D. 

      Publisher

  • 139. 
    AppLocker is configured using _________   ________   .
  • 140. 
    If an application cannot communicate over the network, you should check the firewalls.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 141. 
    If you have Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008 machines, what should you use to restrict applications?
    • A. 

      AppLocker

    • B. 

      AppChecker

    • C. 

      AppMonitor

    • D. 

      Command Prompt

  • 142. 
    What tool allows you to detect potential compatibility issues due to the User Account Control (UAC) feature?
    • A. 

      Standard User Analysis

    • B. 

      Standard UAC

    • C. 

      Compatibility Checker

    • D. 

      Standard User Compatibility

  • 143. 
    When a program will not run under Windows 7 under compatibility settings, you should then try Windows XP Mode.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 144. 
    Which compatibility settings should you select if you notice problems with menus or buttons on the title bar of the program?
    • A. 

      256 colors

    • B. 

      16 million colors

    • C. 

      480x640 colors

    • D. 

      Default color settings

  • 145. 
    You are configuring a program using the Program Compatibility settings. What option allows the application to run as an administrator?
    • A. 

      Privilege level

    • B. 

      User Level

    • C. 

      Group Level

    • D. 

      Domain Level

  • 146. 
    The average disk queue length should not be more than ______________.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      1

  • 147. 
    For 32-bit systems, your paging file should not typically be _______ times the amount of RAM.
  • 148. 
    If the disk queue length is consistently above _________, your disk system is being over utilized ?
  • 149. 
    A page fault occurs when a process attempts to access virtual memory page that is not available in its working set of RAM.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 150. 
    Sometimes by relieving one bottleneck, you may trigger another bottleneck.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 151. 
    What do you call a program that grabs some memory but does not release it when done with it?
    • A. 

      Memory Leak

    • B. 

      Memory bottleneck

    • C. 

      Memory fragment

    • D. 

      Memory oversize

  • 152. 
    What is included with Windows 7 as a tool to measure performance so that you can determine what software you can run?
    • A. 

      WEI

    • B. 

      UAC

    • C. 

      MEM

    • D. 

      MMC

  • 153. 
    What MMC snap-in provides tools in analyzing system performance?
    • A. 

      Performance Monitor

    • B. 

      System Monitor

    • C. 

      Performance System

    • D. 

      System Scanner

  • 154. 
    What program allows you to view information about the use of hardware including processor, memory, disk, and network and software resources in real time?
    • A. 

      Resource Monitor

    • B. 

      Resource Settings

    • C. 

      Monitor Settings

    • D. 

      Performance Settings

  • 155. 
    What technology is used to configure power settings?
    • A. 

      ACPI

    • B. 

      APU

    • C. 

      ACU

    • D. 

      MMC

  • 156. 
    Which of the following is not typically a bottleneck in a computer running Windows 7?
    • A. 

      Audio

    • B. 

      Processor

    • C. 

      Memory

    • D. 

      Disk

  • 157. 
    You have computer with 2GB of memory. If the paging file used on a Windows 7 machine is 4GB, what kind of bottleneck are you dealing with?
    • A. 

      Memory

    • B. 

      Disk

    • C. 

      CPU

    • D. 

      Audio

  • 158. 
    A(n) _____________ is a software program that protects a computer by allowing certain types of network traffic in and out of the system while blocking others.
  • 159. 
    The best protection to protect your system is to use an up-to-date antivirus and to keep your system up-to-date with the newest security patches.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 160. 
    BitLocker requires a TPM chip.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 161. 
    If your machine does not have a TPM chip, how can you still use BitLocker? 
    • A. 

      USB Flash Drive

    • B. 

      Virtual Disk

    • C. 

      VMware

    • D. 

      DVD Burner

  • 162. 
    No matter what technology you use to secure your laptop, social engineering can still bypass that security.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 163. 
    What component can BitLocker use to store cryptographic information and which is usually built into a laptop computer?
    • A. 

      TPM

    • B. 

      MMC

    • C. 

      UAC

    • D. 

      MPT

  • 164. 
    What component in Windows 7 provides a centralized console that enables users and administrators to access, monitor, and configure the various Windows 7 security mechanism?
    • A. 

      Action Center

    • B. 

      Anti-virus

    • C. 

      Anti-user

    • D. 

      Backdoor

  • 165. 
    You encrypted a file using EFS. The next day, you decide to compress the file because of its large size. Later you notice that it was not encrypted anymore. What is the problem?
    • A. 

      You cannot compress and use EFS on a file

    • B. 

      Need to redo the EFS part

    • C. 

      EFX is needed to verify

    • D. 

      MMC will not allow

  • 166. 
    Which type of encryption uses one key to encrypt and another key to decrypt?
    • A. 

      Assymetircal

    • B. 

      Ssymetircal

    • C. 

      Semi Attached

    • D. 

      Non ssymetircal

  • 167. 
    What is required to run protected mode on Internet Explorer?
    • A. 

      UAC

    • B. 

      MMC

    • C. 

      SCS

    • D. 

      L2TP